Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

12 Infectious Disease > Vaccine Preventable Diseases > Flashcards

Vaccine Preventable Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

risk factors for hepb

A 
iv drugs
blood products
tattoos or acupuncture
sex
institutional care
intimate contact w carriers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

clinical manifestations of hepb

A
  • asymptomatic
  • fever, anorexia, malaise 6-7 weeks after exposure
  • jaundice 8 weeks and lasts 4 weeks
  • chronic: hepatitis, cirrhosis, hcc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

diagnosis of hepb

A

acute: hbsag, anti-hbc igm, anti-hbs (recovery)
vaccinated: anti hbsag only
resolved infaction: antihbsag + antihbc
infectivity: hbeag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment for hepb

A

supportive and monitoring
interferon a2b
lamivudine, adefovir, pedinterferon a2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

prevention of hepb

A

vaccine: seropositivity >95% after second dose

birth, 1-2 mos, 6 mos
if >2000g and HBsAg (-) birth, 1-4 mos, 6-18 mos
preterm, <2000g, HBsAg(-) mother: first dose 1 mo age
if hbsag (+) mother: hbig within 12 h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

etiology of diptheria

A

corynebacterium diptheriae and diptheritic toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

risk factors for diptheria

A
  • large population of underimmunized adults
  • decreased childhood immunization
  • population migration
  • crowding
  • failure to respond to epidemic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pathogenesis of diptheria

A

transmission: airborne respiratory droplets, direct contact with secretions

toxin causes kidney necrosis, thrombocytopenia, cardiomyopathy, demyelination of nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

clinical manifestations of diptheria

A

incubation: 2-4 d
most common sites of infection: tonsils or pharynx
key words: serosanguinous, purulent, erosive rhinitis with MEMBRANE FORMATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

respiratory diptheria

A

unilateral or bilateral tonsillar membrane (gray brown leather)
bull neck appearance
airway compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cutaneous diptheria

A

superficial nonhealing ulcer with gray brown membrane

extremities > trunk or head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

complications of diptheria

A

toxic cardiomyopathy: 50-60% of deaths, dilated and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
toxic neuropathy: weakness of posterior pharyngeal, laryngeal, and facial nerves (voice and swallowing); cranial neuropathies (eyes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

treatment for diptheria

A

equine diptheria antitoxin
erythromycin q 6h po/iv
aqueous crystalline penicillin g q 6h iv/im
procaine penicillin

wound care, bed rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

prophylaxis for diptheria

A

benzathine penicillin g im

erythromycin qid 10 d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

prevention of diptheria

A

dtap/dt: 2, 4, 6 mos, 15-18 mos, 4-6 yo

booster (td/tdap): 11-12 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

etiology of pertussis

A

bordatella pertussis and pertussis toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

clinical manifestations of pertussis

A

catarrhal phase (1-2 w): congestion
paroxysmal (2-6 w): machine gun dry cough
convalescent (>2 w): less cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

gold standard for pertussis diagnosis

A

isolation of b pertussis in culture (nasopharyngeal swab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

treatment for pertussis

A

<3 mos/ preterm/ co-morbids: admit in quiet room

<1 mo-5 mo azithromycin 10 mg/kd/d 5 d
>6 mo azithromycin 10 mg/kg/d day 1, 5 mg/kg/d day 2-5
>1 mo erythromycin (<1 mo = hypertrophic pyloric stenosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

complications of pertussis

A

secondary infections
conjunctival and scleral hemorrhage
cns hemorrhage
pulmo hypertension and 2ndary pneumonia (death)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

prevention of pertussis

A

dtap 2, 4, 6, 15-18, 4-6 yo

tdap booster 11-18 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

etiology of tenanus

A

clostridium tetani and tetanoplasmin

tennis racket or drumstick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

pathogenesis of tetanus

A

tetanus produce toxin -> binds at nms junction -> enters motor nerve -> cytoplasm of alpha motorneuron -> prevents glycine and gaba release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

clinical manifestations of tetanus

A

incubation: 2-14 d / months
course: 1-4 w

trismus (lockjaw), risus sardonicus (smile), opisthonos, conscious in extreme pain, tetanic seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

neonatal tetanus

A
  • occurs when mother is not vaccinated

- manifests 3-12 d after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

diagnosis of tetanus

A
  • hx: unimmunized pt and mother
  • injured or born within 2 wks preceding infection
  • trismus, rigid muscles, and clear sensorium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

treatment for tetanus

A
  • human tetanus ig
  • equine or bovine derived tetanus antitoxin
  • doc: penicllin g iv
  • seizure control
  • nm blocking agents
  • morphine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

t/f children with tetanus can tolerate noise

A

false, unnecessary sounds/touch can trigger tetanic spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

prevention of tetanus

A

dtap: 2, 4, 6 mo

td/tdap: 4-6 yo, intervals of 10 ys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

tetanus prophylaxis in uncertain or <3 doses

A

clean, minor wounds: tdap or td, NO TIG

other wounds: tdap or td with tig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

tetanus prophylaxis in >3 doses

A

clean, minor wounds: NO VACCINE, NO TIG
other wounds: NO VACCINE NO TIG

child is immunized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

t/f humans are the only reservoir for poliovirus and spread it by fecal oral route

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

pathogenesis of poliovirus

A

gi tract -> m cells in small intestine -> peripheral nerves -> anterior horn cells and medulla oblongata

> 50% motor neurons involved = weakness in limbs or paralysis
dorsal horn and dorsal root ganglia = hyperesthesia and myalgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

abortive poliomyelitis

A
  • nonspecific influenza like 1-2 wks
  • full recovery
  • can spread polio unknowingly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

nonparalytic poliomyelitis

A
  • nonspecific
  • more intense flu sx
  • fleeting paralysis of bladder and constipation
  • nuchal and spinal rigidity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

spinal paralytic poliomyelitis

A

1st phase: like abortive myelitis, severe muscle pain, sensory and motor sx, recover in 2-5 d

2nd phase: within 1-2 days asymmetric flaccid paralysis or paresis

PE: nuchal rigidity, muscle tenderness, +++ DTR then — DTR, intact sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

bulbar poliomyelitis

A
  • dysfunction of cn and medullary centers
  • pharyngeal and vocal problems
  • deviation of palate, uvula, or tongue
  • involves vital centers of medulla (RR, BP, HR, T)
  • rope sign
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

polioencephalitis

A
  • seizures, coma, spastic paralysis

- sensorium changes: irritability, disorientation, drowsiness, coarse tremors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

diagnosis of poliovirus

A

isolation of virus from 2 stool specimens, 24-48 hrs apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

treatment of poliovirus

A

no specific treatment

if paralytic -> admit (airway compromise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

prevention of poliovirus

A

ipv (higher igg) opv (mucosal iga)

2, 4, 6-18 mo, 4-6 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

t/f opv is not recommended by who to eradicate polio

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

clinical manifestations of h influenzae

A
  • cellulitis (cheek and preseptal region)
  • orbital cellulitis: lid edema, proptosis, pain upon movement
  • supraglottis/epiglottis: dyspnea, toxic looking, hunched over, air hungry, stridor
  • pneumonia
44
Q

h influenzae prophylaxis

A

rifampin or rifampicin

45
Q

prevention of h influenzae

A

hib conjugate vaccines (dtap + ipv) 2, 4, 6, 12-15 mo

46
Q

measles transmission

A

large or small droplet aerosols in air, even after 1 hr after source leaves room

47
Q

clinical manifestations of measles

A

prodrome: mild fever then conjunctivitis with photophobia, coryza, cough, increasing fever
enanthem: koplik spots
exanthem: head to toe rash -> symptoms subside -> faces in 7 d

48
Q

diagnosis of measles

A

igm elevated 1-2 d after rash

igg elevated 2-4 wk after rash

49
Q

most common cause of death in measles

A

pneumonia

50
Q

most common complication in measles

A

acute otitis media

51
Q

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

A
  • virus regains virulence after 7-10 yrs

stages:

  • change in behavior or school
  • massive myoclonus, involuntary movement
  • choreoathetosis, immobility, dystonia, lead pipe rigidity
  • loss of autonomic control, death
52
Q

treatment for measles

A

vitamin a

  • <6 mos 50,000 iu
  • 6mo-1 yr 100,000 iu
  • > 1 yo 200,000 iu
53
Q

measles vaccine guidelines

A

monovalent 9 mos (6 mos for outbreak), mmr 12-15 mo, 4-6 yo

54
Q

t/f measles vaccine does not prevent sspe

A

false

55
Q

pathogenesis of mumps

A

transmission: droplets

- targets salivary glands, cns, pancreas, and testes

56
Q

clinical manifestations of mumpms

A
  • prodrome (1-2 d): fever, headache, vomiting, achiness
  • parotitis: unilateral then bilateral with ear pain; peak 3 d, subside 7 d
  • ingestion of sour food is painful
  • red edematous stensen duct
57
Q

meningitis with or without encephalitis (mumps)

A
  • 5d after parotitis
  • resolve in 7-10 d
  • meningeal signs in adults, fever and lethargy in children
58
Q

t/f orchitis occurs in 30-40% of post puberty males

A

true, causes fever, chills, pain, and testes swelling

59
Q

treatment for mumps

A

antipyretics, bland diet

60
Q

prevention of mumps

A

mmr 12-15, 4-6 yo

61
Q

rubella is common in ___

A

preschool and school aged children. thats why 2 doses is recommended

62
Q

pathogenesis of rubella

A

read

63
Q

clinical manifestations of rubella

A
  • prodrome: lymphadenopathy*
  • rash: face and neck centrifugally to torso and extremities, 3 d, no desquamation
  • forchheimer spots
64
Q

diagnosis of rubella

A

rubella igm

- if false negative, do rtpcr

65
Q

complications of rubella

A
  • thrombocytopenia (2 wks after rash, self limiting, children)
  • arthritis (1 week after rash, self limiting, adults)
  • post infectious encephalitis (7 days after rash, 20% mortality or sequelae)
  • progressive rubella panencephalitis (like sspe, death 2-5 yrs after onset)
  • crs
66
Q

what is congenital rubella syndrome

A

maternal infection during first 8 weeks

67
Q

clinical manifestations of congenital rubella syndrome

A

small(IUGR) CATS and DEAF CHilDren RETaIN SALT AND PEPPER for their brainy (MENINGO) parents(PATENT DA)

  • cataract + CHD
  • nerve deafness
  • iugr
  • salt and pepper retinopathhy
  • unilateral or bilateral cataracts
  • pda
  • meningoencephalitis
68
Q

treatment for rubella

A

no specific treatment, ivig, corticosteroids

69
Q

children with crs can excrete the virus until __

exposed pregnant women should monitor ___

A

1 years old

igg titers

70
Q

vaccination for rubella

A

mmr / mmrv 12-15 mos, 4-6 yo

post exposure prophylaxis must be given within 3 d

71
Q

pathogenesis of varicella

A

read

72
Q

clinical manifestations of varicella

A
  • lesions first in scalp, face, or trunk
  • pruritic erythematous macules -> papular -> fluid filled vesicles
  • clouding and umbilication 24-48 hrs
  • simultaneous lesions in various stages
  • ulcers in oropharynx and vagina
73
Q

neonatal varicella

A
  • infected 5d before to 2 d after delivery
  • transplacental
  • rash at end of 1st week
  • varicella ig, ivig
74
Q

congenital varicella

A
  • mothers exposed <20 w of pregnancy
  • cicatrical skin scarring (burned baby)!!
  • limb hypoplasia!!
  • neuro, eye, renal, ans symptoms
75
Q

complications of varicella

A
  • bacterial superinfection (gas, s. aureus) (fever 3-4d after exanthem)
  • encephalitis and cerebellar ataxia (2-6d after rash, recovery 24-72 h)
  • pneumonia (1-6 after rash)
76
Q

treatment for varicella

A

acyclovir <24 h of exanthem

iv acyclovir for severe, disseminated, immunocompromised

77
Q

prevention of varicella

A

vaccine 12-15 mos, 4-6 yo

pep: 3-5 d after exposure

78
Q

diseases where humans are the only host

A 
rubella
mumps
measles
h influenzae
poliovirus
79
Q

clinical manifestations of hepA

A
  • anicteric but jaundiced

- 7-14 d

80
Q

diagnosis of hep a

A

anti hav igm

81
Q

prevention of hep a

A

pep: hav ig
- indications: <12 mos, immunocompromised, chronic liver disease

hep a vaccine
- 1 yo, 2 doses 6-12 mos apart

82
Q

morphology of meningococcemia

A

g -, kidney shaped pairs

a, b, c, w153, and y

83
Q

pathogenesis of meningococcemia

A

transmission: aerosol droplets

attaches to nasopharyngeal mucosal cells -> endotoxin cause purpura fulminans and cytokine storm

84
Q

acute meningococcemia

A
  • nonspecific symtpoms
  • fine maculopapular rash
  • limb pain and myalgia
85
Q

meningococcal meningitis

A
  • more subtle in young children*
  • seizures and focal neurologic signs
  • rapidly progressive cerebral edema
  • purpura fulminans
86
Q

chronic meningococcemia

A

rare and non-toxic looking, 6-8 wks

87
Q

diagnosis of meningococcemia

A

isolation of n meningitidis from blood, csf, or synovial fluid

88
Q

treatment for meningococcemia

A 
penicillin g
ampicillin
cefotaxime
ceftriaxone
chloramphenicol, ciprofloxacin, meropenem
89
Q

most frequent neuro sequelae of meningococcemia

A

deafness

90
Q

poor prognostic factors for meningococcemia

A

read

91
Q

prevention of meningococcemia

A

pep rifampicin or ciprofloxacin for >18 yo

92
Q

vaccination for meningococcemia

A

mpsv4: purified polysaccharide
mcv4 dt or menacwy-crm: conjugate vaccines, more immunogenic

11 yo

93
Q

clinical manifestations of typhoid fever

A

5 d high grade fever with myalgia
hepatosplenomegaly
abdominal pain and anorexia
rose spots at 7-10th day, lower chest and abdomen

94
Q

treatment for typhoid fever

A

gold standard: chloramphenicol

95
Q

prevention of typhoid fever

A

ty21a: live attenuated

vi capsular polysaccharide

96
Q

etiology of cholera

A
  • g- comma shaped bacillus

- thrives in moderately salty water

97
Q

clinical manifestation of cholera

A

profuse rice water stools with fishy smell

can be mild and inapparent

98
Q

diagnosis of choldera

A

isolation from stool, rectal swab, or vomit

dark field: darting motility in wet mounts

99
Q

treatment for cholera

A

doxycycline 300mg single dose OR
tetracycline 3d
children: erythromycin
rehydration and zinc

100
Q

clinical manifestations of encephalitic rabies

A
  • nonspecific symptoms
  • hydrophobia and aerophobia!!
  • death within 1-2 day
101
Q

clinical manifestation of paralytic rabies

A

ascending motor weakness on both limbs and cranial nerves

102
Q

diagnosis of rabies

A

rtpcr
category I: intact skin
II: abrasion or scratch, no blood
III: bite

103
Q

treatment for rabies

A

sedation, rabies ig and vaccine dont alter course once symptoms appear

104
Q

prevention of rabies

A

pep

  • I: wound care
  • II: 5 doses of rabies vaccine (day 0, 3, 7, 14, 21/28)
  • III: vaccine + rig

preexposure p: 3 doses day 0, 7, 21/28

105
Q

95% of vaccinated children get their vaccines from __

A

public facilities

106
Q

only ___ had complete and timely vaccination

A

10%

12 Infectious Disease (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions