Vent material Flashcards

1
Q
A

restriction

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2
Q
A

airway obstruction

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3
Q
A

fixed obstruction

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4
Q
A

variable intra thoracic obstruction

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5
Q
A

early airflow obstruction

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6
Q
A

variable extra thoracic obstruction

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7
Q
A

normal flow volume loop

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8
Q

spirogram

A
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9
Q

wright respirometer

A
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10
Q

3 types of dead space

A
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11
Q

what is I TIME

A

amount of time spent in inspiration

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12
Q

what is E time

A

amount of time spent in expiration

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13
Q

what is volume

A

the amount of tidal volume a patient recieves

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14
Q

what is pressure

A

measure of impedence to gas flow rate

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15
Q

what is flow

A

measure of rate at which gas is delivered

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16
Q

what is the ideal amount of tidal volume

A

6-8ml/kg of ideal body weight

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17
Q

when do you give lower TVs

A

ARDS or COPD or ASTHMA

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18
Q

what is PIP

A

peak inspiratory pressure
the highest level of pressure aplied to lungs in cm H2O

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19
Q

what is PIP limit

A

40 cmH2O

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20
Q

when can PIP be higher

A

ARDS

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21
Q

what should PIP be in masked or LMA patient

A

20 cmH2O

bc lower esophageal sphincter opens at >20cmH20

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22
Q

what triggers a ventilator to cycle inspiration

A

time
pressure
volume
flow

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23
Q

what is a normal peep level

A

5-8 cm h2o

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24
Q

what conditions require higher peep of 8-12 or 20 cm H2O

A

ARDS

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25
Q

what happens if PEEP exceeds 20 cm H20

A

severe lung damage
barotrauma
subq emphysema
pneumo

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26
Q

slope is a measure of

A

time

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27
Q

slope is how long it takes to reach a set

A

pressure

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28
Q

what is range of slope

A

0-2 seconds

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29
Q

a higher number slope is a more (gradual/steep) slope

A

gradual

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30
Q

what mode is slope important in

A

pressure support

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31
Q

if slope is longer than inspiratory time what is comprimised

A

TV

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32
Q

what is PIP- PEEP

A

delta P

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33
Q

pressure control is

A

preset pressure
delivered Vt changes according to lung compliance
when the patient is spontaneously breathing, as the PIP is fixed, reduces pt discomfort

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34
Q

volume control is

A

volume is preset

delivered PIP varies based on pulm compliance and airway resistance

pt spontaneously breathing, PIP is variable, it will deliver a breath during asynchrony leading to increased work of breathing and discomfort

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35
Q

pressure vs volume waveforms

A
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36
Q

which vent mode provides guaranteed MV and is more comfortable for patients

A

volume control

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37
Q

which vent mode is not optimal for poorly compliant lungs

A

volume

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38
Q

which vent mode provides more support at lower PIP for poorly compliant lungs

A

pressure

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39
Q

which vent mode does not have a guaranteed MV

A

pressure

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40
Q

which vent mode do we use right before extubation

A

pressure support

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41
Q

which vent mode is pressure support but with a BACKUP rate

A

PSV-pro

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42
Q

which vent mode has madatory breaths (synchronized) and pressure support for spontaneous breaths

A

SIMV

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43
Q

what flow is diminished in COPD

A

expiratory
FEV1 is low

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44
Q

normal flow volume loop

A
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45
Q

COPD flow-volume loop

A
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46
Q

how does restrictive lung disease affect volume loop

A

residual volume is low
inspiratory volume (TLC)
FEV1 normal
peak exp flow normal

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47
Q

restrictive flow-volume loop

A
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48
Q

flow volume loop comparison

A
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49
Q

what would cause a pattern of expiratory flow-volume curve to be normal, but have a low inspiratory value

A

upper airway obstruction

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50
Q

what causes upper airway obstruction

A

paralysis of vocal cords
laryngospasms
Thyromegaly
tracheomalacia

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51
Q

what complication obstructs both inspiration and expiration

A

fixed intrathoracic or extrathoracic airway obstuctions
EX. tracheal stenosis, foregn body, neoplasm

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52
Q

what is a cause of post op bradypnea

A

opioid overdose

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53
Q

what is a cause of post op tachypnea

A

pain

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54
Q

as TV decreases, dead space____

A

increases

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55
Q

what must be set in VCV mode

A

TV
RR
I:E ratio

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56
Q

PIP is ____ related to lung compliance

A

inversely

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57
Q

what is set in PCV

A

peak airway pressure
RR
I:E ratio

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58
Q

what must be monitored closely in PCV

A

tidal volume
CO2

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59
Q

what is the amount of gas inspired or expired with each normal breath

A

Tidal Volume (TV)

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60
Q

what is the maximum amount of additional air that can be inspired from the end of a normal inspiration

A

inspiratory reserve volume

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61
Q

what is the maximum volume of additional air that can be expired from the end of a normal expiration

A

expiratory reserve volume

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62
Q

what is the volume of air remaining in the lung after a maximal expiration

A

residual volume

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63
Q

what s the only lung volume which cannot be measured with a spirometer

A

residual volume

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64
Q

what is the volume of air contained in the lungs at the end of a maximal inspiration

A

total lung capacity

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65
Q

what is the sum of the 4 basic lung volumes

A

TLC

IRV+TV+ERV+RV

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66
Q

what is the maximum volume of air that can be forcefully expelled from the lungs following a maximal inspiration

A

vital capacity

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67
Q

what is the sum of inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume

A

vital capacity

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68
Q

what is the formula for VC

A

IRV+TV+ERV= TLC-RV

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69
Q

what are some factors that decrease FRC

A

obesity
pregnancy
upright position
supine position
anesthetic induction
neuromuscular blockers
surgical displacement

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70
Q

what is the reservoir of oxygen that prevents hypoxemia during apnea

A

functional residual capacity

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71
Q

what is the volume of air remaining in the lung at the end of a normal expiration

A

functional residual capacity

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72
Q

what is the residual volume plus the expiratory reserve volume

A

FRC

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73
Q

what is the fomula for FRC

A

RV + ERV

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74
Q

how does GA affect FRC

A

decreases

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75
Q

how does obesity affect FRC

A

decreases

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76
Q

how does pregnancy affect FRC

A

decreases

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77
Q

how is FRC in neonates

A

decreased

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78
Q

how does advanced age affect FRC

A

increases

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79
Q

how does supine position affect FRC

A

decreased

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80
Q

how does lithotomy affect FRC

A

decreases

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81
Q

how does trendelenburg affect FRC

A

decreases

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82
Q

how does prone affect FRC

A

increases

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83
Q

how does sitting affect FRC

A

increases

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84
Q

how does lateral position affect FRC

A

no change or increases

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85
Q

how does paralysis affect FRC

A

decreases

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86
Q

how does inadequate anesthesia affect FRC

A

decreases

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87
Q

how does excessive IV fluids affects FRC

A

decreases

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88
Q

how does high FI02 affect FRC

A

decreases

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89
Q

how does reduced pulmonary compliance affect FRC

A

decreases

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90
Q

how does obstructive lung disease affect FRC

A

increased

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91
Q

how does PEEP affect FRC

A

increased

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92
Q

how do sigh breaths affect FRC

A

increased

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93
Q

what is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired from end expiratory position

A

inspired capacity

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94
Q

what is the sum of tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume

A

inspired capacity

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95
Q

what is the formula for IC

A

tidal vol + inspiratory reserve volume

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96
Q

which lung zone has no blood flow

A

zone 1, pathological zone

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97
Q

in what lung zone does pulmonary pressure exceed alveolar pressure. blood flow here is pulmonary artery pressure-alveolar pressure

A

zone 2

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98
Q

what lung zone is blood flow proportional to PAP- pulmonary vein pressure

A

zone 3

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99
Q

where should Swan be

A

zone 3

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100
Q

which zone is present in pulmonary edema

A

zone 4

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101
Q

blood flow in zone 4 is PAP- ___________

A

pulmonary interstitial fluid pressure gradient

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102
Q

which lung zone is:
PA(alveolar)>Pa>Pv

A

zone 1

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103
Q

which lung zone is:
Pa>PA>pv

A

zone 2

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104
Q

which lung zone is:
Pa>Pv>PA

A

zone 3

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105
Q

which lung zone is:
Pa>Pi (interstitial pressure)> Pv>PA

A

zone 4

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106
Q

what is normal Va (alveolar ventilation)

A

4 L/ min

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107
Q

what is normal pulmonary capillary perfusion (Q)

A

5 L/min

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108
Q

what is normal V/Q ratio

A

0.8

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109
Q

what is normal V/Q range

A

0.3-3.0

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110
Q

what causes a low V/Q ratio

A

LUNG PROBLEM
shunt
airway obstruction to area

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111
Q

what causes a high V/Q ratio

A

BLOOD PROBLEM
deadspace
blood flow problem
pulmonary emoboli

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112
Q

low v/q

A
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113
Q

high V/Q

A
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114
Q

what is the affect of shunt/low V/Q

A

hypoxia

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115
Q

what is the affect of deadspace high V/Q

A

hypercapnea
hypoxia

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116
Q

shunt

A
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117
Q

dead space

A
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118
Q

in shunt:
PaO2 is __________
PaCO2 is ___________

A

Low
High

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119
Q

in pulmonary embolism (dead space):
PAO2 is_________
PACO2 is _________

A

higher
low

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120
Q

mapleson circuits

A
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121
Q

bain circuit

A
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122
Q

at what flow do you not need a CO2 absorber on circuit

A

> 5L

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123
Q

where is dead space on a circle cicuit

A

distal to Y piece

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124
Q

what gives lungs their elasticity

A

collagen and elastin fibers

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125
Q

lungs with low compliance require (less/more) pressure to inflate

A

more

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126
Q

what is the elastance formula

A
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127
Q

what is compliance formula

A
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128
Q

what causes resistance in the lungs

A

tissue resistance and airway resistance

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129
Q

what law gives us the formula for resistance

A

poiseuilles law

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130
Q

poiseuilles law pressure formula

A
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131
Q

what does an increased alfa angle suggest

A

expiratory airway obstruction
-copd, bronchospasm, kinked et tube

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132
Q

what can cause increased dead space causing low etco2

A

pulm embolism

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133
Q

what does an increased beta angle suggest

A

rebreathing due to faulty inspiration valve
soda lime

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134
Q

what needs to be monitored when giving neuromuscular blocking agents

A

neuromuscular function and status

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135
Q

what are advantages of side stream sampling

A

lightweight,
less chance of disconnect,
accurate <40 breaths/min,
no dead space

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136
Q

what are disadvantages of side stream monitoring

A

water/secretions may clog line,
flexible tube easily obstructed,
inaccurate >40 breath so no peds

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137
Q

describe side stream sampling

A

pump in monitor aspirates sample of gas trhough thin/flexible sampling line

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138
Q

what monitoring sampling measures gas directly in breathing system

A

mainstream aka non diverting

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139
Q

what are advantages of mainstream sampling aka non diverting

A

fast,
good fidelity,
water and secretions not an issue

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140
Q

which sampling method can increase etco2

A

mainstream sampling by increasing dead space

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141
Q

what are disadvantages of mainstream sampling aka non diverting

A

heavy in circuit,
increases dead space,
greater opportunity for disconnect,
gas options limited

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142
Q

what is the measurement and numerical display of co2 concentrations during respiratory cycle

A

capnography

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143
Q

what is a graphic record of co2 concntratino on screen or paper

A

capnography

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144
Q

what is the actual waveform genered by capnometer

A

capnogram

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145
Q

what may be detected due to abnormalities in capnography

A

airway obstruction

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146
Q

what is produced by cells of body during metabolism into circulatory system and then is diffused into lungs

A

CO2

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147
Q

what is a better indicator of rosc during resuscitation

A

exhaled CO2

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148
Q

what cardiac changes can etco2 aid in detecting

A

decreased cardiac output,
pulmonary embolism,
reduced blood flow to lungs

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149
Q

what guides ventilator changes and can give a trend of anesthesia depth

A

CO2

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150
Q

what could a sudden increase in co2 represent during code

A

spontaneous cardiac function/output

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151
Q

what is difference between etco2 on monitor and blood

A

blood is usually 5 higher than monitor

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152
Q

What are some complications that can happen that etco2 can help alert to

A

esophageal intubation,
apnea,
extubation,
disconnection,
ventilator malfunction,
ett partial obstruction,
compliance vs resistance changes,
spontaneous resp w/muscle relaxant use,
poor lma fit,
leaking ett cuff

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153
Q

what is phase 1 in capnography (A)

A

inspiratory baseline- 0- low valley

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154
Q

what could be a problem if your co2 isn’t reading 0 during phase 1

A

co2 canister needs to be changed out

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155
Q

what is phase 2 in capnography and what letters are in it

A

initiating exhale- b- c

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156
Q

what is phase 3 in capnography and what letters are in it

A

plateau c-d
no plateau= not reading correctly

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157
Q

how is slope of phase 3 increased

A

kink, ventilation perfusion status,

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158
Q

what is phase iv in capnography and what letters are in it

A

end tidal point down to zero (inhalation)
d-e

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159
Q

what is the letter with the highest co2 number on capnography

A

d- 35-40 torr

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160
Q

what could cause no co2 in gas line

A

obstruction,
disconnection,
esophageal intubation,
no blood circulation to lungs

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161
Q

what uses each anesthetic gas’s ability to absorb specific frequencies of emr in the infrared spectrum

A

infrared absorption analysis

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162
Q

what anesthesia gas monitoring has advantages of being fast, reliable, low cost, multiagent/multigas

A

mass spectrometry

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163
Q

what anesthesia gas monitoring has disadvantages of warm up time, space, must be scavenged, and measures only preprogrammed gases

A

mass spectrometry

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164
Q

what has a laser that interacts with gas molecule and measures the fraction of energy absorbed at different live wavelengths called scattering

A

raman spectrometry

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165
Q

what anesthesia gas monitoring is less accurate with pediatric cases, since they use high carrier gas flow rates and small tidal volumes

A

raman spectrometry

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166
Q

what are disadvantages of raman spectrometry

A

costly, less accurate in pediatrics

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167
Q

what are advantages of raman spectrometry

A

no scavenging,
accurate,
fast multi-gas/agent

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168
Q

what do you need to do with o2 flow sensor (galvanic cell)

A

calibrate to room air, degrade in 30 days

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169
Q

what does vaporizer output assess

A

detects incorrect agents
detect vaporizer turned off/empty
provides info on uptake and elim of agent in pt

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170
Q

what should baseline be on capnography

A

zero

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171
Q

what can interfere with bis

A

shivering, electrocautery, forced air warmer, cardiac pacemaker spikes

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172
Q

how does electrocautery interupt bis

A

unipolar cautery overloads bis signal transmission

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173
Q

how can you reduce exposure to unheated gases and aid in volatile agent sparing

A

low FGF

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174
Q

t or f- the icu ventilator breathing circuit is typically a closed system

A

f- typically open system, does not have gas recirculated through

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175
Q

t or f- modern anesthesia machines are typically closed system

A

f- semi closed systems

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176
Q

why are modern anesthesia machines considered semi closed systems

A

removal of co2
conservation of volatile agents

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177
Q

what are the two major functions of the lung

A

ventilation
oxygenation

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178
Q

what is the term for elimination of co2

A

ventilation

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179
Q

what is the term for intake of oxygen

A

oxygenation

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180
Q

what determines the partial pressure of co2 in the arterialized blood

A

alveolar ventilation

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181
Q

what is the best indicator for oxygenation

A

PaO2

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182
Q

t or f- PAco2 is best estimated from Paco2

A

TRUE

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183
Q

the quantity of ___________ ________________ produced normally dictates minute ventilation

A

carbon dioxide

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184
Q

normally dead space minute ventilation makes up _______ of the minute volume

A

1/3

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185
Q

what is the normal oxygen consumption of an average 70kg adult human

A

250 ml/min

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186
Q

what is the ratio between co2 production and oxygen consumption

A

respiratory quotient

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187
Q

what is normal respiratory quotient

A

200/250

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188
Q

what is the energy expended to move the gas into and out of the lungs

A

work of breathing

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189
Q

work of breathing is measured by the work needed to overcome what two things

A

elastic properties of lung/chest wall
resistance aspects of circuit

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190
Q

what parts of circuit provide resistance

A

et tube
large and small airways

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191
Q

what does change of airway pressure/change in volume

A

elastance

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192
Q

under normal circumstances, the work of breathing is mostly overcoming what:

A

elastance of lung and chest wall

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193
Q

t or f- mechanical ventilation exhalation is passive

A

true

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194
Q

what is the formula for compliance

A

change in volume/change in pressure

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195
Q

what two pressures must the ventilator overcome during inspiration

A

compliance and resistance

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196
Q

changes in inspiratory pressure result in changes in what two variables

A

tidal volume
inspiratory flow

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197
Q

what does the symbol PI stand for

A

inspired pressure

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198
Q

what does the symbol PIMAX stand for

A

peak inspiratory pressure

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199
Q

what does the symbol VT stand for

A

tidal volume

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200
Q

what does the symbol mv mean

A

minute volume

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201
Q

what does the symbol QI stand for

A

inspiratory flow

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202
Q

what does the symbol f stand for

A

frequency

203
Q

what does the symbol TC stand for

A

resp cycle time

204
Q

what does the symbol Tplat stand for

A

inspiratory pause time

205
Q

what does the symbol TI stand for

A

inspiratory time

206
Q

what does the symbol TE stand for

A

expiratory time

207
Q

what does the symbol I:E stand for

A

inspiratory/expiratory ratio

208
Q

t or f- inspiratory pause (tplat) is not a part of the inspiratory time

A

false

209
Q

what determines the duration of the respiratory cycle

A

frequency

210
Q

in the I:E ratio, which is generally the bigger number

A

expiratory- need more time to exhale

211
Q

what does intermittent positive pressure ventilation or PEEP do to cardiac output and how

A

decreases- pressure increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases blood flow to heart, which decreases cardiac output

212
Q

when does intrathoracic pressure increase during IPPV vs PEEP

A

IPPV: inspiration
PEEP: expiration

213
Q

what are two possible negative effects of peep

A

increased dead space
reduced cardiac output

214
Q

why is someone with pneumonia or ards at an increased risk for further lung damage

A

the good lung segments receive more tidal volume and peep, which can cause further damage

215
Q

t or f- maintain large tidal volume (15-20ml/kg) to maintain alveolar distention and prevent atelectasis

A

f- may cause barotrauma

216
Q

what can overdistention of health alveoli cause

A

pulmonary interstitial emphysema
pneumothorax

217
Q

what is the recommended tidal volume

A

6-8 ml/kg

218
Q

peep maximizes what lung volume measurement

A

functional residual capacity

219
Q

what kind of ventilation is the goal to increase mean airway pressure and minimize peak pressure

A

inverse ratio ventilation

220
Q

what kind of ventilation seeks to recruit alveoli without overdistention

A

inverse ratio ventilation

221
Q

which bellows rises during exhalation

A

ascending- standing

222
Q

which bellows falls during exhalation

A

descending- hanging

223
Q

which type of bellows may inflate with room air even during circuit disconnect or leak

A

descending- hanging

224
Q

what can a hole in a bellows lead to

A

barotrauma

225
Q

does bellows driven or piston driven ventilator have more accurate tidal volumes

A

piston drive

226
Q

which type of ventilator relies on a spinning fan to produce a drive gas pressure

A

turbine

227
Q

t or f- exhalation is typically a passive event

A

true

228
Q

how do you manipulate exhalation pressures

A

peep

229
Q

what can high pressure ventilation lead to with blood pressure

A

hypotension

230
Q

t or f- extending an inspiratory plateau may improve gas exchange by keeping alveoli expanded for a longer period

A

true

231
Q

when is the relief valve to the scavenging system sealed

A

during inspiration
beginning of exhalation

232
Q

t or f- relief valve to scavenging system is closed during the beginning of exhalation until the ascending bellows has been refilled

A

true

233
Q

what provides the constant 2-3 cm h2o of peep even when peep hasn’t been manually turned on

A

relief valve

234
Q

t or f- there is alway 2-3 of peep on ventilator even when peep hasn’t been manually turned on

A

true

235
Q

why is it important to check adjustable relief valve on machines that have it

A

if it is improperly adjusted, it can result in too high of peep which can cause barotrauma or hypotension

236
Q

what are the 3 ventilator modes of breathing

A

controlled breathing
assisted/supported
spontaneous

237
Q

t or f- in controlled breathing mode, the patient can contribute effort toward work of breathing

A

f- cannot contribute any

238
Q

what is set parameter in volume control ventialtion

A

volume

239
Q

when needs to be closely monitored during volume control ventilation

A

Peak airway pressure- because airway pressure can get really high to hit specified volume in those with poor lung compliance

240
Q

what is fixed parameter in pressure control ventilation

A

pressure

241
Q

when are high flows delivered during pressure control ventilation

A

start of inspiration

242
Q

what should be monitored with pressure control ventilation

A

CO2
tidal volume

243
Q

which ventilator setting is the patient’s effort to breath manifested by negative deflection in airway pressure, and a predetermined negative pressure triggers the vent to deliver a set tidal volume

A

assisted ventilation

244
Q

which vent setting will a control breath not be delivered as long as the patient triggers ventilator more than the interval defined by set control rate

A

assist control ventilation

245
Q

what are the characteristics of acv

A

-set control rate: patient triggers ventilator, but if less than interval defined, vent initiates breath
-volume is also set on machine

246
Q

what is set by clinician in pressure support ventilation

A

peak airway pressure,
i time,
trigger

247
Q

which mode does clinician set mandatory vent breaths by either volume or pressure at a defined rate and i time

A

intermittent mandatory ventilation

248
Q

what is patient at risk for with intermittent mandatory ventilation

A

breath stacking–>barotrauma

249
Q

t or f- breath stacking is a common problem with SIMV mode

A

false
rarely occurs

250
Q

what does the cpap number represent on vent

A

airway pressure between exhalation and inhalation

251
Q

the gas flow in the airway is always __ between exhalation and inhalation

A

0

252
Q

which mode has t-slope, simv or psv pro

A

psv pro

253
Q

what should you make sure to monitor with pressure control ventilation

A

CO2
tidal volume

254
Q

if lung perfusion/cardiac output decreases, what will happen to amount of dead space ventilation

A

increases

254
Q

what modes are commonly used with lma

A

SIMV
pressure support

255
Q

how is incoming gas warmed in the bain circuit

A

exhaled gas

256
Q

which mapleson is best for spontaneous ventilation

A

mapleson a
worst= B

257
Q

which mapleson is best for controlled ventilation

A

d
worst= A

258
Q

what is an example of a surgery where patient will have decreased compliance

A

laparoscopy

259
Q

what is the maximum amount of additional air that can be inspired from the end of normal inspiration

A

inspiratory reserve volume

260
Q

which volume keeps alveoli open during exhalation

A

residual volume

261
Q

what is the maximum volume of additional air that can be expired from end of normal expiration

A

expiratory reserve volume

262
Q

what is the volume of air remaining in lung after a maximal expiration

A

residual volume

263
Q

what is fev1

A

forced expiratory volume in 1 sec

264
Q

t or f- you can breath all of the air out in your lungs

A

false
always a residual volume

265
Q

what is the only lung volume that cannot be measured with a spirometer

A

residual volume

266
Q

what is the volume of air contained in lungs at end of maximal inspiration

A

total lung capacity

267
Q

what is the term for the sum of the 4 basic lung volumes

A

total lung capacity

268
Q

what is the equation for tlc

A

residual volume + inspiratory reserve volume+ tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume

269
Q

what is vital capacity

A

max volume of air that can be forcefully expelled from lungs following a maximal inspiration

270
Q

what are the two formulas for vital capacity

A

tlc- residual volume
or
inspiratory reserve+tidal volume+ expiratory reserve

271
Q

what is functional residual capacity

A

amount of air left in lung at end of normal expiration

272
Q

residual volume + expiratory volume

A

functional residual capacity

273
Q

what is the reservoir that prevents hypoxemia during apnea

A

functional residual capacity

274
Q

what is approximate normal frc

A

35 ml/kg

275
Q

what are some factors that decrease functional residual capacity

A

general/inadequate anesthesia
obesity
pregnancy
neonates
certain positions
paralysis
excess iv lfuids
high fio2
reduce pulm compliance

276
Q

which positions decrease frc

A

supine
lithotomy
trendelenburg

277
Q

what are some factors that increase functional residual capacity

A

advanced age
certain positions
obstructive lung disease
peep
sigh breaths

278
Q

which positions increase frc

A

prone
sitting
lateral

279
Q

how does position increase or decrease frc

A

changes position of diaphragm
gravity alters distribution of pulmonary blood flow

280
Q

how does advanced age increase frc

A

decreased elastic lung tissue= air trapping= increased residual volume

281
Q

why do neonates have decreased frc

A

less alveoli= less lung compliance
ribcage is cartilaginous, prone to collapse

282
Q

why does pregnancy decrease frc

A

-diaphragm shifts cephalad as a result of uterus
-restrictive lung disease

283
Q

why does obesity decrease frc

A

decrease chest wall compliance
increased airway collapsibility

284
Q

how does general anesthesia cause decreased frc

A

diaphragm shifts 4cm cephalad as a result of decreased inspiratory muscle tone and increased expiratory muscle tone

285
Q

how does sigh breaths increase frc

A

recruits collapsed alveoli

286
Q

how does obstructive lung disease increase frc

A

air trapping= increased residual volume= increased frc

287
Q

how does high fio2 decrease frc

A

absorption atelectasis= conversion of low v/q unit= shunt unit

288
Q

how does peep increase frc

A

prevents alveoli from collapsing
partially overcomes general anesthesia effects
decreases venous blood admixture= increased pao2

289
Q

t or f- peep pops open alveoli aka alveolar recruitment

A

f- maintains open alveoli from collapsing

290
Q

how do you pop open more alveoli

A

alveolar recruitment mechanism
-forceful breath for long period=high peak

291
Q

how does excessive iv fluids decrease frc

A

fluid accumulation in dependent lung favors zone 3

292
Q

how does inadequate anesthesia decrease frc

A

straining= forceful expiration= decreased lung volumes

293
Q

how does paralysis decrease frc

A

diaphgram moves cephalad= decreased lung volumes

294
Q

what are some disease that decreases frc/pulmonary compliance

A

acute lung injury
pulmonary edema
pulmonary fibrosis
atelectasis
pleural effusion

295
Q

what conditions cause diaphragm to shift cephalad causing decreased frc

A

general anesthesia
pregnancy
paralysis

296
Q

what lung capacity is of less clinical significance

A

inspiratory capacity

297
Q

what is the max volume of air that can be inspired from normal-end expiratory position

A

inspiratory capacity

298
Q

what is the formula for inspiratory capacity

A

tidal volume + inspiratory reserve

299
Q

what are the names of the 4 lung zones

A
  1. collapse
  2. waterfall
  3. distention
  4. interstitial pressure
300
Q

which lung zone is only present with pathology

A

1 and 4

301
Q

which lung zone is pulmonary artery pressure negligible

A

zone 1

302
Q

after blood passes through alveoli of zone 2, where does it go

A

falls into pulmonary venous system

303
Q

what is blood flow proportional to in zone 2

A

Pa-PA

304
Q

what is blood flow proportional to in zone 3

A

Pa-pv

305
Q

pressure is reflected from ____________ ventricle back through zone ____ to site where swan is wedged

A

left, 3

306
Q

what is blood flow proportional to in zone 4

A

Pa-Pi

307
Q

which zone is present with pulmonary edema

A

zone 4

308
Q

what is normal alveolar ventilation (V)

A

4L/min

309
Q

what is normal capillary perfusion (q)

A

5L/min

310
Q

what is normal vq range

A

0.3-3.0

311
Q

what are the 4 components of a mapleson circuits

A

breathing tube
fresh gas inlet
apl valve
reservoir

312
Q

which mapleson is considered a bain circuit

A

mapleson d

313
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages to bain circuit

A

advantages: fgf flows through center, helps prevent heat loss
disadvantages: fgf may be kinked without you knowing it

314
Q

which mapleson is a jackson rees circuit

A

mapleson f

315
Q

which mapleson is used for peds laryngospasm

A

mapleson f- jackson rees

316
Q

what is decreased in circle system

A

dead space

317
Q

what breathing test is severe copd defined by

A

fev1 <30% predicted

318
Q

what is vq of an absolute intrapulmonary shunt

A

vq is 0

319
Q

what is vq of a relative intrapulmonary shunt

A

low v/q ratio

320
Q

what is a shunt

A

airway obstruction to area= low v/q
-low oxygenated blood leaving alveoli

321
Q

what is a shunt

A

airway obstruction to area= low v/q
-low oxygenated blood leaving alveoli

322
Q

what is deadspace

A

blood flow problem- high v/q ratio
high oxygen, but no blood flow

323
Q

what can be a cause of deadspace

A

PE

324
Q

what mismatch does dead space cause

A

high v/q

325
Q

what mismatch does shunt cause

A

low v/q

326
Q

what is predominant effect of low v/q

A

hypoxia (shunt)

327
Q

what is predominant effect of high v/q

A

hypercapnia (dead space)
-also hypoxia

328
Q

which v/q is perfusion to nearby segment of alveoli increase and ventilation to diseased segment is wasted

A

high v/q

329
Q

which v/q is ventilation increased to nearby segments–hypoxic vasoconstriction

A

low v/q (shunt)

330
Q

which v/q ratio will you have hypoxic vasoconstriction

A

low v/q ratio- shunt

331
Q

what is v/q defect when v/q values is 0.8

A

normal

332
Q

what is v/q defect when v/q value is 0

A

airway obstruction - shunt

333
Q

what is v/q defect when v/q value is infinity

A

pulmonary embolus- dead space

334
Q

what is v/q defect when pAo2 is 150 mmhg

A

pulmonary embolus-dead space

335
Q

what is v/q defect when pAco2 is 0

A

pulmonary embolus- dead space

336
Q

what is v/q defect when pao2 is 40

A

airway obstruction- shunt

337
Q

what is v/q defect when paco2 is 46 mmhg

A

airway obstruction- shunt

338
Q

what are normal values of pa/pA o2/co2

A

pAo2= 100
pAco2= 40mmhg
pa02- 100mmhg
paco2= 40 mmhg

339
Q

any process that decreases ______________ ______________ and ____________ ________________ will lead to a relative increase in dead space ventilation

A

cardiac output
lung perfusion

340
Q

what are some causes of decreased cardiac output and lung perfusion leading to increased dead space

A

hypovolemia
shock
pulmonary embolism
reverse trendelenburg
increased intraabdominal pressure

341
Q

where is dead space in circle system

A

distal to y piece

342
Q

what are causes of resistance in circle system

A

valves and absorbers

343
Q

when a patient is in lateral position, which side gets more air

A

independent

344
Q

what is the independent zone of lung in lateral position

A

zone1

345
Q

when a patient is in lateral position, which side gets more blood

A

dependent

346
Q

what provides heat/moisture in circle system

A

granules

347
Q

what decreases moisture in circle system

A

high flow

348
Q

how do you adjust i:e ratio for copd

A

lengthen e time so they have longer to get air out

349
Q

how long will each breath take if freq is set to 12

A

5 sec

350
Q

if I:E ratio is 1:1, how long will inspiration take if freq is set to 12

A

2.5 seconds

351
Q

what can high volumes cause in ards or acute copd exacerbation cause

A

barotrauma

352
Q

t or f- co2 absorber prevents rebreathing of co2 in closed system

A

true

353
Q

what does fgf need to be below to make it a closed system

A

<1 L/min

354
Q

at what fgf do you not need co2 absorber

A

> 5L/min

355
Q

during inspiration gas flow into alveoli until what?

A

until alveolar pressure reaches upper airway pressure

356
Q

t or f- during expiration, positive pressure is removed

A

t- it decreases

357
Q

what is the process of providing positive airway pressure at upper airway

A

mechanical ventilation

358
Q

why is the lung elastic

A

elastic and collagen fibers in parenchyma

359
Q

what is the formula for elastance

A

Change in pressure (cmH20) / change in volume (L).

360
Q

what is the opposite of elastance

A

compliance

361
Q

what do lungs with low compliance need to infalte

A

more pressure

362
Q

what is the equation for compliance

A

change in volume (L)/
change in pressure (cmH2O)

363
Q

what are the two types of lung resistance

A

tissue resistance
airway resistance

364
Q

tissue resistance accounts for ___ of total resistance

A

20%

365
Q

what kind of resistance is impedance to motion caused by moving organs and chest wall during resp cycle

A

tissue resistance

366
Q

what does resistance depend on

A

type of flow- turbulent/laminar
geometry of tube
viscosity of gas
flow rate of gas

367
Q

what is formula for resistance derived from by

A

poiseuilles law

368
Q

how is resistance calculated via poiseuilles law

A

r= 8NL/pi (r^4)

369
Q

what is amount of tidal volume that a patient receives

A

volume

370
Q

what is the term for measure of impedance to gas flow rate

A

impedence

371
Q

what is the measure of rate at which gas is delivered

A

flow

372
Q

what setting refers to number of breathers per minute that the ventilator delivers

A

frequency

373
Q

what is typical freq

A

8-12 bpm

374
Q

t or f- ventilator always provides all of patient’s ventilation

A

f- can also breath spontaneously between vent breaths

375
Q

how do you calculate tidal volume

A

6-8 ml/kg ideal body weight

376
Q

what disease may require lower tidal volume

A

ards
acute copd exacerbation
asthma

377
Q

what patient may benefit from higher tidal volumes that prevent atelectasis

A

neuromuscular disease

378
Q

what is highest level of pressure applied to lungs during inhalation

A

pip (cmh2o)

379
Q

what should pip never be higher than

A

40 cm h2o
unless patient has ards

380
Q

what should pip be limited to in masked/LMA patient

A

20 cm h2o

381
Q

what causes ventilator to cycle to inspiration

A

trigger
-time, pressure, volume, flow

382
Q

what kind of trigger does vent cycle at a frequency as determined by controlled rate

A

time trigger

383
Q

what kind of trigger does vent sense patient’s inspiratory effort by way of a decrease in baseline pressure

A

pressure trigger

384
Q

what is trigger in most modern vents

A

flow trigger

385
Q

how does flow trigger work

A

deliver constant flow around circuit through resp cycle, deflection in this flow by patient inspiration is monitored by vent and it delivers a breath

386
Q

which requires less work by patient, pressure or flow trigger

A

flow trigger

387
Q

what can be used to increase oxygenation by maintaining alveoli

A

peep

388
Q

what is peep most patients are started on

A

5 cm h2o

389
Q

who requires higher level of peep

A

stiff lungs- ards

390
Q

what does peep help prevent with ards

A

intrapulmonar shunting

391
Q

what should peep not exceed

A

20 cm h2o

392
Q

what does high peep settings increase risk of

A

subq emphysema
pneumothorax

393
Q

how is t slope measured

A

seconds

394
Q

what controls how long it takes to reach set pressure

A

t slope (sec)

395
Q

what is range of t slope

A

0-2 seconds

396
Q

what mode is t slope most important in

A

pressure support modes

397
Q

what t slope is set longer than inspiratory time, what can happen to tidal volume

A

shortened tidal volume

398
Q

what does a higher t slope mean for the slope

A

more gradual slope

399
Q

how do calculate delta p

A

PIP-PEEP

400
Q

during pressure limited ventilation the delivered tidal volume is determined by the pressure level above ____________

A

peep

401
Q

what type of ventilation is not optimal for poorly compliant lungs

A

volume control

402
Q

what does ventilator determine in volume control

A

pressure required

403
Q

what are advantages of volume control

A

guaranteed minute vent
more comfortable for patient-if-not-spontaneously-breathing

404
Q

what type of ventilation is more comfortable for patient if they are not spontaneously breathing

A

volume control

405
Q

is volume control a controlled mechanical ventilation mode or an assisted mechanical ventilation

A

controlled

406
Q

what is typical fio2 during a case

A

40-50%

407
Q

what typical fio2 during extubation

A

50-80%

408
Q

what type of ventilation has guaranteed minute ventilation

A

volume control

409
Q

what are presets on volume ventilation

A

volume
peep
rate
i time
fio2

410
Q

what type of ventilation does vent determine tidal volume

A

pressure control

411
Q

what type of ventilation is minute ventilation not guaranteed

A

pressure control

412
Q

what type of ventilation provides more support at lower pip for poorly compliant lungs

A

pressure ventilation

413
Q

what are presets of pressure ventilation

A

pip
peep
rate
i time
fio2

414
Q

in pressure control what changes according to lung compliance

A

tidal volume

415
Q

in volume control, what varies based on pulmonary compliance/airway resistance

A

delivered peak inspiratory pressure

416
Q

what happens when patient is spontaneously breathing during pressure control

A

pip is fixed, mode reduces discomfort

417
Q

which ventilation method is better for spontaneously breathing patient, volume or pressure

A

pressure
volume control will give asynchronous breaths

418
Q

what happens when patient is spontaneously breathing during volume control

A

pip is variable, delivers breath during asynchrony leading to increased work of breathing and discomfort

419
Q

what mode can cause asynchrony during spontaneous breathing

A

volume control

420
Q

how many breaths does pressure support give

A

none

421
Q

what parameters are set during pressure support

A

pressure support
fio2

422
Q

what is purpose of pressure support

A

final step prior to extubation
assist spontaneous breath

423
Q

what is final mode before extubation

A

pressure support

424
Q

what mode are patient’s spontaneous breaths supported by a set pressure

A

pressure support

425
Q

what does simv mode stand for

A

Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation

426
Q

what is simv mode

A

mandatory breaths-synchronized
pressure support for spontaneous breaths

427
Q

will inspiratory and expiratory flow on copd flow volume loop be low or high

A

low

428
Q

which flow volume loop has low residual volume

A

restrictive flow volume floop

429
Q

which flow volume loop is inspiratory volume diminished

A

restrictive flow volume

430
Q

what is your ventilator mode if you set your freq at 12 but the patient can still initiate spontaneous breaths where vent provides pressure supoort

A

simv

431
Q

what is psv-pro mode

A

pressure support with a backup rate

432
Q

what are differences between psv-pro-and simv

A

psv has: t slope, ps with backup rate

433
Q

what is diminished on copd flow volume loop

A

expiratory flow

434
Q

why is expiratory flow loop diminished in copd

A

resistance due to airway collapse

435
Q

which flow volume loop has normal amount of volume exhaled in three seconds, but forced exp volume in one second is low

A

copd

436
Q

t or f- residual volume is high in copd

A

true

437
Q

are inspiratory/expiratory flow low or high in copd

A

low

438
Q

residual volume is low in the ________________ flow volume loop

A

restrictive

439
Q

what happens to inspiratory volume in restrictive flow loop

A

diminished

440
Q

t or f- peak expiratory flow and one second expiratory flow is normal copd flow loop

A

f- restrictive flow volume loop

441
Q

what are examples of variable extrathoracic obstruction

A

paralysis of vocal cords
laryngospasm
thyromegaly
tracheomalacia

442
Q

which obstruction is indicative of upper airway obstruction- extrathoracic or intrathoracic

A

extrathoracic

443
Q

what does flow volume loop of extra-thoracic obstruction indicate

A

upper airway obstruction

444
Q

t or f- extrathoracic obstructions have normal inspiration but abnormal exhalation

A

f- abnormal inspiration, normal exhalation

445
Q

which obstruction does inspiratory plateau reach a low value-extrathoracic or intrathoracic

A

extrathoracic

446
Q

what kind-of-obstruction does inspiratory plateau reach a low value

A

variable extrathoracic obstruction

447
Q

what would cause a fixed intrathoracic obstruction flow volume loop

A

fixed large airway obstruction
tracheal stenosis
foreign body/neoplasm

448
Q

what obstruction effects both inspiration and expiration-extrathoracic or intrathoracic

A

fixed intrathoracic obstruction

449
Q

what’s the difference between variable extrathoracic vs variable intrathoracic obstruction

A

extra: inspiration obstruction
intra: expiration obstruction
fixed-intra: effects both

450
Q

what is A

A

liters

451
Q

what is B

A

L/sec

452
Q

what is C

A

expiration

453
Q

what is D

A

inspiration

454
Q

what is E

A

obstruction

455
Q

what is F

A

normal

456
Q

what is G

A

restrictive

457
Q

what is H

A

fixed

458
Q

what is A (x axis)

A

volume

459
Q

what is B

A

vital capacity

460
Q

what is C (y axis)

A

flow

461
Q

what is D

A

peak expiratory flow rate

462
Q

what is E

A

normal

463
Q

what is G

A

obstruction

464
Q

what is A

A

Vt

465
Q

what is B

A

expiration

466
Q

what is C

A

L/sec

467
Q

what is D

A

total lung capacity

468
Q

what is E

A

residual volume

469
Q

what is F

A

functional residual capacity

470
Q

what is G

A

vital capacity

471
Q

what circuit is this

A

mapleson A

472
Q

what circuit is this

A

mapleson D

473
Q

what circuit is this

A

mapleson B

474
Q

what circuit is this

A

mapleson E
ayres piece

475
Q

what circuit is this

A

mapleson C

476
Q

what circuit is this

A

mapleson F
jackson-Rees

477
Q

which is the only circuit where the fresh gas inlet is near the bag

A

mapleson A

478
Q

which is the only circuit with no corrugated tubing

A

Mapleson C

479
Q

which is the only circuit with the APL valve away from the patient

A

Mapleson D

480
Q

which is the only circuit without a reservoir bag

A

Mapleson E

481
Q

which circuit does not have an APL valve anywhere

A

Mapleson E

482
Q

which circuit can have either an APL valve or a small hole at the tail of the bag that is manipulated to control pressure like an APL valve

A

Mapleson F

483
Q

which circuit is best for a spontaneous ventilation patient

A

Mapleson A

A>DFE>CB

484
Q

which circuit is the worst for spontaneous ventilation patient

A

Mapleson B

485
Q

which circuit is best for the controlled ventilation patient

A

Mapleson D

DFE>BC>A

486
Q

which circuit is the worst for controlled ventilation patients

A

Mapleson A

487
Q

acronym for best circuits for spontaneous ventilation patients

A

All Dogs Bite

A>DEF>CB

488
Q

acronym for circuits for controlled ventilation patients

A

DFE>BC>A

Dont Be Arrogant

489
Q

which system is a modified Mapleson D design

A

Bain system

490
Q

what is the Pethick test

A

used to test circuit integrity during pre-anesthetic checkout procedure

491
Q

what does this show

A

esophageal intubation

492
Q

what does this show

A

incompetent expiratory valve
incompetent inspiratory valve
exhausted soda lime canister

493
Q

what does this show

A

prolonged upstroke and expiratory plateau

494
Q

what does this show

A

incompetent inspiratory valve
-not returning to zero axis
-inspiratory limb prolonged

495
Q

what is this

A

hyperventilation
-less amplitude
-ventilation is increased

496
Q

what does this show

A

hypoventilation: rate
-y axis scale large
-slow down in RR
-probably chronic condition

497
Q

what does this show

A

inspiratory effort
-lack of adequate paralysis
-alveolar plateau is key

498
Q

what does this show

A

cardiogenic oscillations

499
Q

what does this show

A

external chest compressions

500
Q

what does this show

A

incompetent inspiratory valve take off angle

501
Q

what is this

A

malignant hyperthermia
-very rapid increase in CO2

502
Q

what does this show

A

hypoventilation
-wave does not reflect hypercarbia
-acute hypoventilation

503
Q

what does this show

A

pulmonary embolus2 is down (low)
-alveolar plateau is angled
rate is increased