Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UWorld > UWorld3 > Flashcards

UWorld3 Flashcards

1
Q

Supine patients typically aspirate into the […] and superior segments of the lower lobes.

A

Supine patients typically aspirate into the posterior segments of the upper lobes and superior segments of the lower lobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Supine patients typically aspirate into the posterior segments of the upper lobes and […].

A

Supine patients typically aspirate into the posterior segments of the upper lobes and superior segments of the lower lobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

[…] is derived from catabolism of amino acids (Val, Ile, Met, Thr), odd-numbered FAs, and cholesterol side chains.

A

Propionyl CoA is derived from catabolism of amino acids (Val, Ile, Met, Thr), odd-numbered FAs, and cholesterol side chains.Congenital deficiency of propionyl CoA carboxylase leads to development of propionic acidemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Folate deficiency inhibits the formation of […], which limits DNA synthesis and promotes megaloblastosis / erythroid precursor cell apoptosis.

A

Folate deficiency inhibits the formation of deoxythymidine monophosphae (dTMP), which limits DNA synthesis and promotes megaloblastosis / erythroid precursor cell apoptosis.Thymidine supplementation can moderately help.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Inadequate recanalization of the […] is the most common cause of fetal hydronephrosis.

A

Inadequate recanalization of the ureteropelvic junction is the most common cause of fetal hydronephrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bence-Jones proteins + Tamm-Horsfall proteins = […] casts

A

Bence-Jones proteins + Tamm-Horsfall proteins = eosinophilic castsNOT eosinophil cell casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

[…] rejection is characterized by worsening hypertension, a progressive rise in serum creatinine, and proteinuria with normal urinary sediment.

A

Chronic real allograft rejection is characterized by worsening hypertension, a progressive rise in serum creatinine, and proteinuria with normal urinary sediment.Obliterative vascular fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

[…] anticonvulsans are favored for focal onset seizures and should usually be avoided in generalized epilepsy syndromes as they may aggravate seizures.

A

Narrow-spectrum anticonvulsans are favored for focal onset seizures and should usually be avoided in generalized epilepsy syndromes as they may aggravate seizures.Narrow-spectrum = carbamazepine, gabapentin, phenobarbital, phenytoinBroad-spectrum = lamotrigine, levetiracetam, topiramate, valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

25-30% of indivuduals have […] colonization with S. aureus (both meth-sens and MRSA).

A

25-30% of indivuduals have nasal colonization with S. aureus (both meth-sens and MRSA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

First line stimulant for narcolepsy = […]

A

First line stimulant for narcolepsy = modafinil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Thiopental is a short-acting barbiturate used for […].

A

Thiopental is a short-acting barbiturate used for induction of anesthesia.After equilibration with the brain, it rapidly distributes into skeletal muscles and adipose tissue, which results in rapid recovery from anesthesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A […] A2-to-opening snap time interval means a more severe mitral stenosis.

A

A shorter A2-to-opening snap time interval means a more severe mitral stenosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Murmurs that increase on Valsalva/standing = […]

A

Murmurs that increase on Valsalva/standing = MVP & HCMBecause of dec. LV volumeDec. preload and afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The ristocetin aggregation test is used to measure […].

A

The ristocetin aggregation test is used to measure vWF-dependent platelet aggregation.Ristocetin activates GP Ib-IX receptors on platelets and makes them available for vWF binding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

vWF prolongs the half-life of […].

A

vWF prolongs the half-life of factor VIII.Serves as its carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The […] genome codes for hemagglutinin and matrix protein.

A

The measles virus genome codes for hemagglutinin and matrix protein.Hemag. = cell surface adhesionMatrix = viral assembly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which illicit drug causes nystagmus? […]

A

Which illicit drug causes nystagmus? PCPHorizontal or verticalAlso ataxia, amnesia, violent behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pralidoxime is a […] reactivator.

A

Pralidoxime is a cholinesterase enzyme reactivator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Point mutations in […] underlie most cases of hereditary hypothalamic diabetes insipidus.

A

Point mutations in neurophysin II underlie most cases of hereditary hypothalamic diabetes insipidus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The goal of […] is to dissociate the bedroom from any activites that do not involve sleep and the fear of not sleeping.

A

The goal of stimulus control therapy is to dissociate the bedroom from any activites that do not involve sleep and the fear of not sleeping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Trimethoprim, methotrexate, and […] all inhibit dihydrofolate reductase.

A

Trimethoprim, methotrexate, and pyrimethamine all inhibit dihydrofolate reductase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lab findings in PSGN include: elevated anti-ASO titers, elevated […] titers, decreased C3 and total complement levels, and the presence of cryoglobulins.

A

Lab findings in PSGN include: elevated anti-ASO titers, elevated anti-DNase B titers, decreased C3 and total complement levels, and the presence of cryoglobulins.C4 levels usually normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Increased serum levels of prolactin suppress […].

A

Increased serum levels of prolactin suppress GnRH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In MG, the decreased ability of ACh to bind and open postsynaptic cation channels decreases the […] and prevents the formation of muscular action potentials.

A

In MG, the decreased ability of ACh to bind and open postsynaptic cation channels decreases the end-plate potential and prevents the formation of muscular action potentials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

[…] remains even after the withdrawal of exogenous glucocorticoids, and return of normal function may take weeks to months

A

HPA axis suppression remains even after the withdrawal of exogenous glucocorticoids, and return of normal function may take weeks to months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The metyrapone stimulation test is a sensitive indicator of […] integrity.

A

The metyrapone stimulation test is a sensitive indicator of HPA axis integrity.Metyrapone inhibits 11-beta-hydroxylase -> blocks cortisol synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The […] binding site on both IgG and IgM is located inthe Fc portion closer to the hinge region.

A

The complement binding site on both IgG and IgM is located inthe Fc portion closer to the hinge region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lithium and the anticonvulsants valproate, carbamazepine, and […] are mood-stabilizing agents used in bipolar disorder.

A

Lithium and the anticonvulsants valproate, carbamazepine, and lamotrigine are mood-stabilizing agents used in bipolar disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

[…] are the major cause of morbidity and mortality in theophylline intoxication.

A

Seizures are the major cause of morbidity and mortality in theophylline intoxication.In low to moderate doses, methylxanthines cause milk cortical arousal and insomnia, much like caffeine.PDE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In HIV, […] gene encodes group-specific antigens in the virion core such as nucleocapsid proteins p24 and p7, and pol gene encodes several proteins such as reverse transcriptase.

A

In HIV, gag gene encodes group-specific antigens in the virion core such as nucleocapsid proteins p24 and p7, and pol gene encodes several proteins such as reverse transcriptase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In HIV, gag gene encodes group-specific antigens in the virion core such as nucleocapsid proteins p24 and p7, and […] gene encodes several proteins such as reverse transcriptase.

A

In HIV, gag gene encodes group-specific antigens in the virion core such as nucleocapsid proteins p24 and p7, and pol gene encodes several proteins such as reverse transcriptase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The product of c-myc is a nuclear phosphoprotein that functions as a […].

A

The product of c-myc is a nuclear phosphoprotein that functions as a transcription activator controlling cell proliferation, differentiation, and apoptosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Increased production of cyclin D1 occurs in […].

A

Increased production of cyclin D1 occurs in mantle cell lymphoma.t(11;14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Apo[…]: LCAT activation (cholesterol esterification)

A

ApoA-I: LCAT activation (cholesterol esterification)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Apo[…]: chylomicron assembly and secretion by the intestine

A

ApoB-48: chylomicron assembly and secretion by the intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Apo[…]: LDL particle uptake by extrahepatic cells

A

ApoB-100: LDL particle uptake by extrahepatic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Apo[…]: LPL activation

A

ApoC-II: LPL activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Apo[…]: VLDL and chylomicron remnant uptake by liver cells

A

ApoE-3 & -4: VLDL and chylomicron remnant uptake by liver cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Nipple inversion is observed when the tumor invades the central region of the breast, and skin retraction is identified when the cancer infiltrates the […].

A

Nipple inversion is observed when the tumor invades the central region of the breast, and skin retraction is identified when the cancer infiltrates the suspensory Cooper ligaments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Primary enzymes in nonoxidative steps of HMP shunt are […].

A

Primary enzymes in nonoxidative steps of HMP shunt are transaldolase and transketolase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

[…] regions are typically located 25 - 70 bases upstream from their associated genes.

A

Promoter regions are typically located 25 - 70 bases upstream from their associated genes.In contrast to enhancers/repressors, which may be located anywhere (upstream, downstream, or within)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Mycobacteria that do not possess […] are not able to cause disease.

A

Mycobacteria that do not possess cord factor are not able to cause disease.More specifically, cord factor is responsible for inactivating neutrophils, damaging mitochondria, and inducing release of TNF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

[…] ALL is more likely to present with a large anterior mediastinal mass that can compress the great vessels, causing superior vena cava syndrome.

A

T-cell ALL is more likely to present with a large anterior mediastinal mass that can compress the great vessels, causing superior vena cava syndrome.Can also compress the esophagus causing dysphagia or the trachea causing dyspnea and stridorCD2,3,4,5,7,8+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

[…] muscle dysfunction can lead to the formation of a Zenker diverticulum.

A

Cricopharyngeal muscle dysfunction can lead to the formation of a Zenker diverticulum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Nonergot D2 agonists = […] and ropinerol

A

Nonergot D2 agonists = pramipexole and ropinerolErgots = bromocroptine and pergolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Inactivation of the HFE protein results in decreased […] synthesis by hepatocytes and increased DMT1 expression by enterocytes.

A

Inactivation of the HFE protein results in decreased hepcidin synthesis by hepatocytes and increased DMT1 expression by enterocytes.Leads to iron overload –> inc. risk for cirrhosis / HCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

CD154 is the […].

A

CD154 is the CD40L.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Isotype switching occurs in the […] in the lymph node.

A

Isotype switching occurs in the germinal centers in the lymph node.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

ABPA can result in transient recurrent pulmonary infiltrates and eventual proximal […].

A

ABPA can result in transient recurrent pulmonary infiltrates and eventual proximal bronchiectasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

[…] is an essential activator of carbamoyl phosphate synthase I.

A

N-acetylglutamte is an essential activator of carbamoyl phosphate synthase I.Formed from precursors acetyl-CoA and glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Loss of cardiomyocyte contractility occurs within […] after the onset of total ischemia.

A

Loss of cardiomyocyte contractility occurs within 60 seconds after the onset of total ischemia.If ischemia lasts less than 30 minutes, contractile dysfunction is reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The one organism that would cause diarrhea with fecal mononuclear leukocytes: […]

A

The one organism that would cause diarrhea with fecal mononuclear leukocytes: Salmonella typhi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Diarrhea with peripheral eosinophilia can be seen with Strongyloides, Ancylostoma, Ascaris, Toxocara, and Trichinella but not with […]

A

Diarrhea with peripheral eosinophilia can be seen with Strongyloides, Ancylostoma, Ascaris, Toxocara, and Trichinella but not with Giardia or Entamoeba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Increased levels of […] are one of the main mechanisms by which TZDs decrease insulin resistance.

A

Increased levels of adiponectin are one of the main mechanisms by which TZDs decrease insulin resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The acute effects of corticosteroids on the CBC include increased […] count.

A

The acute effects of corticosteroids on the CBC include increased neutrophil count.Decreased lymphocyte, monocyte, basophil, and eosinophil counts – increased neutrophil count results from “demargination” of neutrophils previously attached to vessel wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The vegetations associated with bacterial endocarditis represent […] deposition at a site of bacterial colonization.

A

The vegetations associated with bacterial endocarditis represent fibrin and platelet deposition at a site of bacterial colonization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The clinical manifestations of schistosomiasis result from a […] granulomatous response directed against the eggs.

A

The clinical manifestations of schistosomiasis result from a Th2-mediated granulomatous response directed against the eggs.Composed of infiltrating Th2 cells, eosinophils, and M2 macrophages

58
Q

Periportal “pipestem” fibrosis is pathognomonic for […].

A

Periportal “pipestem” fibrosis is pathognomonic for hepatic schistosomiasis.

59
Q

About 10% of patients with Friedreich ataxia develop […]. (not HCM, kyphoscoliosis, or foot abnormalities)

A

About 10% of patients with Friedreich ataxia develop diabetes mellitus. (not HCM, kyphoscoliosis, or foot abnormalities)

60
Q

High levels of circulating […] increase the ESR.

A

High levels of circulating fibrinogen increase the ESR.IL-1, IL-6, and TNF mediate systemic inflammatory response and stimulate hepatic secretion of acute-phase proteins

61
Q

The […] of HBV disrupts cell-cycle control by activating multiple growth-promoting genes and inactivating the p53 tumor suppressor protein.

A

The HBx protein of HBV disrupts cell-cycle control by activating multiple growth-promoting genes and inactivating the p53 tumor suppressor protein.

62
Q

Hypoestrogenic states cause over-expression of […], leading to lower bone mass.

A

Hypoestrogenic states cause over-expression of RANK receptors, leading to lower bone mass.

63
Q

Bone turnover is regulated by the ratio of RANK-ligand to […].

A

Bone turnover is regulated by the ratio of RANK-ligand to OPG.Turnover increases when RANK-L is high and OPG is low.OPG (osteoprotegerin) is secreted by osteoblasts and acts as a decoy receptor

64
Q

The […] proteins are mammalian transcription factors.

A

The myc proteins are mammalian transcription factors.

65
Q

IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase and IgA […] antibody are very sensitive and specific for the dx of celiac.

A

IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase and IgA endomysial antibody are very sensitive and specific for the dx of celiac.

66
Q

PNMT is under the control of […].

A

PNMT is under the control of cortisol.Cortisol increases transcription of this enzyme

67
Q

Populations that subsist on corn are prone to developing […].

A

Populations that subsist on corn are prone to developing pellagra.Niacin in corn is in a bound, unabsorbable form

68
Q

Known host cell receptor-virion binding specificities include: CD4 and HIV gp120; CD21 and EBV gp350; erythrocyte […] and parvovirus B19

A

Known host cell receptor-virion binding specificities include: CD4 and HIV gp120; CD21 and EBV gp350; erythrocyte P antigen and parvovirus B19

69
Q

[…] is the single most effective agent in treating TCA-associated cardiac abnormalities.

A

Sodium bicarb is the single most effective agent in treating TCA-associated cardiac abnormalities.

70
Q

In addition to their action on the NKCC symporter, loop diuretics also stimulate […] release.

A

In addition to their action on the NKCC symporter, loop diuretics also stimulate prostaglandin release.Increased GFR and enhanced drug delivery – both of these factors enhance diuretic response

71
Q

Sarcoidosis results from type […] hypersensitivity.

A

Sarcoidosis results from type IV hypersensitivity.

72
Q

Because the femoral canal is small, femoral hernias are prone to […].

A

Because the femoral canal is small, femoral hernias are prone to incarceration.Incarcerated hernias cannot be reduced.

73
Q

In patients with […] central DI, the rise in urine osmolality is typically more than 50%.

A

In patients with complete central DI, the rise in urine osmolality is typically more than 50%.Otherwise -> partial central DI (or nephrogenic DI if less than 10%)

74
Q

Viral protein synthesis can be inhibited by […].

A

Viral protein synthesis can be inhibited by alpha- and beta-interferons.

75
Q

Oseltamivir is a […].

A

Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor.Used to treat influenza A and B – prevents release of newly formed virions and impairs viral penetration of mucous secretions that overlie the respiratory epithelium

76
Q

Constitutional symptoms + […] murmur heard best at the apex = atrial myxoma

A

Constitutional symptoms + mid-diastolic rumbling murmur heard best at the apex = atrial myxomaScattered cells within a mucopolysaccharide stroma, abnormal blood vessels, hemorrhagingProduce large amounts of VEGF and IL-6CV sx are secondary to valve obstruction by the myxoma, which accounts for why sx are position-dependent

77
Q

Exenatide = […] analogue approved for tx of type 2 DM in pts with suboptimal glucose control despite adequate doses of metformin/sulfonylureas

A

Exenatide = GLP-1 analogue approved for tx of type 2 DM in pts with suboptimal glucose control despite adequate doses of metformin/sulfonylureas

78
Q

[…] is primarily seen in patients taking NRTIs – mainly stavudine and zidovudine.

A

Lipoatrophy is primarily seen in patients taking NRTIs – mainly stavudine and zidovudine.=loss of subq fat, especially from the face, extremities, and buttocks

79
Q

Gottron papules (flat-topped violaceous papules over the joints of the fingers) + heliotrope rash = […]

A

Gottron papules (flat-topped violaceous papules over the joints of the fingers) + heliotrope rash = dermatomyositisanit-Jo1 absPts who develop dermatomyositis after age 50 have an increased risk of an underlying occult malignancy

80
Q

Hydralazine and minoxidil often cause reflex tachycardia and […].

A

Hydralazine and minoxidil often cause reflex tachycardia and edema.Often given in combination with sympatholytics and diuretics

81
Q

PA2O2 = […]

A

PA2O2 = 150 - (PaCO2 / 0.8)Normally, the A-a gradien does not exceed 10-15 mmHg

82
Q

Avobenzone absorbs […].

A

Avobenzone absorbs UVAI/UVAII.Many zinc oxide-containing sunscreens provide broad spectrum protection against UVB, UVAI, and UVAII wavelengths.

83
Q

PABA esters are among the most potent and widely used […] radiation absorbers.

A

PABA esters are among the most potent and widely used UVB radiation absorbers.They do not significantly absorb or block radiation in the UVA wavelength range.

84
Q

Fibrinous/serofibrinous pericarditis is most often caused by MI, rheumatic fever, or […].

A

Fibrinous/serofibrinous pericarditis is most often caused by MI, rheumatic fever, or uremia.A viral infection may occasionally cause fibrinous exudate to accumulate in per. space.

85
Q

Kussmaul’s sign is found most often in patients with […].

A

Kussmaul’s sign is found most often in patients with chronic constrictive pericarditis.A condtition that takes months or years to developParadoxical increase in JVP with inspirationDDx = restrictive cardiomyopathy, severe right-sided heart failure, tricuspid stenosis, and (rarely) tamponadeTamponade is the only acute cause of Kussmaul’s sign

86
Q

A […] is a brief, high frequency, precordial sound heard in early diastole in patients with constrictive (chronic) pericarditis.

A

A pericardial knock is a brief, high frequency, precordial sound heard in early diastole in patients with constrictive (chronic) pericarditis.Occurs earlier than S3 ventricular gallop and may be confused with opening snap of mitral stenosis

87
Q

[…] cells would predominate in the bronchoalveolar lavage fluid of patients with hypersensitivity pneumonitis.

A

CD8+ cells would predominate in the bronchoalveolar lavage fluid of patients with hypersensitivity pneumonitis.CD4+ are the predominant type of lymphocyte found in sarcoid granulomas (CD4+:CD8+ ratio > 2:1).

88
Q

[…] is often prescribed to prevent recurrent calcium stones in adults when dietary modifications are unsuccessful.

A

Potassium citrate is often prescribed to prevent recurrent calcium stones in adults when dietary modifications are unsuccessful.

89
Q

The lowest pH along the nephron is found in the […].

A

The lowest pH along the nephron is found in the distal tubules and collecting ducts.Uric acid precipitates in an acidic environment -> these segments are most likely to become obstructed by uric acid crystals

90
Q

Patients with somatostatinomas present with hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia, steatorrhea, and […].

A

Patients with somatostatinomas present with hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia, steatorrhea, and gallbladder stones.Due to inhibition of CCK release

91
Q

LV hypertrophy and prior MI protect against […].

A

LV hypertrophy and prior MI protect against LV rupture.It occurs 3-7 days after onset of MI (when coag necrosis and neutrophil invasion have sufficiently weakened the infarcted myocardium)

92
Q

Pro-carcinogens are metabolized into carcinogens by […].

A

Pro-carcinogens are metabolized into carcinogens by CYP450 monooxygenase.

93
Q

Dextromethorphan has been shown to reverse opioid tolerance through its […] properties.

A

Dextromethorphan has been shown to reverse opioid tolerance through its NMDA antagonistic properties.Thus it appears that glutamate may play a significant role in morphine tolerance.

94
Q

Ambiguous external genitalia in female infants and maternal virilization = […]

A

Ambiguous external genitalia in female infants and maternal virilization = aromatase deficiency

95
Q

Attrition bias is a form of […].

A

Attrition bias is a form of selection bias.

96
Q

Epinephrine causes increased […] (amino acid) release from skeletal muscle, which serves as a source of gluconeogenesis in the liver.

A

Epinephrine causes increased alanine (amino acid) release from skeletal muscle, which serves as a source of gluconeogenesis in the liver.

97
Q

Leptin acts on the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus to inhibit production of neuropeptide Y (decreasing appetite) and stimulate production of […] (increasing satiety).

A

Leptin acts on the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus to inhibit production of neuropeptide Y (decreasing appetite) and stimulate production of alpha-MSH (increasing satiety).

98
Q

[…] is a polypeptide precursor that goes through enzymatic cleavage and modification to produce beta-endorphins, ACTH, and MSH.

A

POMC is a polypeptide precursor that goes through enzymatic cleavage and modification to produce beta-endorphins, ACTH, and MSH.Suggests that there may be a close physiological relationship between the stress axis and the opioid system.

99
Q

Somatomedin C is a peptide that is structurally similar to […].

A

Somatomedin C is a peptide that is structurally similar to insulin.Somatomedin C = insulin like growth factor

100
Q

Prolactin is structurally similar to […].

A

Prolactin is structurally similar to GH.

101
Q

Calcipotriene, calcitriol, and tacalcitol are […].

A

Calcipotriene, calcitriol, and tacalcitol are topical vitamin D analogs.Bind to vit D receptor and inhibit keratinocyte proliferation / stimulate their differentiation -> use for psoriasis

102
Q

[…] = Ab that targets IL-12 and IL-23, inhibits differentiation / activation of CD4+ Th1 and Th17 cells

A

Ustekinumab = Ab that targets IL-12 and IL-23, inhibits differentiation / activation of CD4+ Th1 and Th17 cellsPSORIASIS

103
Q

The […] variant of papillary thyroid cancer is seen in older individuals and carries a relatively worse prognosis.

A

The tall cell variant of papillary thyroid cancer is seen in older individuals and carries a relatively worse prognosis.

104
Q

Amiodarone causes thyroid dysfunction because […].

A

Amiodarone causes thyroid dysfunction because it’s 40% iodine by weight.Can cause hypothyroidism or, in iodine-deficient areas, thyrotoxicosis

105
Q

The MAP-kinase pathway includes Ras, a […] that exists in active and inactive forms.

A

The MAP-kinase pathway includes Ras, a G protein that exists in active and inactive forms.

106
Q

Pure red cell aplpasia (PRCA) has been associated with […] and lymphocytic leukemias.

A

Pure red cell aplpasia (PRCA) has been associated with thymomas and lymphocytic leukemias.Can also result from parvovirus B19 infection

107
Q

The Kozak sequence plays a role in […].

A

The Kozak sequence plays a role in the initiation of translation.A mutation 3 bases upstream from the start codon in this sequence is associated with thalassmeia intermedia.

108
Q

The best indicator of severe mitral regurg is […].

A

The best indicator of severe mitral regurg is the presence of an S3 gallop.S2 to opening snap interval is for mitral stenosis.

109
Q

Hemiballism occurs due to damage of the […] nucleus.

A

Hemiballism occurs due to damage of the contralateral subthalamic nucleus.Most commonly from a lacunar stroke

110
Q

[…] is an involuntary, forcible closure of the eyelids.

A

Blepharospasm is an involuntary, forcible closure of the eyelids.2nd most common focal dystonia (after spasmodic torticollis)

111
Q

[…] is an enzyme that is relatively specific to mast cells – elevated serum levels are often used to support a clinical diagnosis of anaphylaxis.

A

Tryptase is an enzyme that is relatively specific to mast cells – elevated serum levels are often used to support a clinical diagnosis of anaphylaxis.

112
Q

[…] antiarrhythmics exhibi use dependence.

A

Class 1 antiarrhythmics exhibi use dependence.Tissues undergoing frequent depolarization become more susceptible to blockage – Na channels in rapidly depolarizing tissue spend more time in the activated/inactivated states, allowing more binding time for the drug.

113
Q

Class 1[…] antiarrhythmics demonstrate the most use dependence.

A

Class 1C antiarrhythmics demonstrate the most use dependence.1B have the least –> RAPID DISSOCIATION, little use dependence. 1B are more selective for ischemic myocardium.

114
Q

The mechanism of gingival hyperplasia in phenytoin therapy is associated with increased expression of […].

A

The mechanism of gingival hyperplasia in phenytoin therapy is associated with increased expression of PDGF.

115
Q

You need dihydrobiopterin reductase for these reactions:Phe –> Tyr, Tyr –> DOPA, […]

A

You need dihydrobiopterin reductase for these reactions:Phe –> Tyr, Tyr –> DOPA, Trp –> serotonin
Trp –> 5-hydroxytryptamine –> serotonin

116
Q

PaO2 < […] can cause secondary polycythemia.

A

PaO2 < 65 mmHg can cause secondary polycythemia.SaO2 < 92%

117
Q

Measurement of […] is necessary to distinguish absolute from relative erythrocytosis.

A

Measurement of RBC mass is necessary to distinguish absolute from relative erythrocytosis.

118
Q

Meperidine is believed to cause less […] and is often considered the opioid of choice in biliary and pancreatic pain.

A

Meperidine is believed to cause less sphincter of Oddi constriction and is often considered the opioid of choice in biliary and pancreatic pain.Scientific support dubious, so go for NSAIDs

119
Q

Beta-1 receptors are found in cardiac tissue and on […].

A

Beta-1 receptors are found in cardiac tissue and on renal juxtaglomerular cells.

120
Q

Renal oncocytomas are very rare tumors that originate from the […] cells.

A

Renal oncocytomas are very rare tumors that originate from the collecting duct cells.RCC originates from proximal tubule cells.

121
Q

[…] + eye symptoms are only seen when the hyperthyroidism is due to Graves disease.

A

Pretibial myxedema + eye symptoms are only seen when the hyperthyroidism is due to Graves disease.Due to anti-TSH receptor abs

122
Q

Chest x-ray findings of fibrocalcific parietal pleural plaques in the posterolateral mid-lung zones and over the diaphragm are suggestive of […].

A

Chest x-ray findings of fibrocalcific parietal pleural plaques in the posterolateral mid-lung zones and over the diaphragm are suggestive of asbestosis.Nodular densities and eggshell calcifications of hilar nodes –> silicosisBerylliosis resembles sarcoidosis

123
Q

Round or oval encapsulated cells with narrow-based buds = […]

A

Round or oval encapsulated cells with narrow-based buds = C. neoformans

124
Q

Breslow thickness is the most important prognostic indicator for patients with […].

A

Breslow thickness is the most important prognostic indicator for patients with malignant melanoma.

125
Q

Modified smooth muscle cells of the afferent arteriole = […]

A

Modified smooth muscle cells of the afferent arteriole = JG cellsHypertrophy/hyperplasia of these cells in chronic renal hypoperfusion

126
Q

[…] is a CCB that is used as a second-line anti-anginal drug.

A

Bepridil is a CCB that is used as a second-line anti-anginal drug.Not indicated for use as an antihypertensive

127
Q

Number needed to harm = 1 / […]

A

Number needed to harm = 1 / Attributable riskAttributable risk = event rate in tx group - event rate in placebo group

128
Q

The majority (90%) of anal fissures occur at the […] of the anal verge.

A

The majority (90%) of anal fissures occur at the posterior midline of the anal verge.Posterior anal canal is relatively poorly perfused, making its mucosa sensitive to trauma by hard fecal masses.Assoc. with low-fiber diets and constipation

129
Q

Cholecystectomy is recommended for those with […] because 11-33% of this patient population will eventually develop galbladder carcinoma.

A

Cholecystectomy is recommended for those with porcelain gallbladders because 11-33% of this patient population will eventually develop galbladder carcinoma.

130
Q

Ethylene glycol is rapidly absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized to glycolic acid, which is toxic to renal tubules, and to […], which precipitates as crystals.

A

Ethylene glycol is rapidly absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized to glycolic acid, which is toxic to renal tubules, and to oxalic acid, which precipitates as crystals.Calcium oxalate crystals

131
Q

Ethylene glycol is rapidly absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized to […], which is toxic to renal tubules, and to oxalic acid, which precipitates as crystals.

A

Ethylene glycol is rapidly absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized to glycolic acid, which is toxic to renal tubules, and to oxalic acid, which precipitates as crystals.Calcium oxalate crystals

132
Q

[…] is currently the major cause of significant mitral regurg in the USA.

A

Myxomatous degeneration is currently the major cause of significant mitral regurg in the USA.(mitral valve prolapse)More likely than rheumatic disease when you have a pt with native valve endocarditis

133
Q

Half life = […]

A

Half life = Vd x 0.7 / CL

134
Q

Loading dose = […]

A

Loading dose = Cpss x Vd / FSame as maintenance dose but with Vd instead of CL

135
Q

In the event of a nuclear accident, […] is given prophylactically to protect the thyoid form excessive accumulation of radioactive 131I.

A

In the event of a nuclear accident, potassium iodide is given prophylactically to protect the thyoid form excessive accumulation of radioactive 131I.Competitive inhibition + Wolff-Chaikoff effect

136
Q

[…] is a sialice acid analogue that competitively inhibits influenza neuraminidase, preventing release of viral progeny.

A

Oseltamivir is a sialice acid analogue that competitively inhibits influenza neuraminidase, preventing release of viral progeny.

137
Q

Inactivated versions of the influenza vaccine function mainly by inducing neutralizing antibodies against the […] antigen.

A

Inactivated versions of the influenza vaccine function mainly by inducing neutralizing antibodies against the hemagglutinin antigen.Abs inhibit binding of hemagglitinin to sialylated receptors on host cell membrane –> prevents live virus endocytosis

138
Q

[…] is the main toxin of C. perfringens.

A

Lecithinase is the main toxin of C. perfringens.aka phospholipase C aka alpha toxin

139
Q

The […] reabsorb >60% of the water filtered by the glomeruli regardless of the patient’s hydration status.

A

The proximal tubules reabsorb >60% of the water filtered by the glomeruli regardless of the patient’s hydration status.

140
Q

Unlike other rRNA molecules, the genes for the […] rRNA are located outside the nucleolus.

A

Unlike other rRNA molecules, the genes for the 5S rRNA are located outside the nucleolus.Made by RNA pol III

141
Q

Decreased activity of bacterial catalase-peroxidase is one mechanism of mycobacterial resistance to […].

A

Decreased activity of bacterial catalase-peroxidase is one mechanism of mycobacterial resistance to isoniazid.

142
Q

[…] is the urea cycle enzyme that makes ornithine.

A

Arginase is the urea cycle enzyme that makes ornithine.Deficiency results in spasticity similar to cerebral palsy

UWorld (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions