V2 Flashcards
Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?
Commissioning date in the USAF.
A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a
Rating
Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeon effective the date
they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course.
Establish the ASD for a medical student using the date
of medical license
What qualification does the aircrew prefix “Q” signify?
Evaluator
Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member
has a duty prefix of “x, k or q”
Operational support fliers
are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally.
Operational support members are placed in flying status
on a monthly basis
the MAJCOM must receive the unit’s man-month request by what date?
15 June.
What Flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties?
III.
A flight physical is not required when a
Member is placed on medical waiver.
The AF IMT 1042 is not used to
document completion of physiological training.
When a member completes a flight health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the HARM office within
One duty day.
How many days can a non-rated officer remain in DNIF without being medically disqualified from aviation service?
180 Days
When updating the flight physical in ARMS use the date the
flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042
What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in ARMS to manually change a member’s flight physical due date?
F
One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member’s
Availability Codes.
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes
11-421, Aviation Resources Management.
A categorial flying waiver
Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of Aircraft.
In which AFI can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?
11-421, aviation resources management.
Following any centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic DNIF status for how many hours?
12 hours.
Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the
AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.
Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on AF IMT 702, individual physiological training record?
Aerospace Physiologist.
Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?
Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.
Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within how many months of training due date?
4 Months.
When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) to attend any physiological training?
NEVER
After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of arrival on station must the member return the AF IMT 702 to the HARM office?
5 duty days.
To update a member’s physiological information in ARMS, use the
Flyer Availability window.
After updating the member’s physiological information in ARMS, the IMT 702 is
Filed in the flight record folder.
Which position does not have an Aeronautical Rating?
Master Flight Surgeon. (doesnt exist)
A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advance rating of
Pilot and flight surgeon
Advanced ratings are awarded based on
years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA
The years of rated service are computed from the date the officer
Received the basic USAF rating
An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to
Evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer.
The effective date of the DAF (Department of the Air Force) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the
Officer is assigned to rated duties.
Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge.
After completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.
A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after completing the basic flight nurse course, three years of aviation service, and
12 paid months of operational Flying Duty.
Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless
It is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty.
A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member
is disqualified due to fear of flying.
Who makes final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges?
MAJCOM Commander.
The manpower standard is an Air Force document used to
Quantify manpower requirements.
Funding for manpower resources are derived from the
The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program
Which primary document reflects the manpower requirement to perform the unit’s mission?
Unit Manpower Document
How can you determine if members are double-billeted?
They share the same position number.
A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code to provide detailed information about a members flying
Activity
which AFI can you find the list of flying activity codes (FAC)
11-401, Aviation Management
which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous ACIP ?
Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974
Aviation Service gates for career enlisted aviators (CEA) are set at the
10th, 15th and 20th year of aviation service.
Which rated officer may accumulate operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit toward entitlement to continuous ACIP?
A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 months of aviation service.
How many days in a calendar month must a member be in an active flying status code (FSC) to receive one month of OFDA credit?
15
What is the effective date of assigning flying status code (FSC) “s” to a member who is actively flying and flew on 15 mar 09, but did not fly again until sep 09
1 Jul 09 (after 3 months of grace period)
Which months is the member who is actively flying authorized to receive OFDA credit if the member flew on 14 may but did not fly until 18 nov?
May, jun, july, august.
The first character of the aviation service code (ASC) is the
Entitlement status code (ESC)
Which flying status code (FSC) is assigned when a member is not flying due to lack of support capability?
K
A member’s entitlement status code (ESC) is not changed when he/she
Fails to perform an operational flight for the month.
What is the maximum number of days a member can stay in Aviation Status Code 04 (suspended status) without MAJCOM approval?
180 Days
You must confirm verbal orders in writing by
Publishing the corresponding AO within 3 duty days.
You may publish a single AO that affects several members provided
The action is exactly the same for all members
WHen amending an AO, you must locate the original AO in the master record set and document in ink in the lower left-hand margin
The order number and request date of the amended AO
You cannot publish an amended AO to correct the
Effective date.
When an AO is revoked, it is no longer an official document; therefore
Remove it from the flight record folder ONLY.
The AO number of the last AO published in the previous year must be annotated
above the heading of the first AO of the current year.
Supporting documents used in publishing AO are annotated in ink
in the lower right-hand corner with the AO number to which it pertains.
You do NOT publish an AO when
Awarding an advanced Aeronautical Rating.
What date is not used when terminating an AO for non-career enlisted aviators (CEA)?
Aviation service milestone.
When a non-rated officer’s date of separation(DOS) is unknown, the effective period of the member’s AO must not exceed
3 years.
Which is the correct way of citing an AFI as authority when publishing an AO
AFI 11-401, Para 2.3.4, 7 Mar 09
Remarks are not used in AOs to
Add extra authority
When publishing AOs to change a rated officer’s ASC, the termination date is automatically populated and will coincide with the member’s
Next Aviation Service Gate.
WHat must be included in the Authority section of the AO when the Authority for publishing the AO is a letter?
Organization, Office symbol, and date of letter.
What is not a reason to convene a flying evaluation board? FEB
lack of aircrew proficiency at UFT.
A flying evaluation board FEB may not recommend
disciplinary actions.
While under suspension, the member’s flying Incentive pay
is terminated until the member’s status is resolved.
Suspension action is at the discretion of the commander when a member
is offered Article 15 punishment.
Non-permanent disqualification reasons include
Conscientious Objector
If the medical disqualification is less than a year, a member may obtain medical certification for requalification by
Obtaining certification from the local flight surgeon’s office.
A rated officer who has been disqualified for at least a year but less than five years due to failure to maintain medical fitness may be requalified for aviation service when
certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF
Aviation Service date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members
Returning to aviation service on or after 1 aug 02
Which ARMS report must be audited after each ARMS- Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) interface?
Permanent Duty station (PDS) Interface Summary Report.
When the consolidated CHARMS transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT Will
Notify the appropriate HARM office.
The 120- day notification policy before involuntarily terminating the aviation service applies to
non-career enlisted aviator (CEA) enlisted members.
which part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) lists all members who are in duty not involving flying DNIF status?
Part 2
Which part of the AMSL displays aircrew members who have gone three months without performing an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) - creditable flight?
Part 8
Part 9 of the AMSL is used to
Determine if aircrew members in flying status codes FSC “S” recently performed OFDA creditable flight.
Which office is responsible for establishing flight record folders
HARM
FRF for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are
Given to the member.
When conducting FRF audit, verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, physiological record, matches the date on the members
Individual Data Summary (IDS)
When auditing a FRF, ensure all AO’s are filed in chronological order by
Effective date/
Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of the
Member’s bday month
Members who are in inactive status are
Not required to complete an annual records review.
You must handle all information pertaining to the aircraft mishap as
Privileged Information.
During an Aircraft Mishap, what actions must be taken before the HARM office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board?
Ensure all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the ARMS
Within how many days prior to the departure must a member notify the HARM office of a pending assignment?
At least 5 duty days
For how many months should you maintain a copy of the member’s outprocessing products?
24 months.
The member must aknowledge receipt of the flight record package by signing
The outprocessing logbook.
If you must normalize and make changes to a member’s record after it has been outprocessed to the gaining HARM, you must advise the Gaining HARM to
Delete the record before you resend the updated record.
What mail option must you choose if you were to mail a FRF to a member?
First Class/
No later than how many days after receipt of a member’s record must the HARM office in process the FRF into ARMS ?
10 Calendar Days.
Once the member’s ARMS record has been in processed.
Complete ARMS Record Transfer Letter and mail it to the losing HARM office.
