HAI and Infection Control Flashcards

1
Q

hais are infections that occur in a patient ____ which was ___

A

occuring during the process of care in a healthcare facility which was not present or incubating at the time of admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

basic epidemiologic pattern of nosocomial infections

A
  • have reservoirs
  • exhibit transmission by largely predictable routes
  • require susceptible hosts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

modes of transmission of hais

A
  • cross infection
  • autoinoculation
  • person to person via large infectious droplets (coughing or sneezing)
  • true airborne spread of small droplet nuclei (nosocomial chickenpox)
  • common source spread (contaminated iv fluid)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

factors that increase host susceptibility

A

U AMP

underlying conditions
abnormalities of innate defense
medical-surgical interventions
procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

formula for hai rate

A

(total number CASES of device related infection / total number of DAYS associated with the specific hai) x 1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

t/f vap occurs in more than 10% of patients on ventilators

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

most cases of vap/hap are due to __

A

aspiration of endogenous or hospital acquired oropharyngeal flora

can also be gastric flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pathogenesis of vap/hap

A

colonization, migration, aspiration, biofilm formation (on et)

inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

risk factors for infection of vap/hap

A

colonies aspirate defense

events that increase colonization by potential pathogens

events that facilitate aspiration of oropharyngeal contents

events that reduce host defense mechanisms in lungs = overgrowth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

t/f it’s challenging to diagnose vap/hap because they have normal cxrs

A

false, they already have abnormal cxr so its hard to determine

worsening physiologic parameters are key metrics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

risk factors for mortality in vap/hap

A
  • multiple comorbids
  • inadequate antibiotic treatment (start therapy within first hr of diagnosis)
  • involvement of specific pathogens (p aeruginosa, acinetobacter)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

t/f it is advised to do quantitative cultures for vap/hap

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

early onset nosocomial pneumonia occurs ___

A
first 4 days of intubation/ hospitalization
usually caps (s. pneumonia, h. influenzae)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

late onset nosocomial pneumonia occurs ___

A

after first 4 days of intubation / hospitalization

usually g- bacilli (k. pneumoniae, p aeruginosa, acinetobacter) or drug resistant (mrsa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how many days is duration of treatment for nosocomial pneumonia

A

8 days

acinetobacter / p aeruginosa: >14 d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

differentials for febrile patients on et/gt

A

bacterial sinusitis

otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

t/f cauti infections are reservoirs and sources for spread of antibiotic resistant bacteria

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

pathogenesis of cauti

A
  • spread up periurethral space from perineum or gi tract
  • intraluminal contamination of urinary catheters from irrigation / emptying
  • inadequately disinfected equipment and contaminated supplies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

t/f evidence shows you should irrigate catheters

A

false!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

alternative catheter for men with no bladder obstruction

A

condom catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

rule to prevent cauti

A

remove the catheter if the patient can void spontaneously

22
Q

for patients with chronic catheters you must ___

A

replace the catheter and obtain a freshly voided urine specimen

23
Q

when to do repeat culture for cauti

A

1 week after termination of antibiotics

24
Q

recovery of s aureus from cultures can result from ___ in cauti

A

hematogenous seeding and occult systemic infection == SEEK A SOURCE

s aureus and mrsa are not common causes of cauti!!

25
indications for treatment of candiduria
upper pole or bladder wall invasion, obstruction, neutropenia, or immunosuppression mgt: remove catheter
26
laboratory confirmed blood stream infection in a patient with a central line within 48 hrs before development of bsi and not related to infection at another site
clabsi
27
pathogens in clabsi have ___ that help them communicate
quorum sensing proteins
28
diagnosis of clabsi is based on
- appearance of catheter site - OR presence of fever - OR bacteremia - WITHOUT another source
29
diagnosis of clabsi is confirmed by
- recovery of the same species of pathogenic microorganism from peripheral blood cultures (2 samples) - semiquantitative or quantitative cultures of vascular catheter tip - differential time to positivity (> 2 hrs) for blood drawn through vascular access device than for sample from peripheral vein - difference in quantitative cultures (>threefold) from peripheral and central vein
30
patients with clabsi need to be evaluated for __
s aureus or staph = endocarditis (2d echo)
31
for suppurative venous thrombophlebitiis ___ is required
excision of affected veins
32
types of surgical site infections
superficial incisional: subcutaneous tissue deep incisional: fascia and muscles organ/space: any part of the body that is deepr than fascia
33
sources of ssi
- patient's endogenous or h-a skin flora - airborne spread of skin squames - true airborne spread through droplet nuclei (need a disseminator)
34
common risks for post-op wound infection
``` surgeon's technical skills patient's conditions age inappropriate timing of antibiotic prophylaxis (1 hr before cutting) drains prolonged pre-op stay shaving long surgery infection at remote sites ```
35
organ space infections or subphrenic abscesses requite __ prosthetic devices require ___
ct or mri interventional radiographic techniques
36
most common pathogens in postop wound infections
s aureus coagulase negative staph enteric and anaerobic bacteria rapidly progressing: gas or clostridium
37
most important preventive measure
hand hygiene
38
exceptions to alcohol rubs
hands are visibly soiled | outbreak of c difficile
39
5 moments of hand hygiene
``` before touching patient before procedure after procedure after touching patient after touching environment ```
40
hap/vap bundle
``` avoid mechanical ventilation (use cpap) elevate head 30-45 deg decontaminate oropharynx with chlorhexidine sedation vacation dvt prophylaxis ```
41
clabsi catheter insertion bundle
educate use chlorhexidine to prepare insertion site use maximal barrier precautions and asepsis (covered head to toe with sterile cloth, ppes) consolidate insertion supplies checklist halt insertion if not aseptic
42
clabsi catheter maintenance bundle
cleanse daily with chlorhexidine maintain clean dry dressings hand hygiene remove catheter if not needed
43
cauti bundle
catheter only when needed aseptic equipment and technique minimize manipulation remove if not needed
44
ssi bundle
choose surgeon administer prophylactic antibiotics within 1 hr before surgery limit hair removal use chlorhexidine-alcohol
45
indications for contact precautions
for patients with suspected to have serious illness easily transmitted by direct patient contact or by contact with items in pt environment
46
contact precautions
gown and gloves, mask not needed
47
indications for airborne precautions
pt known or suspected to have serious illness transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei (measles, varicella, tb, covid)
48
airborne precautions
well fitted n95 mask, no need for gown and gloves
49
indications for droplet precautions
serious illness transmitted by large particle droplets (h influenzae type b, n meningitidis, rubella, mumps, influenza)
50
droplet precautions
surgical mask, no need for n95, gown, gloves