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1C052 CDC's > V2 > Flashcards

V2 Flashcards

0
Q

Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?

A

Commissioning date in the USAF.

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1
Q

A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a

A

Rating

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2
Q

Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeon effective the date

A

they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course.

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3
Q

Establish the ASD for a medical student using the date

A

of medical license

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4
Q

What qualification does the aircrew prefix “Q” signify?

A

Evaluator

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5
Q

Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member

A

has a duty prefix of “x, k or q”

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6
Q

Operational support fliers

A

are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally.

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7
Q

Operational support members are placed in flying status

A

on a monthly basis

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8
Q

the MAJCOM must receive the unit’s man-month request by what date?

A

15 June.

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9
Q

What Flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties?

A

III.

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10
Q

A flight physical is not required when a

A

Member is placed on medical waiver.

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11
Q

The AF IMT 1042 is not used to

A

document completion of physiological training.

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12
Q

When a member completes a flight health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the HARM office within

A

One duty day.

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13
Q

How many days can a non-rated officer remain in DNIF without being medically disqualified from aviation service?

A

180 Days

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14
Q

When updating the flight physical in ARMS use the date the

A

flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042

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15
Q

What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in ARMS to manually change a member’s flight physical due date?

A

F

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16
Q

One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member’s

A

Availability Codes.

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17
Q

Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes

A

11-421, Aviation Resources Management.

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18
Q

A categorial flying waiver

A

Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of Aircraft.

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19
Q

In which AFI can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?

A

11-421, aviation resources management.

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20
Q

Following any centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic DNIF status for how many hours?

A

12 hours.

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21
Q

Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the

A

AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

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22
Q

Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on AF IMT 702, individual physiological training record?

A

Aerospace Physiologist.

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23
Q

Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?

A

Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.

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24
Q

Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within how many months of training due date?

A

4 Months.

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25
Q

When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) to attend any physiological training?

A

NEVER

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26
Q

After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of arrival on station must the member return the AF IMT 702 to the HARM office?

A

5 duty days.

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27
Q

To update a member’s physiological information in ARMS, use the

A

Flyer Availability window.

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28
Q

After updating the member’s physiological information in ARMS, the IMT 702 is

A

Filed in the flight record folder.

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29
Q

Which position does not have an Aeronautical Rating?

A

Master Flight Surgeon. (doesnt exist)

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30
Q

A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advance rating of

A

Pilot and flight surgeon

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31
Q

Advanced ratings are awarded based on

A

years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA

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32
Q

The years of rated service are computed from the date the officer

A

Received the basic USAF rating

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33
Q

An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to

A

Evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer.

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34
Q

The effective date of the DAF (Department of the Air Force) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the

A

Officer is assigned to rated duties.

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35
Q

Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge.

A

After completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.

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36
Q

A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after completing the basic flight nurse course, three years of aviation service, and

A

12 paid months of operational Flying Duty.

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37
Q

Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless

A

It is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty.

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38
Q

A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member

A

is disqualified due to fear of flying.

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39
Q

Who makes final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges?

A

MAJCOM Commander.

40
Q

The manpower standard is an Air Force document used to

A

Quantify manpower requirements.

41
Q

Funding for manpower resources are derived from the

A

The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program

42
Q

Which primary document reflects the manpower requirement to perform the unit’s mission?

A

Unit Manpower Document

43
Q

How can you determine if members are double-billeted?

A

They share the same position number.

44
Q

A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code to provide detailed information about a members flying

A

Activity

45
Q

which AFI can you find the list of flying activity codes (FAC)

A

11-401, Aviation Management

46
Q

which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous ACIP ?

A

Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974

47
Q

Aviation Service gates for career enlisted aviators (CEA) are set at the

A

10th, 15th and 20th year of aviation service.

48
Q

Which rated officer may accumulate operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit toward entitlement to continuous ACIP?

A

A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 months of aviation service.

49
Q

How many days in a calendar month must a member be in an active flying status code (FSC) to receive one month of OFDA credit?

A

15

50
Q

What is the effective date of assigning flying status code (FSC) “s” to a member who is actively flying and flew on 15 mar 09, but did not fly again until sep 09

A

1 Jul 09 (after 3 months of grace period)

51
Q

Which months is the member who is actively flying authorized to receive OFDA credit if the member flew on 14 may but did not fly until 18 nov?

A

May, jun, july, august.

52
Q

The first character of the aviation service code (ASC) is the

A

Entitlement status code (ESC)

53
Q

Which flying status code (FSC) is assigned when a member is not flying due to lack of support capability?

A

K

54
Q

A member’s entitlement status code (ESC) is not changed when he/she

A

Fails to perform an operational flight for the month.

55
Q

What is the maximum number of days a member can stay in Aviation Status Code 04 (suspended status) without MAJCOM approval?

A

180 Days

56
Q

You must confirm verbal orders in writing by

A

Publishing the corresponding AO within 3 duty days.

57
Q

You may publish a single AO that affects several members provided

A

The action is exactly the same for all members

58
Q

WHen amending an AO, you must locate the original AO in the master record set and document in ink in the lower left-hand margin

A

The order number and request date of the amended AO

59
Q

You cannot publish an amended AO to correct the

A

Effective date.

60
Q

When an AO is revoked, it is no longer an official document; therefore

A

Remove it from the flight record folder ONLY.

61
Q

The AO number of the last AO published in the previous year must be annotated

A

above the heading of the first AO of the current year.

62
Q

Supporting documents used in publishing AO are annotated in ink

A

in the lower right-hand corner with the AO number to which it pertains.

63
Q

You do NOT publish an AO when

A

Awarding an advanced Aeronautical Rating.

64
Q

What date is not used when terminating an AO for non-career enlisted aviators (CEA)?

A

Aviation service milestone.

65
Q

When a non-rated officer’s date of separation(DOS) is unknown, the effective period of the member’s AO must not exceed

A

3 years.

66
Q

Which is the correct way of citing an AFI as authority when publishing an AO

A

AFI 11-401, Para 2.3.4, 7 Mar 09

67
Q

Remarks are not used in AOs to

A

Add extra authority

68
Q

When publishing AOs to change a rated officer’s ASC, the termination date is automatically populated and will coincide with the member’s

A

Next Aviation Service Gate.

69
Q

WHat must be included in the Authority section of the AO when the Authority for publishing the AO is a letter?

A

Organization, Office symbol, and date of letter.

70
Q

What is not a reason to convene a flying evaluation board? FEB

A

lack of aircrew proficiency at UFT.

71
Q

A flying evaluation board FEB may not recommend

A

disciplinary actions.

72
Q

While under suspension, the member’s flying Incentive pay

A

is terminated until the member’s status is resolved.

73
Q

Suspension action is at the discretion of the commander when a member

A

is offered Article 15 punishment.

74
Q

Non-permanent disqualification reasons include

A

Conscientious Objector

75
Q

If the medical disqualification is less than a year, a member may obtain medical certification for requalification by

A

Obtaining certification from the local flight surgeon’s office.

76
Q

A rated officer who has been disqualified for at least a year but less than five years due to failure to maintain medical fitness may be requalified for aviation service when

A

certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF

77
Q

Aviation Service date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members

A

Returning to aviation service on or after 1 aug 02

78
Q

Which ARMS report must be audited after each ARMS- Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) interface?

A

Permanent Duty station (PDS) Interface Summary Report.

79
Q

When the consolidated CHARMS transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT Will

A

Notify the appropriate HARM office.

80
Q

The 120- day notification policy before involuntarily terminating the aviation service applies to

A

non-career enlisted aviator (CEA) enlisted members.

81
Q

which part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) lists all members who are in duty not involving flying DNIF status?

A

Part 2

82
Q

Which part of the AMSL displays aircrew members who have gone three months without performing an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) - creditable flight?

A

Part 8

83
Q

Part 9 of the AMSL is used to

A

Determine if aircrew members in flying status codes FSC “S” recently performed OFDA creditable flight.

84
Q

Which office is responsible for establishing flight record folders

A

HARM

85
Q

FRF for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are

A

Given to the member.

86
Q

When conducting FRF audit, verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, physiological record, matches the date on the members

A

Individual Data Summary (IDS)

87
Q

When auditing a FRF, ensure all AO’s are filed in chronological order by

A

Effective date/

88
Q

Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of the

A

Member’s bday month

89
Q

Members who are in inactive status are

A

Not required to complete an annual records review.

90
Q

You must handle all information pertaining to the aircraft mishap as

A

Privileged Information.

91
Q

During an Aircraft Mishap, what actions must be taken before the HARM office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board?

A

Ensure all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the ARMS

92
Q

Within how many days prior to the departure must a member notify the HARM office of a pending assignment?

A

At least 5 duty days

93
Q

For how many months should you maintain a copy of the member’s outprocessing products?

A

24 months.

94
Q

The member must aknowledge receipt of the flight record package by signing

A

The outprocessing logbook.

95
Q

If you must normalize and make changes to a member’s record after it has been outprocessed to the gaining HARM, you must advise the Gaining HARM to

A

Delete the record before you resend the updated record.

96
Q

What mail option must you choose if you were to mail a FRF to a member?

A

First Class/

97
Q

No later than how many days after receipt of a member’s record must the HARM office in process the FRF into ARMS ?

A

10 Calendar Days.

98
Q

Once the member’s ARMS record has been in processed.

A

Complete ARMS Record Transfer Letter and mail it to the losing HARM office.

1C052 CDC's (6 decks)

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