Vaccine-Table 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is immunity?

A

the ability of the human body to tolerate self and to eliminate foreign (“nonself”) material

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2
Q

What is the immune response?

A

a defense against the antigen

usually involves the production of protein molecules by B lymphocytes

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3
Q

What is active immunity?

A

Protection that is produced by the person’s own immune system. This type of immunity is usually permanent.

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4
Q

What is passive immunity?

A

Protection by products produced by an animal or human and transferred to another human, usually by injection.

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5
Q

When are antibodies transported across the placenta?

A

last 1-2 months of pregnancy

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6
Q

What can be given for post-exposure prophylaxis for Hep A and measles?

A

Homologous pooled human antibody (immune globulin)

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7
Q

What can be given for post-exposure prophylaxis for Hep B, rabies, tetanus, and varicella?

A

Homologous human hyperimmune globin

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8
Q

What can be used to tx botulism and diptheria?

A

Heterologous hyperimmune serum (antitoxin)

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9
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies produced from?

A

Single clone of B cells

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10
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies used for?

A

Diagnosing certain types of CA, tx of CA, prevention of transplant rejection, and tx of autoimmune dz

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11
Q

What monoclonal antibody is used for prevention of RSV?

A

Palivizumab

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12
Q

What are ways you can obtain active immunity?

A

Surviving infection and vaccination

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13
Q

What factors influence immune response to vaccination?

A
Presence of maternal antibody
Nature and dose of antigen
Route of administration
Presence of adjuvant (aluminum-containing material)
Host factors
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14
Q

What are live attenuated vaccines produced from?

A

Produced by modifying a disease-producing (wild type) virus or bacterium
Resulting organism retains ability to grow and produce immunity but usually does not cause illness

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15
Q

What are inactivated vaccines composed of?

A

whole viruses or bacteria or fractions of either (protein based or polysaccharide based)

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16
Q

What are the protein based inactivated viruses?

A

Toxoids (inactivated bacterial toxin)

Subunit or subviron products

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17
Q

What are the polysaccharide based inactivated viruses composed of?

A

pure cell wall polysaccharide from bacteria

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18
Q

Why are severe rxns possible in live attenuated viruses?

A

uncontrolled replication in pts with immunodef

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19
Q

How are live attenuated viruses destroyed?

A

By heat and light

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20
Q

What are the viral live attenuated vaccines?

A

Measles, mumps, rubella, vaccinia (small pox), varicella zoster, yellow fever, rotavirus, intranasal influenza, oral polio

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21
Q

What are the bacterial live attenuated vaccines?

A

Oral typhoid vaccine

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22
Q

How many doses does an inactivated vaccine typically require?

A

3-5 doses

First dose primes immune system, immune response develops after 2nd or 3rd dose

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23
Q

The immune response to inactivated vaccines is what?

A

Usually humoral

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24
Q

What are the viral whole cell vaccines?

A

Polio, hepatitis A, rabies

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25
Q

What are the bacterial whole cell vaccines?

A

Typhoid, cholera, plague – Not available in US

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26
Q

Wbat are the fractional subunit inactivated vaccines?

A

Hepatitis B, influenza, acellular pertussis, human papillomavirus, anthrax

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27
Q

What are the fractional toxoid vaccines?

A

Diptheria, tetanus

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28
Q

What are the types of pure polysaccharide vaccines?

A

Pneumococcal
Meningococcal
Salmonella Typhi (Vi)

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29
Q

What are the types of conjugate polysaccharide ( Tcell dependent) vaccines?

A

×Haemophilis influenzae type B (Hib)
×Pneumococcal
×Meningococcal

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30
Q

When should vaccines not be administered?

A

Do not administer before the minimum age
Do not administer before the minimum interval between doses
Do not restart series

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31
Q

Does coadmin of vaccines overload the immune system?

A

no

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32
Q

If live vaccines are administered together, should they be separated?

A

Yes, by 4 weeks

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33
Q

what is the timing for administering inactivated vaccines and antibodies?

A

before, after, or at the same time as each other

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34
Q

Can oral vaccines be affected by circulating antibodies?

A

No, live influenza and rotavirus are not believed to be affected by antibodies

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35
Q

How long should you wait after a live vaccine before giving antibodies?

A

2 weeks- this is the incubation period

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36
Q

How long should you wait to give a live vaccine after distributing antibodies?

A

3 mo

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37
Q

Does increasing the interval btwn dosing of multi dose vaccines diminish the effectiveness?

A

Nope, but DECREASING may interfere with antibody response and protection

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38
Q

What are the local ADRs of vaccines?

A

Pain, swelling, redness at site of injection
Common with inactivated vaccines
Usually mild and self limiting

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39
Q

What are the systemic ADRs of vaccines?

A

Fever, malaise, headache- nonspecific

These s/s May be unrelated to vaccine

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40
Q

How long after live vaccines do systemic ADRs tend to occur?

A

7-21 days after vaccine

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41
Q

What are CI to receiving live vaccines?

A
Malignancy, radiation, chemotherapy
Immunosuppressive therapy
>20mg/d of prednisone
TNF and non-TNF biologics (e.g. infliximab, rituximab)1
HIV adult patients with CD4
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42
Q

What are not actual CI to live vaccines?

A

Mild disease –low-grade fever, URI, otitis media, mild diarrhea
Antibiotic therapy
Breastfeeding
Premature birth
Pregnancy or immunosuppression in household
Warfarin

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43
Q

What are permanent CI to live vaccines- by permanent, they will never receive the vaccine for the rest of their life?

A

Severe allergic reaction to a vaccine component or following a prior dose (all vaccines)
Allergic reaction to eggs no influenza vaccine
Encephalopathy not due to another identifiable cause occurring within 7 days of pertussis vaccine
Severe combined immunodeficiency (rotavirus)

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44
Q

When should you take precaution when administering vaccines?

A
  • mod to severe acute illness- delay all vaccine until illness has improved
  • if pt recently received antibody containing blood products, hold odd on MMR and varicella
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45
Q

What are the guidelines for pregnancy and vaccinations?

A

1) live vaccines are a no
2) inactivated are ok when indicated
3) household contacts should be vaccinated

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46
Q

Does breastfedding extend or improve passive immunity to vaccine preventable dzs?

A

NO

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47
Q

All preterm infants born to hepatitis B surface antigen positive mothers and mothers with unknown HBsAg status must receive what within 12 hours after birth?

A

immunoprophylaxis with hepatitis B vaccine and Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG)

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48
Q

What causes the toxin-mediated dz diptheria?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Aerobic gram positive bacillus

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49
Q

What is the medical management for diptheria?

A

Diphtheria antitoxin neutralizes circulating (unbound toxin) –available from CDC
Antibiotics- ERY or procaine PEN G

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50
Q

How can diptheria be prevented?

A

Close contacts of ill: diphtheria booster and antibiotics

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51
Q

How is the diptheria toxoid available?

A

Combo with tetanus- different adult and peds

Or combined with tetanus and pertussis

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52
Q

What is the difference btwn DT and Td?

A

DT contains 3-4 times as much diphtheria toxoid, but same amounts of tetanus toxoid

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53
Q

At what age should pts receive DT vs Td?

A

7 years should receive adult Td

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54
Q

Do DTaP and Tdap contain thimerosal as a preservative?

A

NOPE

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55
Q

What produces toxins in tetanus?

A

Clostridium tetani

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56
Q

How should you manage wounds with concern of tetanus?

A

Uncertain history or 0-2 prior doses of tetanus toxoid should receive TIG as well as Td or Tdap
TIG provides temporary immunity

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57
Q

How is the tetanus vaccine given?

A

DT pediatric

Td for children 7 years and up

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58
Q

How is pertussis tx?

A

Management- Primarily supportive

Erythromycin drug of choice

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59
Q

What are the 2 adult acellular pertussis vaccines?

A

Boostrix and Adacel – these have reduced diptheria toxoid

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60
Q

What should Tdap be administered?

A

1) Single dose of Tdap vaccine for previously unvaccinated individuals ≥ 11years of age
2) Td booster q 10 yrs
3) Preggos need Tdap at 27-36 weeks in each preggo

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61
Q

What was the leading cause of bacterial meningitis before the vaccine was introduced?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

Gram negative coccobacillus, generally aerobic but can grow as a facilitative anaerobe

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62
Q

How is bacterial meningitis managed?

A

Third generation cephalosporin X 10 days

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63
Q

What are the H B vaccines?

A

1) Two conjugate Hib vaccines are licensed for use in infants as young as 6 weeks (ActHIB-3 dose series and PedvaxHIB- 2 dose series)
2) One (Hiberix) approved only for the last dose of the schedule among children 12 months and older (booster regardless of which primary vaccine)

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64
Q

What type of vaccine is Hep A?

A

Inactivated whole virus vaccines (HAVRIX and VAQTA)

both available in pediatric(up to 18)and adult formulations

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65
Q

Who should be vaccinated for Hep A?

A

International travelers, men who have sex with men, illegal drug users, clotting factor disorders, occupational risk (those who work with hep A infected primates or with Hep A virus in a lab setting), chronic liver disease

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66
Q

What are the Hep B vaccine options?

A

Recombivax HB and Engerix-B – adult and peds
Comvax (combination Hib and Hep B)-not used under 6weeks or for the first schedule either at birth or 1 mo
Pediarix- DTaP, Engerix-B, and inactivated polio, cant be used for birth dose of hepB

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67
Q

When can an infant born to a HBsAg-positive women be considered protected?

A

if HBsAg not present and anti-HBs antibody is present following at least 3 doses of a Hep B series

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68
Q

What does the polio vaccine contain?

A

Inactivated Polio vaccine 1 vaccine IPOL contains trace amounts of neomycin, streptomycin, and polymixin B

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69
Q

What is the issue with the oral poliovirus vaccine?

A

shed in stool for up to 6 weeks (transmission possible)

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70
Q

What live attenuated viruses are conservative free and contain a small amount of albumin, neomycin, sorbitol, and gelatin

A

Measles/mumps/rubella

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71
Q

What are the types of rotavirus?

A

1) RotaTeq a live oral vaccine (RV5) contains rotaviruses from human and bovine parent strains
2) Rotarix (RV1) one strain of live attenuated human rotavirus

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72
Q

What are the 2 types of HPV vaccines?

A

Gardasil- Quadrivalent HPV (HPV4)

Cervarix- Bivalent HPV (HPV2) Contains type 16 and 18

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73
Q

What does gardisil protect against?

A

types 16 and 18 (high risk-cervical cancer) and types 6 and 11 (low risk-genital warts)

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74
Q

What is gardisil approved for use for?

A

Approved for use in females and males age 9-26 years

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75
Q

What does cervarix protect against?

A

Types 16/18

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76
Q

What is cervarix approved for?

A

use in females age 10-25

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77
Q

What is the leading cause of bacterial meningitis and sepsis in the US?

A

Neisseria meningitidis -Aerobic gram negative bacteria

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78
Q

How is Neisseria meningitidis managed?

A

Empiric broad spec abx after cultures obtained, then more narrow PCN

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79
Q

What are the 2 vaccines for Neisseria meningitidis ?

A

Menactra and Menveo for persons 2 through 55 years of age

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80
Q

What are the types of egg based influenza?

A
Live attenuated (LAIV)- pts 2-49
Inactivated (IIV)- standard dose IM>6mo
                              High dose IM >/=65
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81
Q

What are the non egg-based influenza vaccines?

A
Cell culture (ccIIV), some egg protein and for pts >/= 18 
Recombinant (RIV), >/=18
82
Q

What is in the trivalent activated influenza vaccine?

A

three inactivated viruses: type A (H1N1, type A (H3N2) and type B

83
Q

What are options for admin of live attenuated influenza?

A

Nasal spray or IM

84
Q

What is the only issue with nasal spray flu?

A

Vaccinated children can shed vaccine viruses in nasopharyngeal secretions for up to 3 weeks

85
Q

Pts ages 2-8 should receive what types of influenza vaccine?

A

LAIV

86
Q

Pts >6 mo should receive the flu vaccines how often?

A

Seasonally

87
Q

Pts >/= 65 should receive what influenza vaccine?

A

high dose IIV

88
Q

What organism causes pneumococcal?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae: Gram positive bacteria

89
Q

What are the pneumococcal vaccine options?

A

Pneumovax 23- polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23)

PCV13- pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

90
Q

What is the PCV 13?

A

Conjugated to nontoxic diptheria toxin to improve immunologic response in children

91
Q

Does PPSV23 have good response in children?

A

No, poor immune response

92
Q

When are PCV13 and PPSV23 recommended?

A

In pts with meningitis risk- cochlear implants and CSF leaks

Adults >/= 65 who have not received PCV13

93
Q

What pts are recommended to get PCV13 and 2 doses of PPSV23?

A

Immunocompromised- CRF

94
Q

When is the PPSV23 recommended?

A

Adults >/= 65 who already had the PCV13

Adults with chronic conditions like DM, asthma, CVD, nursing home resident, liver dz, smoker

95
Q

What causes varicella caused by?

A

varicella zoster virus
primary infection= chickenpox
recurrent infection= zoster

96
Q

What type of vaccine is varicella?

A

Live attenuated vaccine

97
Q

Who is eligible for the herpes zoster vaccine?

A

Pts >60

98
Q

Who should receive varicella vaccine?

A

Pts without documented immunity

99
Q

When is it not recommended to receive varicella vaccine?

A

Documentation of two doses of varicella vaccine at least 4 weeks apart
US-born before 1980 (except healthcare personnel and pregnant women)
History of chickenpox or shingles based on diagnosis or verification by a healthcare provider
Laboratory evidence of immunity or confirmation of disease

100
Q

Does concurrent admin of zoster and PPSV23 effect vaccine efficacy?

A

nope

101
Q

What is immunity?

A

the ability of the human body to tolerate self and to eliminate foreign (“nonself”) material

102
Q

What is the immune response?

A

a defense against the antigen

usually involves the production of protein molecules by B lymphocytes

103
Q

What is active immunity?

A

Protection that is produced by the person’s own immune system. This type of immunity is usually permanent.

104
Q

What is passive immunity?

A

Protection by products produced by an animal or human and transferred to another human, usually by injection.

105
Q

When are antibodies transported across the placenta?

A

last 1-2 months of pregnancy

106
Q

What can be given for post-exposure prophylaxis for Hep A and measles?

A

Homologous pooled human antibody (immune globulin)

107
Q

What can be given for post-exposure prophylaxis for Hep B, rabies, tetanus, and varicella?

A

Homologous human hyperimmune globin

108
Q

What can be used to tx botulism and diptheria?

A

Heterologous hyperimmune serum (antitoxin)

109
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies produced from?

A

Single clone of B cells

110
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies used for?

A

Diagnosing certain types of CA, tx of CA, prevention of transplant rejection, and tx of autoimmune dz

111
Q

What monoclonal antibody is used for prevention of RSV?

A

Palivizumab

112
Q

What are ways you can obtain active immunity?

A

Surviving infection and vaccination

113
Q

What factors influence immune response to vaccination?

A
Presence of maternal antibody
Nature and dose of antigen
Route of administration
Presence of adjuvant (aluminum-containing material)
Host factors
114
Q

What are live attenuated vaccines produced from?

A

Produced by modifying a disease-producing (wild type) virus or bacterium
Resulting organism retains ability to grow and produce immunity but usually does not cause illness

115
Q

What are inactivated vaccines composed of?

A

whole viruses or bacteria or fractions of either (protein based or polysaccharide based)

116
Q

What are the protein based inactivated viruses?

A

Toxoids (inactivated bacterial toxin)

Subunit or subviron products

117
Q

What are the polysaccharide based inactivated viruses composed of?

A

pure cell wall polysaccharide from bacteria

118
Q

Why are severe rxns possible in live attenuated viruses?

A

uncontrolled replication in pts with immunodef

119
Q

How are live attenuated viruses destroyed?

A

By heat and light

120
Q

What are the viral live attenuated vaccines?

A

Measles, mumps, rubella, vaccinia (small pox), varicella zoster, yellow fever, rotavirus, intranasal influenza, oral polio

121
Q

What are the bacterial live attenuated vaccines?

A

Oral typhoid vaccine

122
Q

How many doses does an inactivated vaccine typically require?

A

3-5 doses

First dose primes immune system, immune response develops after 2nd or 3rd dose

123
Q

The immune response to inactivated vaccines is what?

A

Usually humoral

124
Q

What are the viral whole cell vaccines?

A

Polio, hepatitis A, rabies

125
Q

What are the bacterial whole cell vaccines?

A

Typhoid, cholera, plague – Not available in US

126
Q

Wbat are the fractional subunit inactivated vaccines?

A

Hepatitis B, influenza, acellular pertussis, human papillomavirus, anthrax

127
Q

What are the fractional toxoid vaccines?

A

Diptheria, tetanus

128
Q

What are the types of pure polysaccharide vaccines?

A

Pneumococcal
Meningococcal
Salmonella Typhi (Vi)

129
Q

What are the types of conjugate polysaccharide ( Tcell dependent) vaccines?

A

×Haemophilis influenzae type B (Hib)
×Pneumococcal
×Meningococcal

130
Q

When should vaccines not be administered?

A

Do not administer before the minimum age
Do not administer before the minimum interval between doses
Do not restart series

131
Q

Does coadmin of vaccines overload the immune system?

A

no

132
Q

If live vaccines are administered together, should they be separated?

A

Yes, by 4 weeks

133
Q

what is the timing for administering inactivated vaccines and antibodies?

A

before, after, or at the same time as each other

134
Q

Can oral vaccines be affected by circulating antibodies?

A

No, live influenza and rotavirus are not believed to be affected by antibodies

135
Q

How long should you wait after a live vaccine before giving antibodies?

A

2 weeks- this is the incubation period

136
Q

How long should you wait to give a live vaccine after distributing antibodies?

A

3 mo

137
Q

Does increasing the interval btwn dosing of multi dose vaccines diminish the effectiveness?

A

Nope, but DECREASING may interfere with antibody response and protection

138
Q

What are the local ADRs of vaccines?

A

Pain, swelling, redness at site of injection
Common with inactivated vaccines
Usually mild and self limiting

139
Q

What are the systemic ADRs of vaccines?

A

Fever, malaise, headache- nonspecific

These s/s May be unrelated to vaccine

140
Q

How long after live vaccines do systemic ADRs tend to occur?

A

7-21 days after vaccine

141
Q

What are CI to receiving live vaccines?

A
Malignancy, radiation, chemotherapy
Immunosuppressive therapy
>20mg/d of prednisone
TNF and non-TNF biologics (e.g. infliximab, rituximab)1
HIV adult patients with CD4
142
Q

What are not actual CI to live vaccines?

A

Mild disease –low-grade fever, URI, otitis media, mild diarrhea
Antibiotic therapy
Breastfeeding
Premature birth
Pregnancy or immunosuppression in household
Warfarin

143
Q

What are permanent CI to live vaccines- by permanent, they will never receive the vaccine for the rest of their life?

A

Severe allergic reaction to a vaccine component or following a prior dose (all vaccines)
Allergic reaction to eggs no influenza vaccine
Encephalopathy not due to another identifiable cause occurring within 7 days of pertussis vaccine
Severe combined immunodeficiency (rotavirus)

144
Q

When should you take precaution when administering vaccines?

A
  • mod to severe acute illness- delay all vaccine until illness has improved
  • if pt recently received antibody containing blood products, hold odd on MMR and varicella
145
Q

What are the guidelines for pregnancy and vaccinations?

A

1) live vaccines are a no
2) inactivated are ok when indicated
3) household contacts should be vaccinated

146
Q

Does breastfedding extend or improve passive immunity to vaccine preventable dzs?

A

NO

147
Q

All preterm infants born to hepatitis B surface antigen positive mothers and mothers with unknown HBsAg status must receive what within 12 hours after birth?

A

immunoprophylaxis with hepatitis B vaccine and Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG)

148
Q

What causes the toxin-mediated dz diptheria?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Aerobic gram positive bacillus

149
Q

What is the medical management for diptheria?

A

Diphtheria antitoxin neutralizes circulating (unbound toxin) –available from CDC
Antibiotics- ERY or procaine PEN G

150
Q

How can diptheria be prevented?

A

Close contacts of ill: diphtheria booster and antibiotics

151
Q

How is the diptheria toxoid available?

A

Combo with tetanus- different adult and peds

Or combined with tetanus and pertussis

152
Q

What is the difference btwn DT and Td?

A

DT contains 3-4 times as much diphtheria toxoid, but same amounts of tetanus toxoid

153
Q

At what age should pts receive DT vs Td?

A

7 years should receive adult Td

154
Q

Do DTaP and Tdap contain thimerosal as a preservative?

A

NOPE

155
Q

What produces toxins in tetanus?

A

Clostridium tetani

156
Q

How should you manage wounds with concern of tetanus?

A

Uncertain history or 0-2 prior doses of tetanus toxoid should receive TIG as well as Td or Tdap
TIG provides temporary immunity

157
Q

How is the tetanus vaccine given?

A

DT pediatric

Td for children 7 years and up

158
Q

How is pertussis tx?

A

Management- Primarily supportive

Erythromycin drug of choice

159
Q

What are the 2 adult acellular pertussis vaccines?

A

Boostrix and Adacel – these have reduced diptheria toxoid

160
Q

What should Tdap be administered?

A

1) Single dose of Tdap vaccine for previously unvaccinated individuals ≥ 11years of age
2) Td booster q 10 yrs
3) Preggos need Tdap at 27-36 weeks in each preggo

161
Q

What was the leading cause of bacterial meningitis before the vaccine was introduced?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

Gram negative coccobacillus, generally aerobic but can grow as a facilitative anaerobe

162
Q

How is bacterial meningitis managed?

A

Third generation cephalosporin X 10 days

163
Q

What are the H B vaccines?

A

1) Two conjugate Hib vaccines are licensed for use in infants as young as 6 weeks (ActHIB-3 dose series and PedvaxHIB- 2 dose series)
2) One (Hiberix) approved only for the last dose of the schedule among children 12 months and older (booster regardless of which primary vaccine)

164
Q

What type of vaccine is Hep A?

A

Inactivated whole virus vaccines (HAVRIX and VAQTA)

both available in pediatric(up to 18)and adult formulations

165
Q

Who should be vaccinated for Hep A?

A

International travelers, men who have sex with men, illegal drug users, clotting factor disorders, occupational risk (those who work with hep A infected primates or with Hep A virus in a lab setting), chronic liver disease

166
Q

What are the Hep B vaccine options?

A

Recombivax HB and Engerix-B – adult and peds
Comvax (combination Hib and Hep B)-not used under 6weeks or for the first schedule either at birth or 1 mo
Pediarix- DTaP, Engerix-B, and inactivated polio, cant be used for birth dose of hepB

167
Q

When can an infant born to a HBsAg-positive women be considered protected?

A

if HBsAg not present and anti-HBs antibody is present following at least 3 doses of a Hep B series

168
Q

What does the polio vaccine contain?

A

Inactivated Polio vaccine 1 vaccine IPOL contains trace amounts of neomycin, streptomycin, and polymixin B

169
Q

What is the issue with the oral poliovirus vaccine?

A

shed in stool for up to 6 weeks (transmission possible)

170
Q

What live attenuated viruses are conservative free and contain a small amount of albumin, neomycin, sorbitol, and gelatin

A

Measles/mumps/rubella

171
Q

What are the types of rotavirus?

A

1) RotaTeq a live oral vaccine (RV5) contains rotaviruses from human and bovine parent strains
2) Rotarix (RV1) one strain of live attenuated human rotavirus

172
Q

What are the 2 types of HPV vaccines?

A

Gardasil- Quadrivalent HPV (HPV4)

Cervarix- Bivalent HPV (HPV2) Contains type 16 and 18

173
Q

What does gardisil protect against?

A

types 16 and 18 (high risk-cervical cancer) and types 6 and 11 (low risk-genital warts)

174
Q

What is gardisil approved for use for?

A

Approved for use in females and males age 9-26 years

175
Q

What does cervarix protect against?

A

Types 16/18

176
Q

What is cervarix approved for?

A

use in females age 10-25

177
Q

What is the leading cause of bacterial meningitis and sepsis in the US?

A

Neisseria meningitidis -Aerobic gram negative bacteria

178
Q

How is Neisseria meningitidis managed?

A

Empiric broad spec abx after cultures obtained, then more narrow PCN

179
Q

What are the 2 vaccines for Neisseria meningitidis ?

A

Menactra and Menveo for persons 2 through 55 years of age

180
Q

What are the types of egg based influenza?

A
Live attenuated (LAIV)- pts 2-49
Inactivated (IIV)- standard dose IM>6mo
                              High dose IM >/=65
181
Q

What are the non egg-based influenza vaccines?

A
Cell culture (ccIIV), some egg protein and for pts >/= 18 
Recombinant (RIV), >/=18
182
Q

What is in the trivalent activated influenza vaccine?

A

three inactivated viruses: type A (H1N1, type A (H3N2) and type B

183
Q

What are options for admin of live attenuated influenza?

A

Nasal spray or IM

184
Q

What is the only issue with nasal spray flu?

A

Vaccinated children can shed vaccine viruses in nasopharyngeal secretions for up to 3 weeks

185
Q

Pts ages 2-8 should receive what types of influenza vaccine?

A

LAIV

186
Q

Pts >6 mo should receive the flu vaccines how often?

A

Seasonally

187
Q

Pts >/= 65 should receive what influenza vaccine?

A

high dose IIV

188
Q

What organism causes pneumococcal?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae: Gram positive bacteria

189
Q

What are the pneumococcal vaccine options?

A

Pneumovax 23- polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23)

PCV13- pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

190
Q

What is the PCV 13?

A

Conjugated to nontoxic diptheria toxin to improve immunologic response in children

191
Q

Does PPSV23 have good response in children?

A

No, poor immune response

192
Q

When are PCV13 and PPSV23 recommended?

A

In pts with meningitis risk- cochlear implants and CSF leaks

Adults >/= 65 who have not received PCV13

193
Q

What pts are recommended to get PCV13 and 2 doses of PPSV23?

A

Immunocompromised- CRF

194
Q

When is the PPSV23 recommended?

A

Adults >/= 65 who already had the PCV13

Adults with chronic conditions like DM, asthma, CVD, nursing home resident, liver dz, smoker

195
Q

What causes varicella caused by?

A

varicella zoster virus
primary infection= chickenpox
recurrent infection= zoster

196
Q

What type of vaccine is varicella?

A

Live attenuated vaccine

197
Q

Who is eligible for the herpes zoster vaccine?

A

Pts >60

198
Q

Who should receive varicella vaccine?

A

Pts without documented immunity

199
Q

When is it not recommended to receive varicella vaccine?

A

Documentation of two doses of varicella vaccine at least 4 weeks apart
US-born before 1980 (except healthcare personnel and pregnant women)
History of chickenpox or shingles based on diagnosis or verification by a healthcare provider
Laboratory evidence of immunity or confirmation of disease

200
Q

Does concurrent admin of zoster and PPSV23 effect vaccine efficacy?

A

nope