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LAM 2 V. AMSTEL > Review: VA > Flashcards

Review: VA Flashcards

1
Q

what is the role of hypokalemia in a hypochloric metabolic alkalosis?

A

to increse of the blood pH, the intracellular H is exchanged by the extracellular K which lowers the blood K.

kidney increases the excretion of H in exchange of K and HCO3 (aldosterone)

paradoxical aciduria despite the alkalemia

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Normal filling of the reticulum activates the primary/mixing cycle
  3. Normal saliva production is not dependent on the time the animal spends cud chewing (ruminate)
  4. Normal rumen emptying is dependent on an intact primary cycle
  5. Volatile fatty acids are absorbed through the rumen wall along a concentration gradient
  6. Activation of stretch receptors in the dorsal rumen wall initiates the eructation reflex
A

Normal saliva production is not dependent on the time the animal spends cud chewing (ruminate)

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3
Q
  1. Ventral subcutaneous edema is least likely to be caused by:
  2. Decrease oncotic pressure
  3. Increased hydrostatic pressure
  4. Bladder rupture
  5. Increased capillary permeability following generalized vasculitis
  6. Chronic congestive heart failure
A

Bladder rupture

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is not associated with cud chewing?
  2. Saliva production
  3. Mechanical breakdown of lignin
  4. Mechanoreceptor induced increased in mixing cycles
  5. Decrease the formation of stable foam through saliva production
  6. Drops rumen pH by increasing rumen acidity
A

Drops rumen pH by increasing rumen acidity

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5
Q
  1. All statements are true except
  2. Lepto, Clostridium, copper cause anemia through intravascular hemolysis
  3. A PCV of <12 is one of the indications for a blood transfusion
  4. Amprolium may predispose to polioencephalomalacia because it acts a thiamine analog
  5. A goats blood volume is equal to 12% of its body weight
  6. Fetal manipulation is not indicated until 30 minutes after onset of labor in goat
A

A goats blood volume is equal to 12% of its body weight

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. A large fluid filled rumen is commonly associated with acute grain overload
  3. A high lignin content in hay is one of the predisposing causes of abomasal impaction
  4. Lymphoma involving the wall of the abomasum is one of the predisposing causes of pyloric outflow obstruction
  5. Type 1 vagal indigestion is characterized by a papple shaped abdomen
  6. Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia is often associated with an RDA
A

Type 1 vagal indigestion is characterized by a papple shaped abdomen

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7
Q

The normal rumen Ph is: 1 3-4 ]

2 5-6

3 6-7

A

6-7

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8
Q
  1. You perform a venous blood gas on a 60 kg calf. The calf is severely acidotic and has a base deficit of - 15mmol/liter. What volume isotonic bicarb (156 mmol/l) would you administer to correct the entire bicarb deficit? For purposes of calculation assume a 0.4 bicarbonate space.
  2. 1.2
  3. 2.3
  4. 3.4
  5. 5.1
  6. 6.0
A

2.3

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9
Q
A

free abdominal fluid

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10
Q
  1. Apart from Ca – H exchange on protein what other mechanism contributes to the lowered Ca with an alkalosis?
  2. Increased Ca excretion in the milk
  3. Calciuria induced by the alkalosis
  4. Decreased affinity of osteoclastic receptors to bind with PTH
  5. Insufficient Ca binding protein in gut
  6. Rumen hypomotility
A

Decreased affinity of osteoclastic receptors to bind with PTH

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11
Q
  1. A cow (body condition score 4.5) with an RDA which is severely dehydrated, hypocalcemic and hypokalemic (1.9mEq/L – normal 3.8-5) and ketotic and has a blood pH of 7.28 and high anion gap is best treated with which of the following?
  2. 20l iv fluids (.9 % Saline) and bicarb; 2x 500ml 50% dextrose; KCl at 20mEq/L and 750 ml Ca IV
  3. 20l iv poly-ionic, isotonic fluids; 2x 500ml 50% dextrose; 20mg dexamethasone; KCl at 20mEq/L and 750 ml Ca IV
  4. 1liter hypertonic saline; 20l iv (.9% saline + 2.5% dextrose); 1 x 500ml 50% dextrose; KCl at 20mEq/L; 150g KCL orally and 750 ml Ca IV
  5. 1liter hypertonic saline; 20l iv (.9% saline + 2.5% dextrose); KCl at 20mEq/L; 20mg dexamethasone, 150g KCL orally and 750 ml Ca IV
  6. 1liter hypertonic saline; 1 x 500ml 50% dextrose bolus then CRI fluids (.9% saline + 2.5% dextrose); KCl at 20mEq/L; 150g KCL orally and 750 ml Ca IV and insulin CRI
A

Cow needs a lot of K (IV and oral) because it is hypokalemic, needs bicarb because of the acidosis, and dextrose because of ketosis. Do not give hypertonic saline in this situation because it is an acidic solution. Not an appropriate question because the most correct answer does not have bicarb as part of the treatment.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Acetate is one of the main precursors of butter fat
  3. Buffalo milk has a high butter fat content making it suitable for type B dairies
  4. Heat stress is linked with lowered fertility
  5. Open mouth breathing results in lowered rumen buffering
  6. Providing cooling through water via mist is ideal for heat stress control
A

Providing cooling through water via mist is ideal for heat stress control

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a complication of RVA after correction?
  2. Abomasal ileus
  3. Abomasal ulceration
  4. Vagal indigestion type 2
  5. Vagal indigestion type 3
  6. Persistent hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
A

Vagal indigestion type 2

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14
Q
  1. Regarding a positive pinch test, which statement is true?
  2. Is a reliable test for all stages of traumatic reticulo-peritonitis
  3. Pain is caused by the foreign body penetrating into the heart
  4. The foreign body has likely penetrated into the pericardial sac
  5. Is caused by tearing fresh fibrin strands attaching peritoneal surfaces
  6. The animal bends her back ventrally in response
A

Is caused by tearing fresh fibrin strands attaching peritoneal surfaces

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following should you do to expedite a diagnosis and prognosis for a 12-month old blocked goat which lives on pasture/browse?
  2. Take an x-ray to check for calcium stones in urethra (pearl string effect)
  3. Ultrasound bladder and kidneys
  4. Amputate the urethral process
  5. Check blood potassium
  6. Do retrograde catheterization
A

Take an x-ray to check for calcium stones in urethra (pearl string effect)

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16
Q
  1. From the following select the most effective treatment to prevent pregnancy toxemia in sheep?
  2. Identify triplet carrying sheep and feed separately
  3. Feed only roughage prior to lambing
  4. Determine liver Mg levels and supplement Mg
  5. Feed extra potassium
  6. Make sure all sheep body condition score is 4.5 – 5.0
A

Identify triplet carrying sheep and feed separately

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17
Q
A
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18
Q
  1. Which of the following infectious agents does not cause mouth lesions in cattle?
  2. BVD
  3. Actinobacillus lignereisi
  4. Fusobacterium necrophorum
  5. Bovine papular stomatitis
  6. Clostridium perfringens type A
A

Clostridium perfringens type A

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19
Q

Which findings listed strongly indicates severe fermentation failure

a) Absence of cud chewing
b) Rumen ping
c) Rumen atony
d) Rumen pH 7
e) Methylene blue reduction test - 3 minutes to discolor

A

rumen ping

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20
Q

when is LDA more likely to occur?

A

right after calving

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. As age of castration increases, weight loss increases
  3. Castration at less than 500 lb had less marbling than castrated at more than 700 lb
  4. Calves castrated at feedlot have higher morbidity and mortality
  5. Early castration with implant better production than late castration in backgrounding program
  6. Intact calves fetch less money at conventional markets
A

Castration at less than 500 lb had less marbling than castrated at more than 700 lb

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22
Q

name 4 groups of organism that proliferates in an acidic rumen environment and their associated abnormal conditions

A

lactobacili- lactic acidosis
mucor- mucomycosis in the rumen abomasum and rectum
C. PERFRINGENS a- ACUTE DEATH/BOWEL SYNDROME
C. perfringens D- overeating dz, pulpy kidney

\B thiaminolyticus- polio

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23
Q

Which condition is typically not associated with Fusobacterium necrophorum in cattle.

a) Necrobacillosis (Necrotic stomatitis)
b) Caudal vena cava syndrome
c) Diffuse peritonitis
d) Foot rot
e) Liver abcsesses

A

Diffuse peritonitis

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following would be most indicative of intestinal parasitism in a sheep flock?
  2. Loss of body condition
  3. Bottle jaw as result of decreased vascular oncotic pressure
  4. Rumen atony
  5. Constipation
  6. Famacha score 2 in the majority of sheep
A

Bottle jaw as result of decreased vascular oncotic pressure

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25
Q
  1. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT?
  2. Enterotoxigenic E coli (ETEC) contains a K99 adherence antigen
  3. ETEC causes a secretory type diarrhea resulting in the loss of primarily Na, Cl and bicarb
  4. Adult cows can be asymptomatic shedders of Rota virus
  5. Oral administration of bicarb to neonatal calves is one control method to prevent the spread of E. coli
  6. Swollen joints can be one of the signs of failure of passive transfer
A

Oral administration of bicarb to neonatal calves is one control method to prevent the spread of E. coli

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following techniques is the best to catch a llama?
  2. Grab it by the halter
  3. Drive it into the chute
  4. Calmly let it walk into a corner of the stall and grab it by the tail
  5. Calmly let it walk into a corner of the stall and circle your arm around its neck
A

Calmly let it walk into a corner of the stall and circle your arm around its neck

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27
Q
  1. What is the best test for transfer failure of passive immunity (FPT) for a septic calf
  2. Total protein
  3. Sodium sulfate turbidity
  4. Blood GGT levels
  5. Blood fibrinogen levels
  6. Specific gravity of the colostrum
A

Total protein

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28
Q
  1. How many bottles of 500ml of 50% dextrose needs to be added to 20liters saline to make a 5% solution?
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 6
  5. 8
  6. 10
A

4

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29
Q
  1. The rumen pH of a cow that has been off feed was found to be 7.4. The increase in pH is partly caused by which of the following?
  2. Increase in lactic acid
  3. Decreased absorption of VFA’s
  4. Decreased saliva production
  5. Decrease VFA production
  6. Gram negative bacteria releasing endotoxin
A

Decrease VFA production

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30
Q
  1. You are presented with a 5 year old dairy cow with anorexia and muscle tremors. Rumen fluid analysis showed the following: pH 7.1; Methylene blue reduction test – slight discoloration at 5 minutes; no protozoa visible; rumen fluid watery with no particular odor. Urine positive for ketones. Which of the following will be the most appropriate treatment for this cow?
  2. Rumenotomy and evacuation of contents; transfaunation; dexamethazone im
  3. Rumenotomy; transfaunation, dexamethazone im; Vit B12 im
  4. Dextrose iv; KCl orally; Yeast & molasses orally
  5. Transfaunation; dextrose iv; KCl orally; Vit B12 im; Yeast & molasses orally
  6. Twenty liter saline iv; Dextrose iv; KCl orally; Yeast & molasses orally
A

Transfaunation; dextrose iv; KCl orally; Vit B12 im; Yeast & molasses orally

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31
Q

Which of the following VFA may lead to overgrowth and fusion of rumen papillae
(parakeratosis)
a) Acetic

b) Butyric
c) Propionic
d) Lactic
e) Valeric

A

acetic

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32
Q

The owner of a very valuable 24 hour old beef calf had a RID test done for
immunoglobulin transfer. The test result showed an IgG level of 920 mg/dl (normal
>1000mg/dl). He wants your advice. Despite the calf’s value he does not want to
spend money unless absolutely necessary (IgG test $35; plasma plus catheter $185)
You tell him:
a. The IgG has not reached maximum levels yet and should be retested at 36-48 hours
before deciding on plasma administration

b. The calf is fine. Take it home and leave it with the mother

c. The calf has probably already been infected and should be placed on IV antibiotics
and hospitalized ($80/day for 5 days)

d. Ultrasound the umbilicus and give a shot of LA 200 ($105) e. Give plasma immediately

A

The IgG has not reached maximum levels yet and should be retested at 36-48 hours
before deciding on plasma administration

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33
Q
  1. A farmer calls to ask your advice about a cow that has stopped eating. Her left paralumbar fossa is sunken. He suspects that she may have some “digestive” problems. She is also looking depressed. He wants to give her something to stimulate her rumen and improve her mental state. Which of the following would you advise him to do?
  2. 750ml vegetable oil orally plus 2 table spoons of detergent
  3. 750 ml vinegar; 4pounds of sugar and 500ml coffee (helps w energy)
  4. 1.5 gallon vinegar; 4 pounds of sugar and 1 pound yeast
  5. 10 table spoons of baking soda in 1 gallon water
  6. Give her fresh water and hay
A

750 ml vinegar; 4pounds of sugar and 500ml coffee (helps w energy)

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34
Q

Regarding the use of oral electrolyte solutions in a 2 day-old calf with diarrhea. Which
of the following statements is TRUE?
a) Oral electrolytes contain bicarbonate to treat the systemic lactic acidosis

b) Acetate and proprionate in oral replacement fluids is indicated because they assist
in suppressing the growth of enteric pathogens
c) Oral replacement fluids facilitates clotting of milk replacers of cows’ milk origin

d) Oral electrolyte solutions should never be given with plant based milk replacer

e) Oral electrolyte solutions are sufficient to treat a severely acidotic and
hypoglycemic calf with E coli diarrhea

A

hypoglycemic calf with E coli diarrhea

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
  2. Low ionized calcium concentration in pregnancy toxemia in sheep is partly caused by the increased blood pH à preg sheep are ketoacidodic
  3. Hypocalcemia in cows commonly occur during the first 2 weeks post calving
  4. Hyperglycemia in pregnancy toxemia in sheep is associated with insulin resistance due to high endogenous steroid release
  5. Induction of pregnancy with steroids and prostaglandin is not the best treatment option for a sheep suffering from severe ketoacidosis
  6. Pregnancy toxemia in sheep typically occurs in the last 3-4 weeks prior to lambing
A

Low ionized calcium concentration in pregnancy toxemia in sheep is partly caused by the increased blood pH à preg sheep are ketoacidodic

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36
Q

Which one of the following does not cause a profuse diarrhea in adult cattle

a) Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
b) Ostertagia type 2
c) Corona virus
d) Bovine leucosis virus
e) Copper deficiency

A

Bovine leucosis virus

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Morphine is an effective and inexpensive drug to treat acute pain
  3. Side effects can include euphoria and aggression
  4. Most of the morphine receptors are situated in the spine
  5. Morphine can be effectively combined with NSAID drugs
A

Morphine can be effectively combined with NSAID drugs

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38
Q

Which of the following can cause an L-shaped abdomen

a) Small intestinal volvulus
b) Free gas bloat
c) Vagal indigestion type 1
d) Abomasal hypomotility (outflow obstruction)

A

Abomasal hypomotility (outflow obstruction)

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39
Q

All of the following are true statements regarding the primary rumen contraction EXCEPT
a) The mixing contraction plays a pivotal role in maintaining optimal fermentation

b) The integrity and presence of the primary cycle can only be evaluated by means of a
rumen fluid evaluation
c) Rumen/reticulum emptying takes place during the phase of reticulum contraction

d) Damage to the vagus nerve may alter or suspend the primary cycle

e) Blood pH and electrolyte changes can have a negative effect on the gastric center
leading to rumen atony

A

The integrity and presence of the primary cycle can only be evaluated by means of a
rumen fluid evaluation

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40
Q
  1. You are presented with an 8 month old boer goat selected for breeding showing the following signs; Intermittent straining, vocalization and dribbling urine for at least past 2 days. The goat had been fed 1 pound of sweet feed/day. The owner wants to keep the goat for breeding purposes. Which of the following diagnostic and treatment protocols should be followed in this case to ensure the best outcome for both the animal and client?
  2. Sedate the animal with xylazine, ultrasound the bladder; marsupialize the bladder. Tell the owner the goat will be able to breed
  3. Check for urethral rupture by palpating the perineal area for edema, do cystocentesis and flush the bladder with Walpole solution until urine pH is below 4.5
  4. Tell the owner that the goat will unblock in the next 6-8 hours
  5. Ultrasound the bladder and kidneys. Since you suspect struvite do a tube cystotomy with normograde flushing
  6. Check for urethral rupture by palpating the perineal area for edema; ultrasound the kidneys, do check blood potassium and creatinine, do tube cystotomy and normograde flushing
  7. Ultrasound the kidneys, do check blood potassium and creatinine, do tube cystotomy and normograde flushing; continue flushing post op.
A
  1. Check for urethral rupture by palpating the perineal area for edema, do cystocentesis and flush the bladder with Walpole solution until urine pH is below 4.5
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41
Q
  1. Which of the following clinical signs is not consistent with ketosis?
  2. Cow licking itself
  3. Inverse milk fat to protein ratio
  4. Loss of body condition
  5. Acetone smell on breath
  6. Diarrhea
A

Diarrhea

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42
Q

what is the etiology for abomasal impactions?

A

poor quality roughage,

(nutrition)

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43
Q
  1. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT?
  2. Trueperilla pyogenes is commonly involved in abdominal abscesses following hardware disease
  3. Pyopericardium may lead to cardiac tamponade with distention of the jugulars and small to absent jugular pulses
  4. Pericardiocentesis can be done at the point of maximal intensity of the heart sounds
  5. Rumencentesis is done on ventral midline just behind the umbilicus
  6. Subacute rumen acidosis can predispose to hemorrhagic bowel syndrome caused by Clostridium perfringens type A
A

Rumencentesis is done on ventral midline just behind the umbilicus

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44
Q
  1. Which of the following has a negative feedback on the gastric center resulting in rumen atony and failure of fermentation?
  2. Low threshold tension receptors in the reticulum
  3. Mechanoreceptors in the mouth
  4. Tactile receptors round the cardia
  5. High threshold tension receptors in reticulum and dorsal rumen wall
  6. Tactile receptors in mouth - calves
A

High threshold tension receptors in reticulum and dorsal rumen wall

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45
Q
  1. You are presented with a calf with chronic continuous moderate bloat, a fluid filled rumen with a putrid smell and a pasty yellow, low grade diarrhea. Which of the following would be the most likely cause?
  2. Vagal indigestion type 1
  3. Abomasal ulcer
  4. Esophageal groove failure (Rumen drinker)
  5. Esophageal obstruction
  6. Calf diptheria
A

Esophageal groove failure (Rumen drinker)

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46
Q
  1. Which of the following combination is the best indicator of protein energy malnutrition (starvation)
  2. Low albumin; ketonuria; anemia
  3. Low albumin ; low total bilirubin; anemia
  4. Low BCS; low albumin; low bun
  5. Low BCS; low bun; low SDH
  6. Ketonuria; anemia; low bun
A

Low BCS; low albumin; low bun

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47
Q
  1. You are presented with an LDA and decided to correct the displacement with roll and toggle procedure. Which of the following is the correct order in which to proceed?
  2. Place the cow in right lateral then roll her on her back. Place the first toggle and allow the abomasum to deflate
  3. Place the cow in left lateral then roll her on her back. Place the first toggle and allow the abomasum to deflate
  4. Place the cow in right lateral then roll her on her back. Place the first toggle and pull the abomasum up. Place the second toggle and allow the abomasum to deflate
  5. Place the cow in right lateral. Place the first toggle and pull the abomasum up. Place the second toggle and allow the abomasum to deflate
  6. Roll the cow from right lateral into left lateral. Let her stand up. If the ping is gone place the toggles while standing
A

Place the cow in right lateral then roll her on her back. Place the first toggle and pull the abomasum up. Place the second toggle and allow the abomasum to deflate

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48
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
  2. Diagnosis of hypomagnesemia can be confirmed on necropsy by measuring mg levels in ocular fluid
  3. Decreased blood Ca levels may also be associated with hypomagnesemia
  4. Frequent urination is often a sign of subacute hypomagnesemia
  5. Sheep and goats are very resistant to hypomagnesemia
  6. Lush spring pasture predispose to hypomagnesemia
A

Sheep and goats are very resistant to hypomagnesemia

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49
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
  2. Relative metabolic alkalosis increases the affinity of osteoclast receptors for PTH
  3. PTH will decrease the renal excretion of Mg in cases of hypomagnesemia
  4. One reason why older cows are more susceptible to develop milk fever is reduction in osteoclast receptors
  5. The DCAD diet can indirectly stimulate PTH activity by causing a slight metabolic acidosis

Calcium is primarily absorbed through the duodenum via calcium binding protein

A

Relative metabolic alkalosis increases the affinity of osteoclast receptors for PTH

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50
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
  2. The dietary cation/anion difference of dairy cows on primarily forage during the dry period will increase the incidence of milk fever à cow that is mainly on forage will have more cations than anions (alkalotic); goes against calcium mobilization
  3. Addition of anions to the diet will increase the absorption of calcium from both the gut and bone à osteoclasts receptor affinity for PTH increases during acidemia
  4. Ionized calcium levels will decrease in the face of a metabolic alkalosis
  5. PTH does not play a role in the conservation of magnesium à PTH will cause resorption of magnesium in the kidney
  6. Subclinical hypocalcemia may play a significant role in the pathogenesis of abomasal displacement à causes decreased abomasal tone
A

PTH does not play a role in the conservation of magnesium à PTH will cause resorption of magnesium in the kidney

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51
Q

Which of the following feeding methods for colostrum will result in highest levels of IgG
in a 4 hour old Holstein calf.
a. tube feeding
b. nursing from a bottle
c. nursing the cow
d. bucket feeding
e. Wait until the calf is 8 hours old before feeding

A

tube feeding

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52
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an important consideration when doing FAMACHA scores?
    1. Time of membrane exposure before recording
    2. Ambient temperature
    3. Dust
    4. Age
    5. Fever
A

Age

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53
Q
  1. All of the statements are true except
  2. Open mouth breathing in alpacas represents a severe problem since they are obligate nasal breathers
  3. BCS of 3 in a lactating goat is normal
  4. IM injections in the back of the leg in goats should not be used as a routine
  5. The correct site for tail amputation in sheep to prevent rectal prolapse is sacro-coccidial
  6. Both the infratrochlear and cornual nerves should be blocked for disbudding in goats
A

The correct site for tail amputation in sheep to prevent rectal prolapse is sacro-coccidial

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54
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Black leg can cause a necrotizing myocarditis
  3. Lymphosarcoma can occur in the right atrium of adult cattle
  4. Vegetative endocarditis caused by Trueperalla pyogenes usually affects the left AV valve à right AV valve
  5. Vit E difficiency is associated with “Mulberry heart disease” in pigs
  6. Gossypol is a potential cardiac toxin
A

Vegetative endocarditis caused by Trueperalla pyogenes usually affects the left AV valve à right AV valve

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55
Q
  1. Which of the following should be included in spring/summer herd health program?
  2. FAMACHA
  3. Body condition score
  4. Fecal floats on 10% of herd
  5. FECRT on those with high egg counts
  6. All of the above
A
  1. All of the above
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56
Q
  1. Which of the following is not directly associated with heat stress?
  2. Infertility
  3. Rumen acidosis
  4. Respiratory alkalosis
  5. Rectal temperature
  6. Mastitis
A

Mastitis

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57
Q
  1. Which of the following tests done once a year would give most information regarding parasite resistance against any particular anthelmintic?
  2. FAMACHA eye color test
  3. Fecal egg count on 1% of the herd
  4. Fecal egg count reduction test
  5. Consistency of the feces of 10% of the herd
  6. Average body condition score of the herd
A

Fecal egg count reduction test

58
Q

Which of the following is not necessary for stimulating & maintaining the mixing

a) Rumen fill
b) Low tension stretch receptors in wall of the reticulum
c) At least 80% of normal vagal activity
d) Cud chewing
e) Normal amount of rumen fluid

A

Normal amount of rumen fluid

59
Q

what metabolic derangement would you get on fatty liver

A

hypoglycemia

low insulin

elevated serum NEFA

LOW SERUM TRIGLYCERIDES
HIGH SERUM KETONES
elevated ammonia
low BUN- PROD OF AMMONIA METABOLISM

60
Q

All of the following are true statements regarding saliva production EXCEPT
a. One of the functions of saliva is to act as a lubricant and prevent foamy bloat.

b. Without the buffering effect of saliva the rumen pH would be around 3-4
c. The main stimulus for saliva flow is tactile receptor response to structured roughage

d. Loss of large amounts of saliva such as with pharangeal obstruction will result in a
acidosis

e. Cudd chewing has minimal effect on saliva flow

A

Cudd chewing has minimal effect on saliva flow

61
Q
  1. Regarding the treatment of pregnancy toxemia which of the following factors/signs will necessitate doing a c-section?
  2. Severity of the clinical signs
  3. Intensity of the ketonuria
  4. Blood glucose level
  5. Blood pH
  6. Body condition score
A

Body condition score

62
Q
  1. Small volume pasty feces is not an indication for which of the following?
  2. Displaced abomasum
  3. Vagal indigestion type 3
  4. Vagal indigestion type 2
  5. Acute rumen acidosis à rumen is hyperosmolar (pulls water in)
  6. Rumen atony
A

Acute rumen acidosis à rumen is hyperosmolar (pulls water in)

63
Q
  1. A cow has melena with some fresh blood and a barrel shaped abdomen as viewed from behind. The most likely cause is which of the following?
  2. Vagal indigestion type 2
  3. Abomasal impaction
  4. Foamy bloat
  5. Small intestinal volvulus
  6. Abomasal ulcer
A

Small intestinal volvulus

64
Q

3) To make a isotonic saline solution how much salt should be added to 20L water a) 100g b) 200g c) 180g d) 50g e) 25g

A

180g d)

65
Q
  1. From the following select why cows are more prone to the development of fatty liver; The liver has:
  2. Not enough Oxaloacetate
  3. Too much Acetyl-coenzyme A
  4. Low ketone production capacity
  5. Insufficient apo-lipoprotein production capacity
  6. Relatively small size
A

Insufficient apo-lipoprotein production capacity

66
Q
  1. All of the following statements regarding abomasal impaction are true EXCEPT?
  2. Primary abomasal impaction is feed related
  3. Abomasal impaction may be associated with hypochloremia
  4. Surgical treatment often results in persistent atony
  5. Trichobezoars may be a predisposing cause of abomasal impaction in calves
  6. Rectal and trans-abdominal palpation is accurate in making a diagnosis in all cases
A

Rectal and trans-abdominal palpation is accurate in making a diagnosis in all cases

67
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best diagnostic test/procedure for fatty liver in cattle or sheep?
  2. GGT
  3. AST
  4. BUN
  5. Biopsy
  6. Bilirubin
A

Biopsy

68
Q

how can you distinguish between vagal indigestion type 2 and 3?

A

rumen chloride
if its 3->Hydrochlorid acid accumulates in the abomasum and back to the rumen (abomasal distention)
if its 2-> food doesnt get out of the rumen- chloride is normal (rumen is distended)
rumen abscess rumen/reticular orifice is paralyzed

69
Q
  1. You are presented with a cow with pitting edema of the brisket and distended jugular veins. No jugular pulse is present. Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis?
  2. Traumatic pericarditis with cardiac tamponade
  3. Congestive heart failure following ionophore toxicity
  4. Right AV valve insufficiency
  5. High altitude disease
  6. Ventricular septal defect
A

Traumatic pericarditis with cardiac tamponade

70
Q
  1. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT?
  2. The omental bursa is contained between the 2 layers of the greater omentum
  3. The bulk of the small intestine lies within the omental recess
  4. A left displaced abomasum is always clearly palpable rectally
  5. Tight bands palpable rectally should always alert you as to the possibility of an intestinal torsion/volvulus
  6. Right displaced abomasum usually signifies a counterclockwise rotation as viewed from the rear
A

A left displaced abomasum is always clearly palpable rectally

71
Q
  1. Which procedures listed below are the best to evaluate/treat a goat that is obstructed with struvite for 8 days?
  2. Palpate perineum; cut urethral process; ultrasound bladder/kidneys; do blood potassium; do tube cystotomy
  3. Cut urethral process; do normograde urethral flushing; ultrasound bladder/kidneys; do blood potassium; do tube cystotomy
  4. Palpate perineum; do cystocentesis to check urine pH, ultrasound bladder/kidneys; do blood potassium; do tube cystotomy
  5. Palpate perineum; cut urethral process; do blood potassium; do retrograde catheterization; do tube cystotomy
  6. Palpate perineum; cut urethral process; do blood potassium; marsupialization
A

Palpate perineum; do cystocentesis to check urine pH, ultrasound bladder/kidneys; do blood potassium; do tube cystotomy

72
Q
  1. The most common congenital cardiac abnormality in calves is which of the following
  2. Ventricular septal defect
  3. Overriding aorta
  4. Persistent aortic arch
  5. Fallot’s tetrolagy
  6. Pulmonary stenosis
A

Ventricular septal defect

73
Q

Which of the following initial treatments would be regarded as most critical for a calf with E
coli presented in a shocked state
f. Heat; dextrose iv; antibiotics

g. Dextrose iv; antibiotics; milk orally

h. Bicarbonate iv; dextrose iv; potassium iv
i. Bicarbonate iv; dextrose iv; heat

j. Fluids spiked with calculated bicarbonate deficit and dextrose iv; heat

A

Fluids spiked with calculated bicarbonate deficit and dextrose iv; heat

74
Q
  1. Which of the following initial treatments would be regarded as most critical for a calf with E coli? The calf shows dehydration, blood pH 7.31, muscle weakness, has a tachycardia, blood glucose of 20 and the calf is hypothermic
  2. Heat; dextrose iv; oral fluids
  3. Dextrose iv; antibiotics; milk orally
  4. Fluids w/bicarbonate (based on acid-base) iv; dextrose iv; potassium iv, heat
  5. Isotonic bicarbonate iv; dextrose iv; heat; potassium orally
  6. Isotonic bicarbonate iv; dextrose iv; heat; potassium iv
A

Heat; dextrose iv; oral fluids

75
Q
  1. You are presented with a down cow in the field. Which of the following signs will be most indicative of milk fever?
  2. Complete rumen atony
  3. Rectum filled with feces
  4. Rapid (>100) and soft heart sounds
  5. Extremities cold to the touch
  6. Reduced lower jaw tone
A

Rapid (>100) and soft heart sounds

76
Q
  1. All statements are true except
  2. Isotonic bicarb is indicated as the fluid of choice in cases where blood pH is less than 7.2
  3. Leucopenia/degenerative left shift/high fibrinogen are often associated with sepsis
  4. In case of sepsis neonates are often unable to maintain blood glucose
  5. New born goat kids usually only have enough brown fat for 5 hours to maintain their blood glucose
  6. Subcutaneous dextrose is an acceptable treatment for acute hypoglycemia (glucose < 50)
A

Subcutaneous dextrose is an acceptable treatment for acute hypoglycemia (glucose < 50)

77
Q

Regarding transfaunation which of the following is incorrect in collecting and
preserving and administering rumen fluid
a) The main indication for transfaunation is fermentation failure

b) Should be stored at body temperature
c) Requires anerobic conditions for preservation
d) Cow needs 10 – 15 liters
e) Rumen fluid can only be given from cow to cow

A

Rumen fluid can only be given from cow to cow

78
Q

The eructation cycle is initiated by: 1 CO2 receptors in the rumen wall

2 Long roughage in the course layer

3 Stretch receptors in the dorsal rumen wall
4 Biphasic reticulum contraction

A

Stretch receptors in the dorsal rumen wall

79
Q
  1. Which of the following does not cause lipolysis through activation of hormone sensitive lipase?
  2. Insulin à cause lipogenesis (protective)
  3. Growth hormone
  4. Endogenous glucocorticoids
  5. Glucagon

Injectable semisynthetic steroids

A

Insulin à cause lipogenesis (protective)

80
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. A new born calf needs 4 quarts of colostrum within the first 2 hours
  3. Good quality colostrum contains 50 g of IgG/liter
  4. Natural nursing provides higher blood levels of IgG compared to tubing colostrum
  5. Lepto vaccination is recommended as a routine vaccine
  6. Clostridium perfringens is associated with a hemorrhagic enterocolitis
A

Natural nursing provides higher blood levels of IgG compared to tubing colostrum

81
Q

what is a life threatening condition associated with metastatic pneumonia?

A

aneurism

82
Q

You are presented with a 5 year old dairy cow with anorexia. Rumen fluid analysis showed
the following: pH 7.1; Methylene blue reduction test – slight discoloration at 5 minutes; no
protozoa visible; rumen fluid watery with no particular odor. Urine positive for ketones.
Which of the following will be the most appropriate treatment for this cow.
f. Rumenotomy and evacuation of contents; transfaunation; dexamethazone im

g. Transfaunation, dexamethazone im; Vit B12 im
h. Transfaunation; dextrose iv; KCl orally; Yeast & molasses orally

i. Dextrose iv; KCl orally; Yeast & molasses orally
j. 20 liter saline iv; Dextrose iv; KCl orally; Yeast & molasses orally

A

. Transfaunation; dextrose iv; KCl orally; Yeast & molasses orally

83
Q
  1. What factor will not influence the activity of PTH in the body?
  2. Blood glucose level
  3. The cows age
  4. Blood pH
  5. Level of potassium in the feed
  6. Calcium loss in the milk
A

Blood glucose level

84
Q

T/F in vagal indigestion type 2 can the rumen present with either hypomotility or hypermotility

A

true

hypermotility prevents normal layering

85
Q
  1. Ketosis is often a secondary problem associated with subacute rumen acidosis. Signs include decrease in both milk production and milk fat. From the following select the reason for the decreased milk fat:
  2. There is a progressive decrease in acetate production in the rumen
  3. Ketone bodies blocks the role of butyric acid in lactogenesis
  4. There is a linear relationship between milk production and the amount of butter fat in the milk
  5. It is a protective mechanism to prevent the cow from losing too much weight
  6. Dietary fat content in the ration is too low
A

There is a progressive decrease in acetate production in the rumen

86
Q
  1. Which of the following is most correct?
  2. Feeding alfalfa prior to calving will reduce the amount of calcium in the blood at calving
  3. Grass hay is a good source of calcium
  4. Magnesium act as a calcium canal blocker in the body
  5. Low blood magnesium is associated with low intracellular calcium
  6. Nitrogen fertilizer on pasture will not reduce the amount of bioavailable magnesium in the rumen
A

Magnesium act as a calcium canal blocker in the body

87
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Pasture milking may predispose to peaks and troughs in rumen fermentation and pH
  3. Thin soles may be an important cause of lameness in both pasture and total confinement dairy operations
  4. Cud chewing is facilitated by having large sand bedded free stalls
  5. The average dairy cow needs 4 hours rest (lying down) per day
  6. Herding cows may be associated with an increase in upper limb lameness
A

The average dairy cow needs 4 hours rest (lying down) per day

88
Q

what type of vagal indigestion you would get when you have failre of eructation /rebloat after tubing?

A

type 1

89
Q
  1. Regarding pregnancy toxemia which of the following predisposing causes is most important?
  2. Number of lambs
  3. Body condition score
  4. Rumen volume
  5. Sudden feed changes
  6. Blind (blocked) teats
A

Number of lambs

90
Q

Roughage with a high lignin content can predispose to all of the following except

a) Vagal indigestion type 2
b) Rumen impaction
c) Abomasal impaction
d. Prolonged rumen to rectal transit
e) Increased cud chewing

A

Vagal indigestion type 2

91
Q

what is a DDX for vagal indigestion type 3?

A

abomasal impaction
elevated chloride due to nutritional problem. lignin is too high get omasal and abomasal impaction

92
Q

What is the most likely cause of intermittent bloat and regurgitation in a 5 year old goat

a) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
b) CAE Caprine arthritis encephalitis
c) Lumpy jaw
d) Actinobacillus lignereisi Cutaneous form
e) Mycobacterium paratuberculosis

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

93
Q
  1. What is the main beneficial effect of steroids as part of the treatment of ketosis in cattle?
  2. It stimulates food intake
  3. It induces gluconeogenesis
  4. It reduces milk production à main beneficial effect
  5. It stimulates NEFA production
  6. It activates hormone sensitive lipase
A

It reduces milk production à main beneficial effect

94
Q
  1. Regarding the treatment of a severe hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, which of the following treatments will have the best outcome in correcting the metabolic and electrolyte profile?
  2. Give isotonic bicarb at 80ml/kg body weight per 24 hours
  3. Give isotonic fluids with added potassium (40mEq/L) and calcium (750ml in 20L fluids)
  4. Give 1 liter hypertonic saline plus 150gm KCL orally and 1liter calcium in a 3 liter bag of fluids
  5. Give 1 liter hypertonic saline followed by 20liter 0.45 saline and 2.5% dextrose plus potassium at 20mEq/L and calcium (750ml) added to the fluids
  6. Give 1 liter hypertonic saline followed by 20liter 0.45 saline and 2.5% dextrose plus potassium at 20mEq/L and calcium (750ml) added to the fluids plus 150mg KCL orally
A

Give 1 liter hypertonic saline followed by 20liter 0.45 saline and 2.5% dextrose plus potassium at 20mEq/L and calcium (750ml) added to the fluids plus 150mg KCL orally

95
Q
  1. You are presented with a 5 year-old dairy cow with the following history and clinical signs: sudden drop in milk production; Total anorexia; Unsteady gait; Slightly bloated; Heart rate 98/min (normal 50-80); Soft rumen – seems fluid filled (splashing sounds); Congested mucus membranes/ slightly sunken eyes; Milky –gray diarrhea. With the above information, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
  2. Rumen impaction
  3. Hardware disease
  4. Abomasal ulcer
  5. Acute grain overload
  6. Displaced abomasum
A

Acute grain overload

96
Q

What other examinations are necessary to confirm the diagnosis in Question 15 and
treatment necessary
a) Rumen pH and White cell count
b) Rumen pH and rumen ballotment
c) Microscopic rumen fluid evaluation and rumen ballotment
d) Urine dipstick and PCV and total solids
e) Rumen auscultation and microscopic rumen fluid evaluation

A

Rumen pH and rumen ballotment

97
Q
  1. You are called out to a dairy farm with a high incidence of lameness because of thin soles and /or sole lesions. Which of the following factors does not play a role in the pathogenesis?
  2. Distance travel to milking parlor on concrete walk way
  3. Being herded to and from milking parlor
  4. Lying down time of 11 hours
  5. Feeding grain during/at milking
  6. Using a separator box to determine the correct percentage long fiber
A
  1. Using a separator box to determine the correct percentage long fiber
98
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a predisposing cause for hypomagnesemia?
  2. Rapid growing calves on a milk diet
  3. Transport stress
  4. Addition of nitrogen to the pasture
  5. Na:K ratio of > 3:1
  6. Dry fall pasture
A
  1. Na:K ratio of > 3:1
  2. Dry fall pasture
99
Q

You are presented with a 5 year-old dairy cow with the following history and clinical
a) Sudden drop in milk production

b) Total anorexia
c) Unsteady gait
d) Slightly bloated
e) Heart rate 98/min (normal 50-80)
f) Soft rumen – seems fluid filled

g) Congested mucus membranes/ slightly sunken eyes h) Milky –gray diarrhea
With the above information, supply the most likely diagnosis from the following:
a) Acute traumatic reticuloperitonitis
b) Vagal indigestion type 2
c) Vagal indigestion type 3
d) Acute grain overload

A

Acute grain overload

100
Q

what’s this?

A

Papple shaped vagal indigestion type 2 and 3

rumen distend- failure omasal transport
pyloric outflow obstruction
decrease milk production
bradycardia
scant mucoid feces

101
Q
  1. A low “physiologic” level of ketone bodies is always present in the bloodstream of a cow. These ketone bodies are mainly derived from which of the following?
  2. Propionic acid à precursor of blood glucose
  3. Lactic acid à L-form also goes to glucose
  4. Acetic acid & buteric acid
  5. Betahydroxybuterate & Acetone à are actually ketones
  6. Non-esterified fatty acids
A

Acetic acid & buteric acid

Non-esterified fatty acids

102
Q

Which of the following syndromes is not associated with Sub-acute rumen acidosis

a) Laminitis
b) LDA
c) Abomasal ulcer
d) Liver cirrhosis
e) Metastatic lung abscesses

A

Liver cirrhosis

103
Q
  1. All of the statements are false except
  2. True floppy kid syndrome is characterized by hypoglycemia and lactic acidosis
  3. True floppy kid syndrome is usually associated with prematurity
  4. Hypoglycemia in goats occurs when the blood glucose drops to below 120
  5. Administration of bicarb intravenously is a correct form of treatment for true floppy kid syndrome
  6. True floppy kid results from lactic acidosis
A

Administration of bicarb intravenously is a correct form of treatment for true floppy kid syndrome

104
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Adding rubber to walk ways in total confinement dairies is associated with a decrease in the incidence of thin soles
  3. Grooved concrete on walk ways inc traction but contributes to thin soles
  4. Manure and slurry is an important source for infectious claw disease
  5. Lameness is an important cause of repeat breeding
  6. Pregnant heifers should be vaccinated with a modified live BVD vaccine
A

Pregnant heifers should be vaccinated with a modified live BVD vaccine

105
Q

)The mixing cycle is also known as:

1 Primary cycle

2 Secondary cycle

3 Rumenations

4 Cud chewing

A

Primary cycle

106
Q

where are you likely to palpate the omasum on a RDA?

A
107
Q
  1. Which metabolic profile is most indicative of severe fatty liver in a cow?
  2. Hyperglycemia; elevated NEFAs; low VLDL
  3. Hypoglycemia; low insulin; low endogenous steroids
  4. Ketonemia; hypoglycemia; elevated VLDL
  5. Ketonemia; elevated ammonia; elevated NEFAs
  6. Fermentation failure; rumen atony; diarrhea
A

Ketonemia; elevated ammonia; elevated NEFAs

108
Q
  1. Regarding the treatment of pregnancy toxemia which of the following combinations would be best for a ewe still moving around but not eating
  2. C-section; IV glucose; oral propylene glycol
  3. Induce with steroids; IV glucose; rumen fluid
  4. Induce with steroids; IV glucose; oral propylene glycol
  5. C section; IV insulin; oral propylene glycol
  6. C-section; IV insulin; IV glucose; rumen fluid
A

C-section; IV insulin; IV glucose; rumen fluid

109
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a consistent sign of hypomagnesemia?
  2. Bellowing
  3. Incoordination
  4. Opisthotonus
  5. Tongue paralysis
  6. Loud fast heart beat
A

Tongue paralysis

110
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. High altitude pulmonary hypertension (HAPH) is due to chronic alveolar hypoxia
  3. Atrial fibrillation is sometimes associated with abomasal displacement
  4. HAPH has a genetic predisposition
  5. Hyper-gammaglobulinemia; Increased WCC, mature neutrophilia are indicators of a chronic bacteremia
  6. Heart rates below 100 is non-significant for disease
A

Heart rates below 100 is non-significant for disease

111
Q
  1. You are asked to calculate the DMI of a 1500 lbs cow eating 60 lbs of silage/day. The dry matter of the silage is 20%.
  2. 12 lbs
  3. 20 lbs
  4. 6 lbs
  5. 10 lbs
  6. 30 lbs
A

12 lbs

112
Q
  1. You have a steer with a ventral swelling of the intermandibular space and neck. The swelling crepitates on palpation. Which of the following organisms is likely to be involved?
  2. Clostriduium perfringens type D
  3. Anthrax bacillus
  4. Actinobacillus lignereisi
  5. Clostridium septicum
  6. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
A
113
Q
  1. All of the following are true statements regarding grain overload EXCEPT?
  2. Administration of an oral antacid such as calcium carbonate to cattle not showing signs of shock and dehydration is one correct therapy
  3. Absorption of both L/D lactate occurs but only D-lactate causes acidemia
  4. This condition occurs when lactobacilli overgrow the normal rumen flora
  5. The severity of clinical signs depends on the amount of the ingested grain
  6. Transfaunation is an effective way to re-establish a normal flora irrespective of the degree of fermentation failure found on rumen fluid analysis (organoleptic; bench top; microscopic)
A

Transfaunation is an effective way to re-establish a normal flora irrespective of the degree of fermentation failure found on rumen fluid analysis (organoleptic; bench top; microscopic)

114
Q
  1. A calf with diarrhea is presented with severe metabolic acidosis and a blood pH of 7.12 Which of the following fluids would you use for resuscitation?
  2. Hypertonic saline
  3. 0.9% saline
  4. 0.45% saline and 2.5% dextrose
  5. Isotonic sodium bicarb 156mEq/l in distilled water
  6. Isotonic polyionic fluid
A

Isotonic polyionic fluid

115
Q
  1. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate/legal/ effective to use in a 4 month old dairy veal calf?
  2. Metronidazole PO
  3. Enrofloxacin sub cut
  4. Trimethoprim orally
  5. Choramphenicol im
  6. Oxytetracycline iv
A

Oxytetracycline iv

116
Q

Saliva is important for:
1 Acidifying the rumen
2 Breaking down cellulose
3 Buffering the rumen contents
4 Provides digestive enzymes such as trypsin and lipase

A

buffering rumen contents

117
Q

Which of the following is least likely to be identified on rectal palpation

a) Mesenteric root torsion of the small intestines
b) Left displaced abomasum
c) Diffuse generalized peritonitis
d) Fat necrosis
e) Abomasal impaction

A

Left displaced abomasum

118
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Milk is evaluated for odor and color at each pick up
  3. A high milk bacterial count may be associated with unsanitary milking procedure
  4. There is no restriction on somatic cell count for type B dairies
  5. Non-medical grade DMSO isn’t allowed to be stored on both A/B dairies
  6. It is illegal to use enrofloxacin in lactating dairy cattle
A

There is no restriction on somatic cell count for type B dairies

119
Q

All of the following are true statements regarding grain overload EXCEPT
k. Administration of magnesium oxide to cattle not showing signs of shock and
dehydration is one correct therapy

l. Atony and a flaccid fluid filled rumen is not a common physical finding
m. Absorption of both Land D lactate occurs but only D-lactate causes academia
n. This condition occurs when gram positive rods overgrow the normal rumen flora

o. Emergency rumenotomy is a rational treatment for a cow with a rumen pH of 5
and still standing

A

. Atony and a flaccid fluid filled rumen is not a common physical finding

120
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
  2. Mg is the body’s natural Ca channel blocker
  3. Bone act as a reservoir for magnesium
  4. Young pasture is low in magnesium
  5. Loose watery stool caused by spring pasture is a predisposing cause of hypomagnesemia
  6. Hypermagnesemia can cause cardiac arrest
A

Bone act as a reservoir for magnesium

121
Q

Cud chewing (Rumenation) is important for:

1 Mechanical breakdown of roughage

2 Saliva secretion

3 Both
5 Neither

A

both

122
Q
  1. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT?
  2. The omental bursa is contained between the 2 layers of the greater omentum
  3. The bulk of the small intestine lies within the omental recess
  4. A left displaced abomasum is always clearly palpable rectally
  5. Tight bands palpable rectally should always alert you as to the possibility of an intestinal torsion/volvulus
  6. Right displaced abomasum usually signifies a counterclockwise rotation as viewed from the rear
A

A left displaced abomasum is always clearly palpable rectally

123
Q
  1. All of the statements are true except
  2. Tetanus is a possible complication following open castration
  3. Sharp hooks on the maxillary molars should always be floated
  4. Overgrowth of incisors in camelids occur because of continual growth of their roots
  5. Quidding is usually a sign of dental disease
  6. Fluoride deposition in teeth predisposes to excessive wear
A

Sharp hooks on the maxillary molars should always be floated

124
Q
  1. Which of the following cannot be used as a precursor of glucose in ruminants?
  2. Amino acids
  3. Non-esterified fatty acids
  4. Glycerol
  5. Propionic acid
  6. Propylene glycol
A

Non-esterified fatty acids

125
Q

)The purpose of the mixing cycle is to:

1 Expel gas/ absorb water/ empty rumen

2 Chew cud/ absorb volatile fatty acids/ provide new substrate for bacteria

3 Close the esophageal groove/absorb volatile fatty acids/ provide new substrate for bacteria 4 Empty rumen/absorb volatile fatty acids/ provide new substrate for bacteria

A

Empty rumen/absorb volatile fatty acids/ provide new substrate for bacteria

126
Q
  1. The functions of the primary cycle (mixing cycle) include which of the following combinations?
  2. Mixing reticulum and rumen content/emptying through the reticulum- omasal orifice/VFA absorption
  3. Mixing/abomasal flow/calcium absorption from rumen
  4. Eructation/cud chewing/gas absorption
  5. Water absorption/ negative feedback to the gastric center/refilling of the reticulum
  6. Control rumen retention of course material/refilling of reticulum/rate of methane absorption
A

Mixing reticulum and rumen content/emptying through the reticulum- omasal orifice/VFA absorption

127
Q
  1. Which clinical sign from the list below is most indicative of hypomagnesemia?
  2. Loud, rapid heart sounds; muscle tremors
  3. Rapid breathing with upper respiratory stridor
  4. Rumen atony and mild free gas bloat
  5. Increased rectal temp, hypersensitivity
  6. Seizure activity, opisthotonus; normal heart rate
A

Loud, rapid heart sounds; muscle tremors

128
Q

is rumen chloride elevated on type 3?

A

yes

129
Q
  1. What combination of clinical signs is most indicative of milk fever?
  2. Deviation of neck posture; Rumen atony; tachycardia
  3. Cold extremities; Subnormal temp; Reduced anal tone
  4. General muscle flaccidity; soft rapid heart sounds; cold extremities
  5. Down with head on side; absent tail tone; reduced jaw tone
A

General muscle flaccidity; soft rapid heart sounds; cold extremities

130
Q

where is the duodenum displaced on a RDA?

A
131
Q
  1. You are performing an examination on a second lactation dairy cow that calved 3 days ago. She has been down overnight on concrete and cannot get up. There is evidence that she has been struggling to do so. The farmer suspected milk fever and gave her 500ml of calciumborogluconate with little positive response. Her heart rate is 75 beats per minute and rectal temp 102.4. There is a fair sized manure pile behind her and she is eating grass hay. With this information, which of the following actions would be most appropriate for you to do?
  2. You tell him you do not think she is currently hypocalcemic. You need to do a proper examination with special reference to the musculoskeletal system. She needs to get off the concrete on soft surface. You will collect blood for electrolyte/mineral imbalances and call him back
  3. Tell the farmer you think it is a milk fever relapse and give her another 500ml calcium iv
  4. You cannot get her to urinate but you tell him you think it is ketosis and you give her 500ml 50% dextrose iv
  5. You tell him you think she has metritis and give her a shot of LA200

You tell him to get her off the concrete. You give her 200ml of a 20% Mg Sulfate sub cut; 150gm KCL orally; 500ml 50% dextrose iv as a bolus and 40mg dexamethasone

A

You tell him you do not think she is currently hypocalcemic. You need to do a proper examination with special reference to the musculoskeletal system. She needs to get off the concrete on soft surface. You will collect blood for electrolyte/mineral imbalances and call him back

132
Q

What is the rumen pH of a cow that has been off feed for 3 days and why?
a) 7.1 - 7.3 Change in VFA:Buffer ratio & dead bacteria

b) 6.5 – 6.8 Change in VFA:Buffer ratio & dead bacteria
c) Stays within the normal range
d) 8.0 – 8.5 Ammonia and nitrate build up in rumen
e) 7.1 - 7.3 Butyric and proprionic acid increases

A

a) 7.1 - 7.3 Change in VFA:Buffer ratio & dead bacteria

133
Q
  1. Which of the following diagnostic tests/procedures should you perform to definitively distinguish between type 2 and 3 vagal indigestion?
  2. Blood gas profile; rumen chloride
  3. Blood gas profile; blood potassium and calcium levels
  4. Blood and rumen chloride; blood potassium and calcium
  5. Left sided laparo-rumenotomy; rumen chloride
  6. Abdominal ultrasound; rumen fluid examination for fermentation failure
A

Left sided laparo-rumenotomy; rumen chloride

134
Q

)The average normal abomasal pH at birth until day 3 is 4.4. The reason for this relatively high
pH is to:
f) Kill potential entero-pathogens
g) Is necessary to activate chymosin
h) Facilitates immunoglobulin absorption
i) Prevents neonatal gastric ulceration
j) Facilitates esophageal groove closure

A

) Facilitates immunoglobulin absorption

135
Q
  1. Which of the following does not play a role in the development of a negative energy balance?
  2. High milk production
  3. Estrogen
  4. Reduced rumen volume
  5. Transition ration
  6. Subclinical hypocalcemia
A

Subclinical hypocalcemia

136
Q

T/F fatty liver is unable to increase VLDL synthesis

A

true

137
Q
  1. Diagnosis of traumatic pericarditis is best made by which of the following
  2. Loud heart sounds; heart rate >100; leukocytosis
  3. Heart rate >100; “washing machine sounds” on cardiac auscultation; distended jugular veins
  4. Heart rate >100; “washing machine sounds” on cardiac auscultation; presence of fluid in pericardium on ultrasound
  5. Heart rate >100; “washing machine sounds” on cardiac auscultation; presence of fibrin cranial to reticulum
  6. Heart rate >100; “washing machine sounds” on cardiac auscultation; evidence of foreign body in reticulum on xrays
A

Heart rate >100; “washing machine sounds” on cardiac auscultation; presence of fibrin cranial to reticulum

138
Q

how would you treat vagal indigestion type 1

A
139
Q

Several cattle died overnight in a feed yard in the finisher pens. You are called in to
investigate. The cattle appear to be somewhat bloated and some appear to have had a
hemorrhagic enteritis
You tell the manager that you think it may be associated with SARA. All of the following risk factors might have played a role in the deaths except
a) Clostridium perfringens
b) Irregular feeding intervals
c) Change of feed
d) Adding low level ionophore to the ration to reduce gram positive bacterial
population
e) Increasing the amount of hay fed in the TMR

A

Adding low level ionophore to the ration to reduce gram positive bacterial
population

140
Q

You perform a venous blood gas on a 60 kg calf. The calf is severely acidotic and 10%
dehydrated and has a base deficit of 22mmol/liter. How many teaspoons (rounded off:
for example 3.8 =4)of baking soda would you administer to correct the entire deficit. For
purposes of calculation assume a 0.6 bicarbonate space.

a) 10
b) 8
c) 3
d) 5
e) 1

A

10

LAM 2 V. AMSTEL (4 decks)

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