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Vascular > Vascular Q&A > Flashcards

Vascular Q&A Flashcards

1
Q

The first major branch of the aorta is:

A

The innominate a

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2
Q

T/F the superior thyroid arises from the subcllavian a

A

False

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3
Q

the angular a is the terminal part of the :

A

Facial a

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4
Q

The arterial pulsations felt in front of the ear and just above the zygomatic arch are from what artery.

A

Superficial temporal

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5
Q

the common carotid a divides into its external and internal branches usally at the level of the upper border of the :

A

Thyroid cartilage

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6
Q

What artery is usually the first branch of the ECA

A

Superior thyroid a

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7
Q

T/F the middle communicating artery is in the circle of willis

A

false

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8
Q 
Of the following artereis arise from the ECA
A) sperior thyroid
B) Lingual a
C) Facial a 
D) Ascending pharyngeal a
E) all of the above
A

E

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9
Q

the prominence of the larynx is formed by what

A

thyroid cartilage

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10
Q

The vert a ususally arises from the:

A

subclavian

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11
Q

the infraorbital a is the terminal branch of the :

A

Maxillary a

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12
Q

the vertebrals branch from the subclavian a to unite to form the:

A

basilar

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13
Q

the first intracranial branch of the ICA is the

A

ophthalmic a

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14
Q 
the circle of willis receives its blood supply from which combination of arteries
A) internal and external carotid a
B) subclavian and vertebral
C) Posterior cerebral a and basilar
D) carotid and vertebrals
E) right and left vertebral a
A

D

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15
Q

The three terminal branches of the ophthalmic a are the

A

nasal, frontal, and supraorbital

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16
Q

two major branches of the ECA include the

A

superfical temporal and facial

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17
Q

T/F the superfical temporal arteries are intracranial collateral pathways of cliinical significance

A

false

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18
Q

Is the ICA low or high resistive

A

low

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19
Q

two arteries creating the bidirectional signal obsereved 60 to 65 mm deep during transcranial insonation of the temporal window are the:

A

middle cerebral and anterior cerebral a

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20
Q

what is the most common anomaly of the circle of willis

A

absence or hypoplasia of one or both of the communicating a

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21
Q

the continuation of the innominate is the

A

subclavian

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22
Q

the continuation of the subvlavian is the

A

vertebral

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23
Q

the continuation of the common carotid is the

A

ICA

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24
Q

the continuation of the vertebral is the

A

basilar

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25
Q

the continuation of the external carotid is the

A

superficial temporal

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26
Q

helical flow with flow separation in the posterolateral aspect f the carotid bulb is a sign of

A

normal flow dynamics

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27
Q

most common anatomic variant of the aortic arch is

A

a common orgin of teh innominate and L common carotid a

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28
Q

Which is NOT true of the GSV
A) originates along the medial dorsum of the foot
B) passes superiorlu anterior to the medial malleolus
C) it enters the femoral vein
D) it extends distally to the dorsum of the foot
E) it has more valves in the calf than in the thigh.

A

A

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29
Q

superficial vbein that recieves flow from the three main perforating veins of the distal calf

A

posterior arch vein

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30
Q

boyds perforating vein is located

A

near the knee

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31
Q

the left common iliac vein crosses _______ to the right common iliac artery just _______ to the aortic bifurcation

A

posterior , distal

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32
Q

the brachial vein connect the

A

ulnar and radial veins to the axillary vein

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33
Q

what vessel in the leg is the most difficult to image

A

Distal deep femoral vein

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34
Q

the term muscle pump refers to

A

the calf muscles

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35
Q

which vein in the antecubital fossa conects the cephalic and basilic veins?

A

median cubital v

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36
Q

T/F the cephalic is a superfical vein

A

true

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37
Q

T/F the brachiocephalic v is found on the right and left side of the neck

A

true

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38
Q

which of the following vessels join the brachial veins to form the axillary vein

A

basilic v

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39
Q

muscular veins of teh calf that empty into the popliteal vein behind the knee are _______ veins

A

gastrocnemius

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40
Q

compared to the arteries , veins have

A

thinner adventitia and media

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41
Q

T/F venous valves only allow blood away from the heart

A

FALSE

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42
Q

peripheral resistance increases with

A

greter length, smaller diameter, and higher blood viscosity.

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43
Q

what 3 arteries have low resistance

A

internal carotid, postprandial superior mesenteric, and renal a

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44
Q

T/F the dorsalis pedis is a branch of teh peroneal a

A

false

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45
Q 
vessels and structures of the penis include all except
A) deep artery of the penis
B) doral a of the penis
C) corpus spongiosum
D) inferior vesicle a 
E) dorsal v
A

D

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46
Q 
which of the following vessels in NOT found on or near teh foot
A) the dorsalis pedis
B) the posterior tibia
C)peroneal
D) circumflex
E) all of the above
A

circumflex

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47
Q

usually the profunda femoris travels in relation to the superficial femora arteries

A

posteriolateral to teh superficial femoral a

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48
Q

the popliteal trifurcation is actually a double bifurcation; what are the branches

A

anterior tibial and tibioperoneal trunk; then posterior tibial and peroneal

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49
Q

the axillary artery conects the

A

brachial a to the subclavian

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50
Q

T/F the right subclavian a arises from the aortic arch

A

false

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51
Q

at the inguinal ilgament the external iliac a becomes the

A

common femoral a

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52
Q

this vessel courses along the medial aspect of the psoas muscle

A

external iliac a

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53
Q

the renal a aris from the _______ aorta

A

lateral

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54
Q

because of the location of the IVC the left renal vein crosses _______ to the aorta and _________ to the left renal a.

A

anterior and inferior

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55
Q

in a cross section of the aorta surrounding regions, the vein that is visualized superfical to the aorta and the origins of the right and left renal a and deep to the superfical mesenteric a is the :

A

L renal vein

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56
Q

the superior mesenteric artery typically originates from the

A

aorta between the celiac trunk and the renal a

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57
Q

the superior vena cave is formed by the junction of the

A

right and left brachiocephalic

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58
Q

the poral vein is formed by the

A

superior mesenteric and splenic

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59
Q

a useful landmark for locating the renal arteries is the

A

superior mesenteric a

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60
Q

the splenic, common hepatic and left gastric artereis arise from this abdominal artery

A

celiac

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61
Q

the most common anatomic variation of the renal a is

A

multiple renal a

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62
Q

which artery supplies the small intestin, right colon, and transverse colon

A

superior mesenteric

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63
Q

antother name for the hypogastric

A

internal iliac a

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64
Q

which artery is teh lefto branch of the celiac trunk

A

splenic

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65
Q

what is the name of the tiny intrarenal branches that arise fromt the interlobar arteries at right angles and course above the renal pyramids

A

arcuate a

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66
Q

the smallest vessels in the body are

A

capillaries

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67
Q

the term tunica adventitia refers to the

A

outer lininog of the arterial wall

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68
Q

the term tunica intima denotes

A

the inner lining of teh arterial wall

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69
Q

the blood supply to vascular tissue is provided by

A

vasa vasorum

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70
Q

the layer of arterial or venous wall composed entirely of endotheilal cells is teh

A

tunica intima

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71
Q

T/F capillaries only have intima and adventitia layers

A

false

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72
Q

a venule contains which vessel layers

A

tunica media and tunica intima

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73
Q

artherosclerosis is a disease that begins in the

A

intima

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74
Q

femal gender is a risk factor in artherosclersos T/F

A

false

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75
Q

what are the complications of plaque ulcerations

A

thrombosis, intraplaque hemorrhage, and emobilization

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76
Q

cerebrovascular fibromuscular dysplasia occurs in males or females

A

females

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77
Q

T/F artherosclerosisi is a red blood cell disease

A

false

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78
Q

a left arm blood pressure that is 40mmHg lower than the right can be the result of a what

A

thoracic outlet entrapment, sublcavian steal, coarctation of the aortic arch, and axillary artery embolus.

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79
Q

with a subvlacian artery stenosis on teh right side the flow in the right vertebral a will be _________

A

reversed

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80
Q

with a subclavian stenosis on the righ tthe right axillary artery signial will be _______

A

monophasic

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81
Q

what can produce a vertebral steal

A

an innominate artery occlusion, and left subclavian artery orgin stenosis

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82
Q 
hypertensive diabetic 65yo male presents for cerebrovascular testing because of an asymptomatic bruit on the right side. You are considering all fo the following to be potential sources of the bruit EXCEPT 
A) stenosis of the ECA
B) stenosis of teh subclavian a
C) occlusion of the CCA
D) dissection of the CCA
A

C

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83
Q

a disease that affects primarily the intima and may extend into the media is

A

artherosclerosis

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84
Q

after carotid bifurcation disease the next most common soruse of stroke symptoms is

A

cardiac source embolization

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85
Q

the strongest risk factor for stroke is

A

hypertension

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86
Q

in the cerebrovascular system artherosclerosis occurs most commonly in the

A

orgin of ICA

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87
Q

the most prevalnt type of strokek is

A

ischemic

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88
Q

where are carotid body tumors located?

A

between the internal and external carotid arteries

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89
Q

T/F subclavian steals are because of a severe stenosis in the proximal vertebral a

A

false

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90
Q

a 24 year old pt with a HX of recent automobile accident arrieves in the ICU with symtoms of acute right side weakness and aphasia. The most likely etiology of these symptomes is:

A

carotid dissection

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91
Q

a pt undergoes carotid endartectomy. 6 mo later angiography is performed because of symptoms referable to the other side. Angio gram reveals that the operated carotid is significantly narrowed. Most likely cause is

A

neointimal hyperplasia

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92
Q

the term hemiparesis means

A

weakness on one side

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93
Q

the NASET trial used the follwing arteriographic criterion to classify ICA diesase

A

diameter percentage stenosis calculated by dividing the minimal diameter by the diameter of the unstenosed distal ICA

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94
Q

what are symptoms of the brain stem or posterior circulation

A

dizziness, vertigo, ectasia, syncope

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95
Q

T/Famaurosis fugax is a posterior circulation symptom

A

false

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96
Q

symptom of vertebrobasilar insufficiency is

A

diplopia

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97
Q

T/F a bright yellow spot is noted within a branch artery on a ophthalmologic exam. This is known as a hollenhors plaque

A

true

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98
Q

pt complains of a temporary shading of the vision in one eye this symptom is called

A

amaurosis fugax

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99
Q

the incidenc of new stroke a year

A

500,000

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100
Q

TIA is

A

transient ischemic attack

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101
Q

the TIA of a right anterior hemisphere of the brain will likely affect

A

the left side of the body

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102
Q

amaurosis fugax related to an internal carotid lesion will cause

A

temporarly blindness or shading of the ipsilateral eye

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103
Q

TIA resolve in _____ hours

A

24

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104
Q

simultaneous bilateral ocular symptoms in the pt with suspected cerebrovascual disease generally originates from

A

vertebrobasilar a

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105
Q

T/F vertigo is a vertebrobasial symptom

A

true

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106
Q

T/F facial asymmetry is an anterior circulation symptom

A

true

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107
Q

a neurologic ischemic deficit that resolves completely after 24 hours describes a

A

RIND

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108
Q

amaurosis fugax can be interpreted as a

A

TIA

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109
Q

dysphagia is a symptom associated with ____________ insufficiency

A

vertebrobasilar

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110
Q

a binocular disturbance that disrupts vision in half the visual field of both eyes is called

A

homonymous hemianopia

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111
Q

parestehsia refers to

A

tingling sensation

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112
Q

a pt describes a 30 min episode of garbled speech this is called

A

dysphasia

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113
Q

a pt with dysphasia is right handed what area of circulation is sucpected

A

left hemisphere

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114
Q

T/F a subclavian steal is usually a harmeless hemodynamic phenomenon

A

true

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115
Q

T/F a subclavian steal is caused by arterial obstriction proximal to the orgin of the vertebral a

A

true

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116
Q

subclavian steal occurs more often on the right or left side

A

left

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117
Q

hemispheric stroke usually affects the middle_______ artery

A

cerebral

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118
Q

hemispheric stroke ususally affects the ________ side of the body

A

contralateral

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119
Q

stenosis of what vessel presents the highest risk of TIA

A

ICA

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120
Q

a decrease pulse at mid neack is suggestive of

A

common carotid stenosis if the contralateral pulse is normal

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121
Q

T/F severe stenosis may cause a bruit

A

true

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122
Q

bruits heard bilaterally, loudest low in the neck are most likely caused by

A

aortic valve stenosis

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123
Q 
a stronger pulse is palpated in the right neck than on the left. This could result from all of the following EXCEPT
A) tortuous CCA
B) carotid aneurysm on the right
C) tech error
D) lefto carotid obstrucion
E) innominate occlusion
A

E

124
Q

T/F a bruit is always an indication of disease

A

false

125
Q

a bruit means what kind of flow exists

A

turbulent

126
Q

a what may be indicative of a valvular dysfuncion in the heart

A

a bruit

127
Q

during ordinary ausculation of a carotid bifurcation, the detection of a bruit that extends into diastole is

A

highly significant

128
Q

which is least likely to cause a bruit in the neck

A

critical preocclusive stenosis of the ICA

129
Q

why are brachial blood pressures obtained bilaterally when evaluating a pt for Cerebrovascular disease

A

the brachial blood pressures are compared to see if they are equal

130
Q

T/F in pulse wave doppler the beam is continuously transmitted with intermittent reception accordint to vessel depth

A

false

131
Q

in flow _______ loss of the spectreal window of pulsed dopple occurs

A

turbulence

132
Q

a duplex image of the carotid bifurcation that demonstrates a goblet like configuration of the internal and external branches curving around a highly vascularized mass suggests

A

carotid body tumor

133
Q

the best arterial wall image quality is obtained when teh angle is what degree

A

90

134
Q

greatly increased mean velocities in the middle cerebral artery would be consistent of TCD following a subarachnoid__________

A

hemorrhage

135
Q

in TCD normal direction of flow in the vertebral a is

A

away fromt the beam

136
Q

T/F TCD is useful in evaluating temporal arteritis

A

false

137
Q

best angel for doppler beam

A

60

138
Q

TCD frequency often used

A

2MHz

139
Q

normal direction of flow in TCD of the anterior cerebral a

A

away from beam

140
Q

increase in mean velocity from 50 to 150cm/sec at depth of 50mm with TCD would indicate a significant stenosis in teh

A

middle cerebral a

141
Q

you perform TCD the left anterior cerebral a. flow is to the beam this suggests

A

ipsilateral carotid obstruction, with right to left collateralization

142
Q

the best way to prepare a transducer for intrapoerative use is:

A

place transducer and acoustic gel within a sterile sleeve or bag.

143
Q

increasing the beam filter will either lower or raise the frequency shift.

A

lower the frequency shift.

144
Q

among the chief limitations of continuous wave doppler is :

A

depth information is not possible; precise location of flow pattern cannot be determined.

145
Q

in TCD the normal direction of flow is in the middle cerebral artery is

A

toward the beam

146
Q

what dictates transducer frequency for b mode imaging

A

desired beam width, depths, and axial resolution

147
Q

using TCD you find a strong signal with considerable diastolic flow at a depth of 50mm this is most likely

A

Middle cerebral a

148
Q

TCD window for middle cerebral artery is

A

temporal

149
Q

a mosaic of low red and blue frequencies in color flow in tissue lying outside of the lumen and oscillatory wave forms above and below baseline in the spectral waveform describes a

A

bruit

150
Q

the TCD window used for assessing the ophthalmic artery and carotid siphon is

A

orbital

151
Q

the doppler diagnostic criterion that is most important for calling greater than 80%

A

end diastolic velocity

152
Q

an arterial stenosis that is 75% by cross sectional area reduction corresponds to a diameter reduction of

A

50%

153
Q

an arterial stenosis that is 80% by diameter reduction corresponds to a cross section area reducion of

A

96%

154
Q

you are examining hard copy of a TCD under the window suboccipital window the depth is 90mm this is likely

A

basilar a

155
Q

the angle correct cursor for velocity estimates is best

A

adjusted parallel with arterial walls

156
Q

on spectral doppler display the x axis shows what

A

time

157
Q

on spectral doppler display the y axis is what

A

depth

158
Q

you perform percussion maneuvers on the superficial temporary artery and see oscillations on the spectral display. The artery being insonated is most likely the

A

ECA

159
Q

decreasing the PRF and wall filter will increase or decrease the color flow adjustment

A

increase

160
Q

absence of diastolic flow in CCA spectral display will be seen in

A

a totally occluded internal carotid artery

161
Q

vertebral waveform below the baseline shows

A

was a subclavian steal

162
Q

name all of the acoustic windows in TCD temporal bone, orbit of the eye, subocciptal window, and the submandibular area

A

medial part of the frontal bone

163
Q

collateral pathways in the event of ICA obstruction

A

Posterior and anterior, collateral hemisphere, ECA branches to ophthalamic branches.

164
Q

one way to tell whether you are looking at the ECA and ICA

A

The eca has branches near the bifurcation and the ICA does not

165
Q

major complications of cerebrovascular angiography occur in approximately

A

1% of the population

166
Q

complications of cerebrovascular angiography include all of the following

A

death, stroke, arterial occlusion at the access site, renal failure.

167
Q

T/F inadvertent venous pressure is a complication of cerebrovascular angiography

A

false

168
Q

most common arterial puncture site for all forms of angiography is

A

CFA

169
Q

advantages of angiography over duplex carotid studies include:

A

visualization of intracranial collateral’s, superiority at calling ulceration’s, entire cerebral vasculature is visible, ability to determine siphon stenosis

170
Q

initial diagonsitc exam of a stroke pt is

A

CT

171
Q

MRI process the radiofrequency pulces created by _____ and _______

A

tissue, and blood flow

172
Q

pitfall of MRI is

A

no pacemakers, tends to overestimate stenosis, relies on pt cooperation.

173
Q

endartectomy procedure is used for lower or upper exrtremities

A

lower

174
Q

stenting procedures of the ica areless demanding than stening where

A

than the coronary arteries

175
Q

hypertensive pt has experienced multiple TIA and has an 80% diameter stenosis of the ICA on teh side referable to symptoms what procedure is recomended

A

carotid endartectomy

176
Q

NASCET trial indicated that the best treatment of a carotid stenosis is

A

endartectomy for stenosis greater than 70%

177
Q

most common medical treatment for acute ischemic stroke consists of

A

rtPA

178
Q

hypertension is associated with hyperperfusion syndrome after what

A

carotid endartectomy

179
Q

primary concern in a pt with DVT is

A

PE

180
Q

some causes of DVT are

A

trauma, hypercoagulability, extrinsic compression upon deep veins

181
Q

greatest pressure of venous hypertension in secondary varicose vein occurs

A

during muscle contraction

182
Q

T/F diabetes causes DVT

A

False

183
Q

virchows triad includes

A

stasis hypercoagulability, and intimal injury

184
Q

T/F smoking is a risk factor of DVT

A

false

185
Q

what % of PE result from the lower legs

A

> 90%

186
Q

symptoms of chronic venous insufficiency might result from

A

calf vein thrombosis, pop vein thrombosis, superficial insufficiency, iliac vein thrombosis

187
Q

pts suspected of having venous disease may complain of pain that is

A

relieved by elevation

188
Q

edema caused by dvt is characterized by

A

swelling in the ankles and legs but not the foot

189
Q

risk factors for dvt

A

trauma, extrinsic compression upon deep veins, cancer

190
Q

complaints of chronic swelling and erythemia of the lower extremity only what percent have dvt

A

46-62%

191
Q

edema caused by dvt is characterized by

A

swelling in ankles but not feet

192
Q

T/F cancer is a risk factor of DVT

A

true

193
Q

T./F arthritis is a risk factor of dvt

A

false

194
Q

complaints of chronic unilateral extremity swelling aching and a sense of heaviness most likely sugessts

A

post phlebitic syndrome

195
Q

pt with chronic venous insufficiency complains of sudden onset of edema and pain in affected leg this may be related to what

A

recurrence of acute dvt

196
Q

pitting edema of both lower extremities is likely related to what system

A

cardiac or systemic

197
Q

pts with a swollen limb who have just returned from a country where filariasis is endemic may be suspected of having

A

lymphedema

198
Q

pt presents with bilateral lower extremitiy edema and nephrotic syndrome thrombus is suspected at which level

A

IVC

199
Q

lower extremity ulcers are overwhelmingly the result of

A

venous disease

200
Q

normally venous flow is from superficial to teh deep veins through perforating veins however this flow might be reversed when

A

DVT is present

201
Q

________ is acute pronounced red discoloration and edema of the skin along the anterior calf is

A

cellulitis

202
Q

pt with PE might have what symptoms

A

chest pain, reduced arterial blood gasses, diaphoresis, SOB.

203
Q

typical findings of skin discoloration in a pt with chronic venous insufficiencies have what color ankles or calves

A

rusty brown

204
Q

a condition that presents as a severely swollen blue cool lower extremity is called

A

phlegmasia cerulea dolens

205
Q

clinical examination for DVT is

A

not specific or sensitive

206
Q

T/F thickening of the toenails is associated with venous disease

A

false

207
Q

lesions are usually found on the lower third of the leg around the medial aspect of the ankle in what type of ulceration

A

venous

208
Q

sometime after being hit by a car a pt has severe pain in teh anterior aspect of the right knee and massive left lower extremity edema pt most likely has

A

extensive femoropopliteal dvt

209
Q

pt presents with unilateral chronic swollen leg and a previous dvt 3 years prior most likely finding would be

A

pop vein is patent and valves are incompetent

210
Q

chronic DVT will increase ambulatory ________- pressure

A

venous

211
Q

brawny color is arterial or venous

A

venous

212
Q

venous ulcers are usually not ___________ and arterual ulcers are located ___________ to the foot.

A

painfull, cehphalad

213
Q

Homans sign, Bancroft sign , and lowenbergs sign are all clinical tests to attempt to diagnose

A

DVt

214
Q

common physical finding in PE is

A

Tachypena

215
Q

clinical presentation of PE includes

A

chest pain, dyspnea, pleural effusion, and tachypnea

216
Q

T/F superficial thrombophlebitis is usually attributed to the

A

GSV

217
Q

T/F superficial thrombophlebitis is usually recurrent

A

true

218
Q

doppler examination alone without B mode is unlikely to detect the presence of thrombus in the _________- veins

A

peroneal

219
Q

in continuous doppler reflux testing a normal result is : _________ of flow with proximal comression resuming on release

A

cessation

220
Q

test for venous incompetence that uses tourniquets and alterations of pt position is

A

trendelenburg test

221
Q

CW doppler performed for DVT reveals augmentation upon compression above the prove this proves the pt has

A

femoropoplietal and posterior tibial valvular insufficiency

222
Q

T/F photoplethysmogrpahy is effective in detecting DVT

A

false

223
Q

when performing lower extremity venous doppler assessmnet in normal pts cephalad flow diminishes during_________-

A

inspiration

224
Q

the valsalva slows down venous flow ________ in the body

A

everywhere

225
Q

commonly assessed characteristics of CW doppler

A

spontaneity, augmentation, competence, and phasicity

226
Q

demonstration of vein wall coaptation in the extremities is best performed in

A

transverse with no color

227
Q

with a valsalva the red flow lasts approximately half a second then blue flow returns upon release this is

A

valvular incompetence

228
Q

limitations of CW doppler include

A

may be a bifid system, non occlusive thrombus, collateral vein may be mistaken,

229
Q

in the femoral vein the sonographer notes thickened venous walls with bright echoes in it this is consistent with

A

chronic DVT

230
Q

a dark thrombus poorly attached to the wall suggests

A

acute thrombus

231
Q

large dark area in pop space no vascular connection likely a

A

bakers cyst

232
Q

most difficult area to do vein wall coaptation

A

distal thigh

233
Q

long bright echogenic streak is noted in the CFV, and appears to move with venous flow this is likely

A

a remnant of recanalized old dvt

234
Q

pulsitile lower extremity venous doppler signal is associated with

A

CHF

235
Q

CW doppler assessment of the PT reveals nonspontanious flow that augments with foot compression this is normal in a _______ pt.

A

cold

236
Q

descending venography is performed to diagnose

A

valvular insuffieicncy

237
Q

contrast venography

A

invasive

238
Q

the venous puctrue for introducing contrast in venography is done where

A

dorsal vein on the foot

239
Q

the venous puncture for valvular insufficiency in venography is done where

A

CFV

240
Q

T/F coplications of venography includes

A

toxicity of the kidneys

241
Q

acute DVT is commonly indicated in venoraphy as

A

areas of no contrast

242
Q

gold standard for PE

A

pulmonary angiography

243
Q

what can heparin cause

A

thrombocytopenia

244
Q

complications of heparin

A

thrombocytopenia, formation of antiplatelet antibody, intrabdominal bleeding, platelet agregaton

245
Q

types of IVC filters

A

birds nest, greenfield, nitinol filter, vena tech filter

246
Q

agent of choice for PE

A

heparin

247
Q

more than 90% of infrarenal aneurysms are of

A

degenerative orgin

248
Q

takayasus arteries is a condition that causes nonartheroscleroic narroiwng of the brachiocephalic arteries in _________

A

females

249
Q

most common source of lower or upper extremity peripheral arrterial embolus is

A

the heart

250
Q

damage to venous valves are a complication of deep venous ___________.

A

recanalization

251
Q

aneurysms are most often cased by

A

congenital arterial wall weakness

252
Q

an occlusive disease of medium and small arteries in the distal upper and lower limbs of primarily young male heavy smokers is

A

thromboangitis oblierans

253
Q

a condition which may result from reperfusion edema following bypass surgery causing ischemia due to compression and might call for treatment by fasciotomy is called

A

compartment syndrome

254
Q

combination of neruopathy and peripherally distributed artherosclerosis makes the diabetic patient especially vulnerable to

A

foot lesions

255
Q

the chances of a pt dying from a rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm averages

A

80%

256
Q

what causes swelling of endothelial cells

A

smoking

257
Q

in the lower extremity circulation the most common site of arterosclerosis is

A

the arterial segment beginning in hunters canal

258
Q

popliteal aneurysms can cause symptoms by ___________ contiguous structures

A

compressing

259
Q

T/F popliteal aneurysms are found bilaterally in > 10% of cases where they exist

A

true

260
Q

T/F abdominal aneurysms pose a significant risk of rupture if > 6cm in diameter

A

True

261
Q

risk of claudication in diabetic patients is greater than _____ times the risk in the general population

A

4

262
Q

select the entity that is not a risk factor in periperal arteral occlusive disease

A

hypolipidema

263
Q

the vascular disease that presents as back abdominal or flank pain is

A

abdominal aortic aneurysm

264
Q

takayasus arteritis is most often found in

A

young women

265
Q

common signs of advanced arterial insufficiency of the lower extremity include

A

loss of hair growth over the dorsum of the toes and feet, Thickening of the toenails, dependent rubor

266
Q

the term cyanosis describes

A

blue color of the tissue due to ischemia

267
Q

a bruit can be a sign of

A

iliac artery stenosis

268
Q

right sided weakenss could be a sign of

A

left carotid artery occlusion

269
Q

edema is a sign of

A

DVT

270
Q

common evaluation for advanced lower extremity ischemia involves raising the supine patients leg and then having the patient sit and dangle the leg a postitive result is described as

A

elevation pallor, dependent rubor

271
Q

pt representing with symptoms of clauication complain of

A

cramping pain in the calf thigh or buttocks with exercise and relieved by rest

272
Q

pts presenting with a diagnosis of ischeimc rest pain may complain of

A

foot pain while in horizontal position, relieved by standing or dangling the foot in a dependent postition

273
Q

patients found to have ulcerative or gangrene may have what diseases

A

arterial insufficiency, neuropathy, vasospasum, and venous disease

274
Q

most common presenting symptoms in acute arterial occlusion incude

A

paralysis, pulselessness, pallor, and parestesisas

275
Q

pts with advanced periperal arterial vascular occlusive disease exhibit what type of color

A

shiny, scaly skin, dependent rubor, pallor on elevation

276
Q

a diabetic pt with redness of the skin in the foot and toe probably has

A

an infecton

277
Q

a pulsitile mass in the groin after a catherization of a cardiac pt is most likely a

A

pseudoaneurysm of the femoral a

278
Q

early arterlsclerosis of the lower extremity will be associated with

A

claudication

279
Q

which sign or symptom is least likely to be associated with arterial embolization

A

progressive claudicaiton

280
Q

rest pain is characterized by

A

pain at night in the forefoot or foot that may go away with leg dependency

281
Q

the symptom or sigh most likely not associated with acute arterial occlusion is

A

claudication

282
Q

ischemic ulcers are typically located

A

over the dorsum of the foot

283
Q

common sites for ausulation of bruits in the lower extremity circulation include

A

abdomen, groin, popliteal space,

284
Q

vibration noted while palpating pulses is called

A

a thirll

285
Q

rubor is defined as

A

red skin color

286
Q

ulcers due to arterial insufficiency are found in the

A

toes and distal foot

287
Q

delayed return of the capillary blush after pressure on the pulp of the digit is a sign of

A

advanced ischemia

288
Q

T/F sign of advanced ischemia in the lower extremity includes pitting edema

A

false

289
Q

pulses sites commonly palpated in the lower extremity includes

A

common femoral, popliteal, PT, and AT

290
Q

the absence of a bruit at the common femoral level can or cannot rule out a significant stenosis

A

cannot

291
Q

the presence of a _______ may be the first indication of arterial disease

A

bruit

292
Q

the symptoms of anterior tibial compartment syndrome are

A

swelling tenderness, sensory deficit or paresthesis, pain on passive stretch of the muscles in the compartment, weakness of the muscles in the compartment

293
Q

unilateral claudiction in the calf and foot of a young individual suggests

A

popliteal artery entrapment

294
Q

a pt complains of digital pallor or cyanosis induced by cold exposure or emotion stimuli these symptoms are characteristic of

A

raynaud’s phenomenon

295
Q

the pulsatility index is defined as

A

peak systolic to peak end diastolic velocity divided mean velocity

296
Q

there is a pressure drop distal to the obstructed segment after exercise in pt with

A

intermittent claudication

297
Q

an increase in peripheral resistance will cause an increase in the

A

pulse amplitude

298
Q

________ is prolonged in obstructed limbs in comparison to limbs with no obstruction

A

hyperemia

299
Q

ankle arm indices in claudicating pts are usually in the range of

A

0.5-0.9

300
Q

ankle arm index is obtained by dividing the

A

ankle pressure by the higher brachial pressure

301
Q

a velocity in the superficial femoral artery is 225cm/s and just proximal is 90cm/s this suggests a

A

50% stenosis

302
Q

the right high thigh pressure is 108 the left high thigh is 142. The brachial is 122 what does this suggest

A

right femoral artery obstruction.

303
Q

when assessing the digital artery with doppler patency of the palmar arch can be determined by

A

alternately compressing the radial and ulnar arteries while listening for changes in the digital artery signal

304
Q

assesment of the palmar arch is useful

A

before placement of an arteriovenous shunt, and to evaluate blood flow to the digital arteries.

305
Q

a popliteal to dorsal pedal lesser saphenous reverse bypass graft has a peak systolic velocity of 28cm/s at the distal anastomosis what is true of this velocity

A

it is normal for this graft

306
Q

the two flow characteristics that define arterial stenosis anywhere in the body include focal acceleration of velocities and

A

distal turbulence.

Vascular (7 decks)

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