Choice of anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

what are the three main points of outpatient/out of OR anesthesia

A

patient selection
type of procedure
tailored anesthetic focused on quick discharge

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2
Q

what is the definition of outpatient/ambulatory surgery

A

a surgery not requiring an overnight stay

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3
Q

what makes outpatient surgery possible

A

improved anesthetics
minimally invasive procedures

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4
Q

what are benefits of outpatient surgery

A

*Reduced surgical tissue trauma through minimally invasive techniques

*Enhanced recovery

*Minimal adverse outcomes

*More effective postop analgesia (peripheral nerve blocks)

*More efficient scheduling

*Fiscally more resourceful through eliminating overnight recovery

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5
Q

what is the benefit of a hospital outpatient surgery

A

*More cost effective from sharing of resources such as: equipment, facilities, and staff

*Flexibility in revenue generation i.e. COVID elective case cancellations can still do emergent/urgent cases

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6
Q

what is the disadvantage of hospital outpatient surgery

A

Can be inefficient due to delays and cancellations in favor of emergent inpatient procedures

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7
Q

what is the difference between hospital integrated and hospital self contained outpatient surgery centers

A

hospital self contained centers dont share an OR

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8
Q

what is the benefit of a hospital self contained vs a hospital integrated outpatient surgery centers

A

-can still share resources with hospital

More efficient than integrated due to separation from urgent/emergent inpatient surgery

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9
Q

what is the benefit of a free standing ambulatory surgery center

A

*Very efficient
*Complete separation from hospital based, inpatient surgery
-some have accommodations for overnight

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10
Q

what is the disadvantage of a free standing ambulatory surgery center

A

*Must have plan for hospital admission for additional resources if necessary
*Limited patient population in relation to acuity
-shut down during pandemic

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11
Q

what is the advantage of an office based outpatient surgery facility

A

*Rapidly expanding model
*Increased convenience for surgeon and patient
*Lower cost (facility charges lower)

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12
Q

what is the disadvantage of an office based outpatient surgery facility

A

*More limitations to patient selection and procedures
*Likely to be the sole anesthesia provider in the facility- Sometimes we need help
-no ASA 3 or higher
*Usually less and more budget minded anesthesia equipment
-must have backup plan like admission to local hospital, during covid there was very limited room

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13
Q

what factors should be considered for outpatient surgery

A

*Limited surgical trauma
*No expectation of significant blood loss, large fluid shifts, complex post-op care, or unreasonable pain (nerve blocks for ortho)
*Patient acuity. Does the risk outweigh the benefit? Will this increase the likelihood for a hospital admission? Does the facility have the resources to care for this individual?
*Social factors: Patient living arrangements/care, travel distance, somebody to drive

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14
Q

what is the goal of an anesthetic

A

safe, effective, cheap, easy to administer, no side affects

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15
Q

what is the most common type of anesthesia

A

general

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16
Q

what are the benefits of general anesthesia

A

*Complete unawareness during procedure
*Provides secure airway
*Motionless surgical field-usually

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17
Q

what are the negatives of general anesthesia

A

*Can cause post op nausea- volatile agent(iso, civo, des), N2O, narcotics
*Emergence delirium
*Propofol and volatile agents can cause dose dependent BP depression (decreased SVR)

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18
Q

what are the benefits of MAC (monitored anesthesia care)

A

*Faster recovery-usually
*No airway manipulation-usually
*Ability to bypass recovery if alert when leaving OR
*Can be combined with regional/neuraxial anesthesia

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19
Q

what are the negatives of MAC

A

*Difficult in patients with severe obstructive sleep apnea
*Difficult in patients with severe anxiety
*Difficulty providing motionless surgical field
*Unsecured airway

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20
Q

what are the benefits of regional/neuraxial anesthesia

A

-Provides intraoperative and postoperative pain control. Sometimes for several days post-op (catheters with bulbsplaced, can last 5 days)
-Speeds recovery time. Patients can leave the OR fully alert and pain free
-Ability to provide a non-narcotic anesthetic
-Can be combined with general and MAC anesthetics

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21
Q

what are the negatives of regional/neuroaxial anesthesia

A

*Can require specialized equipment like ultrasound machines
*Requires proficient training
*Sometimes requires preoperative sedation and monitoring
*Can slow down the efficiency of the facility if understaffed/undertrained
*Duration of action may not be adequate for procedure time

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22
Q

what must be included in consideration of anesthetic technique

A

*Patients consent- do they agree with the choice you recommend
-if scared of needles no blocks
-if anxious may want general over mac
*Ability of provider to administer the anesthetic in a safe, timely manner
*Equipment availability at the facility (ultrasound, nerve stimulator)
*Properly trained staff to care for the patient when anesthetic is administered
*Will the anesthetic be adequate for the procedure
*Will it provide adequate pain control for the entire length of the procedure
*Back-up plan in case the anesthetic fails, able to convert to general

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23
Q

what percentage of anesthesia is performed out of OR

A

36%

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24
Q

what is the percentage of death claim of out or OR anesthesia vs in OR

A

54% vs 29%

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25
Q

why is out of OR anesthesia sucky

A

*Trending toward older, sicker patients not suitable for OR procedures
*Often performed in remote locations- have to call for help which can be delayed
*Anesthesia is usually an afterthought (lack of room, lack of supplies, lack of equipment)
-performed under MAC so no secured airway

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26
Q

what are common examples of out of OR anesthesia

A

-bronchs
-Cath lab
-GI lab
-MRI/CT
-IR
-TEE lab/ECho
-ER to set joint or fracture
-ICU

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27
Q

what are the criteria for outpatient discharge

A

*Be alert and oriented to time and place
*Have stable vital signs
*Have pain controlled by oral analgesics, liposomal bupivacaine, or peripheral nerve block
*Have nausea or emesis controlled
*Be able to walk without dizziness
*Have no unexpected bleeding from the operative site
*Be able to take oral fluids and void
*Have discharge instructions and prescriptions from the surgeon and anesthesia provider
*Accept readiness for discharge
*Have a responsible adult escort present

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28
Q

ASA 3 patients may still have ambulatory procedures given

A

their diseases are well controlled
benefits outway risks

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29
Q

what BMI is thought to be of great risk to ambulatory surgical centers

A

50 and up

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30
Q

what can be done preop to decrease cardiac complications in OSA patients

A

CPAP

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31
Q

what are the ASA guidlines for OSA patients in OR

A

-avoid resp depressants such as opiods
-regional anesthetic techniques when possible
-no discharge until no longer at risk for resp depression
-return to baseline spO2 prior to discharge
-observe resp while unstimulated
-consider CPAP use peri op
-prolonged post op observation

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32
Q

what should be considered when providing anesthesia to patients with stents

A

antiplatelet use
surgeon and cardiologist to discuess perioperative use

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33
Q

what is the risk of B blocker use during anethesia

A

transient hypotension with induction

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34
Q

what is the targeted intraoperative BG level

A

less than 180 mg/dl

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35
Q

what are the two most common causes of unplanned hospital admin from ASC

A

PONV
uncontrolled pain

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36
Q

should prophylactic dantrolene be administered for patients with history of malignant hypothermia

A

no

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37
Q

what are common airway complications associated with sedation and analgesia

A

airway obstruction
aspiration
regurgitation
dental/soft tissue injury

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38
Q

what are common respiratory complications associated with sedation and analgesia

A

resp depression
hypoxemia
hypercarbia
apnea

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39
Q

what are common cardiovascular complications associated with sedation and analgesia

A

hypotension
arrhythmias

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40
Q

what are common neurological complications associated with sedation and analgesia

A

deeper level of sedation
unresponsiveness

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41
Q

who does pre op eval

A

CRNA

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42
Q

who sees patient in PAT

A

seen by RN

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43
Q

what happens in PAT

A

med rec
HH
paperwork
labs
radiology
EKG
follow algorithm for HH

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44
Q

when would CRNA see patient in PAT clinic

A

-difficult airway
-fam hx trouble waking up
-abnormal EKG

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45
Q

when is preop eval

A

before surgery, at center or in room, seen by CRNA

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46
Q

if in medically directed state who does peop eval

A

Anesthesiologist and CRNA

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47
Q

what is Qk billing

A

medical direction

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48
Q

what does MD have to doto happen for TEFRA guidelines in Qk

A

preop eval
prescribe plan
induction
emergence
check-in during anesthesia

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49
Q

is TEFRA possible

A

no

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50
Q

what happens when TEFRA isnt met

A

medicare fraud

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51
Q

what do you do in preop eval

A

-review labs, cxr, HP
-fasting status
-develop anesthesia plan

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52
Q

who do you check anesthesia plan with

A

surgeon
patient

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53
Q

what must be obtained from patient for anesthesia plan

A

informed consent

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54
Q

what is an example of an anxiolytic for anesthesia?

A

versed, also causes antegrade amnesia

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55
Q

what is an example of an analgesic for anesthesia?

A

fentanyl

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56
Q

what is an example of gastric motility for anesthesia?

A

reglan

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57
Q

what is an example medications to prevent aspiration for anesthesia?

A

pepcid
reglan
bictra

58
Q

what is an example of a breathing treatment for anesthesia?

A

albuterol, zopinex

59
Q

when do you do a breathing treatment with anesthesia?

A

smokers
asthmatics

60
Q

what is an example of PONV medication for anesthesia?

A

emend
marinol
zofran
scopolamine patch

61
Q

what else can you order during preop eval

A

EKG, CXR, ABG, other labs

62
Q

who is responsible for preop eval

A

anesthesia, but work with surgeon for tests

63
Q

what is regional anesthesia

A

peripheral nerve block
neruaxial (spinal, epidural)

64
Q

what do you consider for anesthesia technique

A

-patient preference
-surgeon preference/skill
-CRNA preference/skill level
-coexisting diseases
-surgical site
-outpatient/inpatient
-body position
-elective vs emergent
-the gastric content amount
-difficult airway management
-duration of surgery
-patient age
-anticipated recovery time
-PACU discharge criteria

65
Q

can you do spinal anesthesia for patient with aortic stenosis?

A

no

66
Q

what do you consider with inpatient vs outpatient anesthesia

A

inpatient it is okay to give drugs that last longer, outpatient want them to go home faster

67
Q

how doe body position effect anesthesia

A

if prone must be intubated so general

68
Q

how does gastric content affect anesthesia

A

if full must intubate to prevent aspiration

69
Q

what is the perfect anesthetic

A

-patient safety
-void of side effects (PONV)
-low cost
-optimal operating conditions for surgery
-rapid recovery and short discharge
-pain free
-optimal operating room efficiency
-patient satisfaction (expectations)
-amnesia (MAC vs general)

70
Q

what is an informed patient

A

-understand procedure
-understands technique
-knows risks/benefits
-knows alternatives
-no coercion

71
Q

what must you document for informed consent

A

-discussed options and risks/benefits
-answered questions
-provided consent

72
Q

what do you discuss for anesthetic failure

A

-if spinal/MAC fails then might have to be switched to general

73
Q

if patient says no general anesthesia can you do surgery

A

no

74
Q

what is general anesthesia

A

loss of consciousness

75
Q

what are the two ways to induce and maintain general anesthesia

A

IV
inhaled

76
Q

what are the 4 main components of general anesthesia

A

anesthesia: loss of consciousness
amnesia: inability to recall events
analgesia: pain control
areflexia: motionless

77
Q

what is the most important component of a general anesthesia

A

amnesia

78
Q

when performing trauma anesthesia on a hemodynamically compromised patient what do you use

A

ketamine
versed

79
Q

what kind of amnesia does versed cause

A

antegrade (forward)

80
Q

what kind of anesthesia does scopalamine cause

A

antegrade and retrograde

81
Q

what is the first part of IV induction during general anesthesia

A

loss of consciousness

82
Q

what meds do we use to IV induce

A

prop
etomidate
ketamine

83
Q

how do we maintain control of airway during iv induction/loss of consciousness

A

Oral airway
nasal airway
mask
LMA
ETT after paralytic

84
Q

do you have to loose ability to breath during IV induction?

A

no, general is loss of consciousness

85
Q

how much O2 do we give before induction? for how long? what does this accomplish

A

100%
3 minutes normal breathing
8 deep breaths
denitrogenation/preoxygenation

86
Q

how long do people to take desat after only being on room air

A

20-30 sec

87
Q

how long do people take to desat after 100% O2

A

6-8 min

88
Q

how long does succs last

A

6-8 min

89
Q

how does being TFTB and COPD affect preoxygenation

A

will desat faster

90
Q

what is RSI

A

rapid sequence intubation

91
Q

what do you use during RSI

A

fast acting NMB (succs)
fast acting anesthetic (prop)

92
Q

what is a trick to help intubate

A

cricoid pressure,

93
Q

when do we do RSI

A

high chance of aspiration
high gastric content

94
Q

what position do we put patient in for intubation

A

sniffing position

95
Q

what are steps of intubation

A

1) head in sniffing position (line of sight to VC)
2) DL after muscle3 relaxation
3) ETT tube with cuff just passed cords
4) confirm placement

96
Q

how do we confirm proper ETT placement

A

ETCO2
bilat breathsounds
fog in ETT
Chest rise and fall

97
Q

when do we use inhalation induction

A

peds
elderly
(they fall asleep faster)

98
Q

adults fall asleep faster using __________ induction while peds and elderly fall asleep faster using __________ induction

A

IV
inhalation

99
Q

what are common inhalation induction

A

sevoflurane
NO2

100
Q

what are steps of inhalation induction

A

inhaled anesthetic
IV placement
IV medication
intubation

101
Q

what is stage one anesthesia

A

analgesia
-analgesia
-amnesia
-euphoria

102
Q

what is stage two anesthesia

A

excitement
-excitement
-Delerium
-combative
-nystagmus
-irregular breathing

103
Q

during what anesthesia stage do patients have laryngospasm

A

stage 2

104
Q

what is stage 3 anesthesia

A

surgical anesthesia
-unconscious
-regular respiration
-decreased eye movement

105
Q

what is stage 4 anesthesia

A

medullary depression
-respiratory arrest
-cardiac arrest
-no eye movement
-basically an overdose

106
Q

with IV induction you go from awake to stage________

A

3 surgical anesthesia, maybe some euphoria (stage 1)

107
Q

when do we see a patient go through all stages of anesthesia

A

inhaled anesthetics

108
Q

when do we extubate the patient?

A

stage 1 or stage 3

109
Q

when do we not extubate patient

A

stage 2

110
Q

how do we achieve anesthesia in maintanence

A

volatiles
TIVA

111
Q

how do we achieve amnesia in maintanence

A

volatiles
TIVA
versed

112
Q

how do we achieve areflexia in maintanence

A

NMBs
regional
volatiles

113
Q

how do we achieve analgesia in maintanence

A

opioids
OFA (opioid free)
PNB

114
Q

how do we achieve all 4 principles in anesthesia

A

Balance, use multiple agents

115
Q

what is danger of high doses of volatile anesthetics for areflexia

A

hypotension, cardiac depression

116
Q

what can we use in IV anesthetics

A

propofol, ketamine, precedex, lidocaine, mag

117
Q

what is TIVA

A

total intravenous anesthesia (no volatiles)

118
Q

what is benefit of volatile anesthesia

A

high potency
concentration easily controlled
titrated response
prompt awakening
attenuate sns response

119
Q

what is disadvantage of volatile anesthetics

A

cardiac depression

120
Q

what do NMBs provide

A

muscle relaxation

121
Q

What do NMBs NOT do?

A

amnesia
analgesia
anesthesia
smooth muscle relaxation

122
Q

what is risk of NMBs

A

awareness under anesthesia

123
Q

what are examples of NMBs

A

Roc
Vec
Succs

124
Q

what are examples of opioids

A

fent
sufent
remi fent

125
Q

what do opioids accomplish

A

analgesia
decreases sns
sedation

126
Q

what is opioid anesthesia very useful in

A

cardiac cases

127
Q

what is a spinal anesthetic (intrathecal, subarachnoid)

A

in subarachnoid space,
kind of regional anesthesia

128
Q

what is benefit of spinal anesthesia

A

fast onset
dense block (sensory and motor)
fast to perform (less than 1-2 min)

129
Q

what is problem of spinal anesthetic

A

spinal headache (CSF leak)
cause hypotension (pretreat)
all or nothing, titrate to affect
limited duration of action
no redose

130
Q

when do we use spinal

A

c sec
hip sx

131
Q

what can happen if Bier block procedure lasts less than 20 min and you release tourniquet

A

LAST

132
Q

when do you take tourniquet off in bier block

A

after you are sure there is no toxicity

133
Q

how do you deflate tourniquet

A

incrementally ( deflate and inflate cuff)

134
Q

what is important to do with regional anesthesia

A

-education patients
-set expectations

135
Q

what is MAC anesthesia

A

-CRNA monitoring patient (spectrum)
-can be no meds
-can be meds
-can be watching patient after peripheral nerve block
-not a TIVA

136
Q

what are MAC criteria

A

1) diagnosis and treatment of clinical problems during the procedure*
2) support of vital functions*
3) administration of sedatives, analgesics, hypnotics, anesthetic drugs, or other medications as necessary for patient safety;*
(4) psychological support and physical comfort*
(5) provision of other services as needed to complete the procedure safely.

137
Q

which is harder MAC or general

A

MAC

138
Q

what is synergism

A

two meds combine to be stronger than drugs individual action

139
Q

what are some additional considerations for anesthesia

A

nausea
pain control
infection mitigation

140
Q

what do we do in PACU

A

emergence from anesthesia
pain control
airway maintenance
spontaneous breath
treat side effects
rapid emergence
treat complications