Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LAM 2 V. AMSTEL > V. amstel > Flashcards

V. amstel Flashcards

1
Q

What effect of oxytetracycline in the blood may make it go down?

A
  • Binding ionized calcium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

in a time dependent antibiotic what needs to be done to increase the dose interval?

A
  • Increase the dose to extend the time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name on of the mechanism of bacteria resistance to oxytetracycline

A
  • Slime formation and formation of the efflux pump
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define the extended spectrum of oxytetracycline

A
  • Mycoplasma, rickettsia, erlichia, protozoa and Babesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What is the mechanism of action of oxytetracycline?
A
  • Reversible 305 ribosome binding, relates to relapses as it’s a time dependent antibiotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Oxytetracycline is not labeled to be used in lactating cows but it is used topically for foot warts- why?
A
  • Topical use does not cause violative milk /tissue levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Name a non antibacterial effect of tetracycline
A

Inhibit MMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Under which circumstances would you have to use ampicillin rather than ceftiofur?
A
  • Lactating dairy cow and veal calf
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. From an antimicrobial perspective give 2 reasons why cephalosporin might give a better clinical response than ampicillin?
A
  • Wider gram negative spectrum, more beta lactamase release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. What part of the cephalosporin ELDU cannot be violate?
A
  • Dose route and frequency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What is the indication for long acting ceftiofur?
A
  • Metaphylasis , tx of footrot metritis, BRD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. For what type of antibiotic treatment is potassium penicillin often used?
A
  • Regional iv ab
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Why is the meat withdrawal time for procaine penicillin problematic?
A
  • Because of the variation in dose rates affect it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Give 2 advantages of using synthethic penicillin over procaine penicillin?
A
  • Gram negative spectrum/ can be used in lactating dairy cows and veal calves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You have 2 ab , one has a vd 10 l/kg and the other 36 l/kg. which of the 2 ab would you choose for a case of septic meningitis? Assume that the sensitivity of both for the infection is the same.

A
  • Vd 10 l/kg bactericidal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. You have an animal with a lymph adenopathy. There are phagocytosed bacteria in the lymphocytes. Culture shows susceptibility to both penicillin and tulatromycin (macrolide). Which of the 2 antibiotics would you choose as a initial tx?
A
  • Penicillin- bactericidal prefered over intracellular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. In which production animal is the use of penicillin prohibited?
A
  • Lactating cows and veal valves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Why is penicillin commonly used for the following wound infections, black leg and listeria?
A

Gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. What is the spectrum of penicillin?
A
  • Gram positive anaerobe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. AUC of penicillin would be affected if which organ fails?
A
  • Renal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. What does organophosphates have on the heart?
A
  • Causes bradycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. What is the toxic principle in fox glove causing arrhythmia?
A
  • Digitalis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Name an anti- arrhythmogenic drug?
A
  • Lidocaine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. What is dx on clinical examination for a cow with septic pericarditis?
A
  • Washing machine sounds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. What is the normal rate in cattle?
A
  • 50-80
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. What is a predisposing cause of atrial fibrillation in cattle?
A
  • Displaced abomasum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Name 2 characteristics ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia?
A
  • Dropped p wave, wider t complex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. What lesion can black leg cause in the heart?
A
  • Necrotizing myocarditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. What deficiency in young rapid growing sheep can cause acute death?
A
  • Vit e /selenium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. . What is the mechanism in high altitude disease?
A
  • Chronic alveolar hypoxia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. What is the blood electrolyte profile like in the ruptured bladder?
A
  • Hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperkalemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Why does the heart sound softly in hypocalcemia in fresh cows?
A
  • Decrease in contractility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. What would you do to a lower blood potassium level?
A
  • Dextrose and insulin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Name one blood test which may alert you s to the presence of a low grade bacteremia?
A
  • Hyperglobinemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. What symptoms should alert you as to the presence of a bacteremia?
A
  • Hypopyon – fibrin in the eye, lameness- synovitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. What is the mechanism of the positive pole test?
A
  • Fibrin attachment close to the peritoneum activate nociceptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Which bacteria is most commonly associated with valvular endocarditis?
A
  • T. PYOGENES
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Which organ shows most edema with endotoxin?
A

lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. How does endotoxin cause edema?
A
  • Vasculitis increases capillary permeability- leakage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of a murmur in calves?
A
  • Ventricular septal defect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Which heart sound (systolic/diastolic) may be split in the bovine?
A
  • Systolic- asynchronous closure because the left heart contract more strongly than the right heart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Give one ddx for CHF in the bovine?
A
  • Valvular endocarditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. What is the origin of the normal/physiological jugular pulse?
A
  • Mitral valve closing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. What is the characteristic of the jugular vein with cardiac tamponade apart from distention?
A
  • Not pulsation, the pressure on the heart causes to backload**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. What is the mechanism of edema formation in cardiac tamponade?
A
  • Hydrostatic pressures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. Which group of antibiotics generally have a larger volume of distribution?
A

lipid soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. Define volume of distribution:
A

total dose – bioavailability – blood concentration.

Inject 100mg absorbed 60%. Total amount in body 60 mg

blood concentration 20mg 60/20= 3L/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Name 3 factors that will influence bioavailability
A
  • Dose/injection site and volume
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. Define bioavailability
A
  • Amount of drug in blood measured by AUC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. How can the amount of free antibiotic in the blood be increased ?
A
  • Increased the dose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. Name 1 factor which will influence the volume of distribution of an antibiotic
A
  • Protein binding/charge/size/pH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. Explain the mechanism of time dependent antibiotics
A
  • Time above the MIC 40-70%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. What is the half life of a drug?
A
  • Time to half the concentration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. Define AUD
A
  • Amount of absorbed drug in blood stream
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. How does polar antibiotics (water soluble) cross the cell membrane?
A
  • Active. receptor assisted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. Name one factor that may increase the necessity of antibiotic use during surgical procedures?
A
  • Tissue handling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. For how long should antibiotic therapy be continued after the clinical symptoms disappear?
A
  • 2 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. Explain antibiotic combination antagonism?
A
  • Bacteriostatic and bactericidal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. What is one of the best treatment approaches on finding an increase in fibrinogen, white cell count and presence on phagocytosed bacteria on microscopy?
A
  • Combination showing synergism/ appropriate broad spectrum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. Saving commensal and overall population susceptibility (bacterial refugia) is achieved by what treatment approach?
A
  • Specific
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. Important in the feedlot with respiratory disease? Outbreak od respiratory disease?
A
  • Has to make sure people can ID respiratory problem to treat them early
62
Q
  1. Which viral vaccine combination should be given in calves before entering the feedlot?
A
  • Calves 4-6 weeks – Modified live virus Complex (IBR BVD P13 BRSD), LEPTO
63
Q
  1. Why should Histophilus vaccine be used with care?
A
  • 2nd vaccine causes anaphylaxis reaction
64
Q
  1. If you use M. hemolytica vaccine, what fraction of the organism should be included?
A
  • Leukotoxin
65
Q
  1. What group of organism (non respiratory) should calves should always be vaccinated against?
A
  • Clostridium- most important Chauvei
66
Q
  1. Is a calf immunocompetent at 1 week?
A

yes

67
Q
  1. What vaccination protocol should be used when a calf is comingled and its prior vx history is unknown?
A
  • Intranasal vaccination- IgA
68
Q
  1. What is the problem when castration is done during processing at the feed yard?
A
  • to predisposition of respiratory disease
69
Q
  1. What are the best castration methods when doing the procedure at weaning?
A
  • Open castration and banding on the 1st week
70
Q
  1. Give 1 disadvantage of leaving a male calf intact
A
  • bulling
71
Q
  1. Below and what temperature should heat/cold be provided?
A
  • Below 55 above 68
72
Q
  1. What method of feeding will result in highest concentrations (tubing/nursing from mother/drinking from bucket?
A
  • tubing
73
Q
  1. How much colostrum and what igG concentration should a calf receive first 2 hours at birth?
A
  • 50g/l 4 quarts of milk
74
Q
  1. Why are pregnant cow should not receive the modified live vx?
A
  • Persistent PI calves are the main problem in spreading BVD in herd.
75
Q
  1. What is the best way of ensuring that calf will have sufficient levels of Antibodies?
A

tube

76
Q
  1. What components in a free stall aids a cow rising but also prevents her from lunging too fat forward?
A

neck rails

77
Q
  1. Activation of tactile receptors in the cranial rumen wall will do what?
A
  • Chewing cud- saliva production/rumination
78
Q
  1. A cow typically eats how much of its body weight on a dry matter basis?
A
  • 2-3%
79
Q
  1. Peritarsal bursitis is associated with what?
A
  • Small stalls lies on top of hock
80
Q
  1. Rocky walkways predisposes to interdigital skin trauma which in turn predisposes to what?
A
  • Foot rot
81
Q
  1. Foot bath solutions are changed on average after every how many cow?
A
  • 250 cows
82
Q
  1. Formaldehyde is environmental friendly because it dissipates into what?
A
  • Co2 and water
83
Q
  1. Cooling through sprinklers in free stall dairies can indirectly result in what?
A
  • Lameness (thinning of the sole)
84
Q
  1. What problem is associated with over milking or to high vacuum pressure?
A
  • Teat canal eversion (prolapse)
85
Q
  1. What problem is associated with leaking teat liners?
A
  • teat end ulceration
86
Q
  1. What is the major problem associated with slug feeding?
A
  • Rumen acidosis ***
87
Q
  1. What can cause result from having to high of a % of long fiber in the diet?
A
  • Feed selection resulting in rumen acidosis
88
Q
  1. What fraction of the Mannhemia hemolytica has to be on the vx?
A
  • Leukotoxin attacks the main defense in the lung- macrophage
89
Q
  1. What is the mechanism by which lameness cause reproduction failure?
A
  • Inflammatory mediators suppress reproduction hormones
90
Q
  1. Apart from heat what is another major cause of reproduction failure in cattle?
A

lameness

91
Q
  1. What is the component of slug feeding?
A
  • Concentrate feeding separate from forage
92
Q
  1. What foot problem is associated with manure accumulation?
A
  • Digital dermatitis(foot warts polibacterial problem but caused by spirochetes), infectious claw disease
93
Q
  1. How can the presence of thin soles be confirmed?
A
  • Hoof testers
94
Q
  1. What is the desired length and width of a free stall to ensure good cow comfort?
A
  • 9 feet long, 4 ft wide
95
Q
  1. Name 2 ingredients of TMR
A

grain and silage

96
Q
  1. Name one effect of high ambient temperature?
A
  • Infertility can cause lameness (people use water to cool cows water makes the sole more flexible and will erode more quickly on concrete making it more soft causing lameness. High temperature cow will open mouth breathes causing to loose saliva (has bicarb) develops acidosis predisposing them to lameness
97
Q
  1. Name one reason why dairy cows are culled?
A
  • Infertility
98
Q
  1. When are cows typically rebred after calving?
A
  • 60 to 120 days
99
Q
  1. Give one reason why milk production/cow in large dairies has gone up?
A
  • Balancing of rations
100
Q
  1. Which dairy breed has the highest butter fat? (water buffalo excluded)
A

jersey

101
Q
  1. Acetate is a precursor of what constituent in milk?
A
  • Butter fat
102
Q
  1. Which enzyme cause curd formation in the abomasum?
A
  • Chymosin
103
Q
  1. Name one specific effect of BST
A
  • (increase milk production)- increases dry matter intake
104
Q
  1. How long is normal lactation?
A
  • 305 days (heat stress and lameness can cause infertility)
105
Q
  1. How long is the normal dry period?
A

6o d

106
Q
  1. What is the maximum SSC for Grade b dairy milk?
A
  • 750,000
107
Q
  1. What AB is illegal for use in lactating dairy cows:
A
  • Ceftiofur
108
Q
  1. What is the maximum total bacterial count allowed for Grade A milk?
A
  • 100,000/ml
109
Q
  1. Name 2 conditions that can cause a necrotizing myocarditis:
A

black leg/fmd

110
Q
  1. Name 2 non viral ddx for angular limb deformity in sheep:
A
  • Spider lamb/hyperphosphatemia- rickets
111
Q
  1. Name 3 dz in which arthrogryposis may be present in aborted fetus:
A
  • Schmallenburg, akabane, blue tongue
112
Q
  1. Name 1 ddx for akabane virus in cattle:
A

BVD

113
Q
  1. What does akabane and scmallenburg have in common?
A
  • Same serogroup in bunyavirus
114
Q
  1. Name 2 possible presentations of akabane virus in pregnant cattle:
A
  • Congenital malformation and encephalitis
115
Q
  1. Name one control measure to prevent the spread of schmallenburg virus
A
  • Ban any tissue tissue used for breeding
116
Q
  1. How does schmallenburg presentation differs from blue tongue?
A
  • Dz may be asymptomatic in adults
117
Q
  1. Name 4 ddx for stillbirths in sheep:
A
  • Schmallenburg, cache valley, akabane, blue tongue
118
Q
  1. What are the 2 main presentations of schmallenburg virus:
A
  • Diarrea/congenital abnormalities
119
Q
  1. Name 2 important restriction pertaining to live animals:
A
  • Live animal/animal products
120
Q
  1. What is the most effective way of controlling the spreading the disease?
A
  • Vaccination
121
Q
  1. What is the main pathological change in the skin?
A
  • Thrombosis
122
Q
  1. Name the main source of virus in the affected animal
A

lumps

123
Q
  1. What type of vectors are associated with the mechanical transmission of LSD?
A
  • Stomoxus/culicoides/mosquitoes
124
Q
  1. Name 2 other viruses that can cause teat lesions in cattle:
A
  • Vesicular stomatitis/ foot and mouth dz
125
Q
  1. How does LSD cause major financial losses in a dairy herd?
A

mastitis

126
Q
  1. to what genus of viruses does LSD belong
A
  • capripoxviridae
127
Q
  1. Name 3 mosquitos/culicoides transmitted dz in ruminants:
A
  • Akabane, blue tongue, lumpy skin disease
128
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Pigs and camelids are stoic with regards to pain making assessment of presence and severity of pain difficult in these species
  3. Vocalization in a male goat is often associated with urolithiasis
  4. “ hypersensitization” is mediated through glutamate and NMDA receptors
  5. Lidocaine prevents depolarization of sensory nociceptors by 1ry blocking calcium channels-
A

Lidocaine prevents depolarization of sensory nociceptors by 1ry blocking calcium channels-

Na channels

129
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Cattle are less susceptible to the toxic effects of lidocaine
  3. Pain associated with administration of lidocaine is because of the alkalinity of the solution
  4. Pain is extremely catabolic and associated with severe weight loss
  5. Gabapentin may be useful in the treatment of neuropathic pain
A

Pain associated with administration of lidocaine is because of the alkalinity of the solution

130
Q

Name one reason why rumen contents become alkaline with fermentation failure.

A

Bacterial death releases ammonia making rumen more alkaline

131
Q

How does anorexia cause fermentation failure?

A

The low threshold tension receptors in the reticulum are not activated due to not having normal rumen fill .

132
Q

A cow with fermentation failure is showing muscle fasciculations. What electrolyte may be involve?

A

Potassium .

133
Q

How does VitB12 aid ketosis associated with fermentation failure?

A

Directly stimulates gluconeogenesis.

134
Q

What volume rumen fluid should be given to an adult cow?

A

20L

135
Q

What clinical condition may result from high lignin content?

A

Rumen impaction .

136
Q

Name two functions of the primary cycle.

A

Emptying, mixing and absorption

137
Q

What condition normally results in a small volume, pasty semi-liquid stool?

A

Rumen stasis because it is not emptying

138
Q

Absence of the primary cycle with lack of VFA production will predispose to what metabolic problem?

A

The three VFAs that we need are acetate, propionate, butyrate. Not having enough propionate will cause ketosis.

139
Q

What is the methylene blue reduction test used for?

A

Checks the activity of the microbes to help us determine if transfaunation is required

140
Q

Name two clinical signs which will call for rumen evacuation (with rumenotomy or Kingman tube).

A

Ping and

ballotment

141
Q

Name 4 essential procedures included in the MBB in cattle practice.

A

PE, rectal palpation, rumen fluid

analysis, urine analysis

142
Q

uuu uprettyyyyyy
what’s this?!

A
143
Q

aaaand this?

A

shizont

144
Q

what are this boobies?

A

anaplasma marginae

145
Q

Piccctuuuureeeess
what’s this?

A

Babesiaaaa bovis

146
Q

On a serious note…..what is this?!

A

mycoplasma hemollama

147
Q

Give some love to this cow and its__________

A

lumps
lumpy skin disease

148
Q

which virus can cause this?

A

BVD …when in doubt its BVD

149
Q
A
150
Q
A
151
Q
A
152
Q
A

LAM 2 V. AMSTEL (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions