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UWorld cheat sheet > UWorld cheat sheet 13-21 (Monday) > Flashcards

UWorld cheat sheet 13-21 (Monday) Flashcards

1
Q

Most important mediator of coronary vascular dilation [Qid: 1516]

A

NO

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2
Q

MC congenital cardiac anomaly ass w/ T21 [Qid: 188]

A

Complete AV canal defect

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3
Q

Hepatic GH stimulations causes activation of what? [Qid: 224]

A

JAK-STAT pathway

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4
Q

Released from the liver following stimulation of hepatic GH receptors [Qid:224]

A

IGF-1

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5
Q

Hormones using JAK-STAT signaling [FA16: 316]

A

PIGGlET:

  • Prolactin
  • Immunomodulators (Cytokines, IL-2, IL-6, IFN)
  • Growth Hormone
  • G-CSF
  • Erythropoietin
  • Thrombopoietin
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6
Q

Fn of IGF-1 [Qid: 224]

A

Binds specific TK recceptors and stimulates growth in bone, cartilage, muscle, etc.

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7
Q

Infl mꬾ in the intima may reduce plaque stability by secreting ____________________, which degrade ____________________. [Qid: 447]

A

metalloproteinases / ECM proteins (eg, collagen)

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8
Q

What is an Aschoff body? Where is it found? What does it contain? [Qid: 240]

A

Interstitial myocardial granulomas (Aschoff bodies) are found in myocarditis due to acute rheumatic fever. They contain plump mꬾ w/ abundant cytoplasm and central, slender ribbons of chromatin (Anitschkow, or caterpillar, cells).

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9
Q

Late-onset food poisoning characterized by transient watery diarrhea caused by a toxin formed when a large quantity of spores are ingested. [Qid: 1394]

A

Clostridium Perfringens

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10
Q

Hemorrhagic cystitis during therapy w/ cyclophosphamide or ifosphamide is caused by the urinary excretion of toxic metabolite _____________________. It can be prevented by aggressive hydration, bladder irrigation and administration of _____________________, a sulfhydryl compound that binds acrolein in the urine. [Qid: 1816]

A

Acrolein / Mesna

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11
Q

Alcohols function by _____________________, causing them to be leaky, and by _____________________. They are bacteriocidal, tuberculocidal, fungicidal, and virucidal, but do not destroy bacterial spores. [Qid: 8593]

A

disorganizing the lipid structure in membranes / denaturing cellular proteins

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12
Q

In LVHF, fluid accumulation causes swelling of affected tissue leading to _____________________ [Qid: 1585]

A

Decreased lung compliance

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13
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome can develop during _____________________ (3) [Qid: 8542]

A

during chemo for cancers w/ rapid cell turnover (eg, poorly differentiated lymphomas/leukemias), ↑ tumor burden or ↑ sensitivity to chemo

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14
Q

Prevention of TLS often involves hydration and the use of ____________________. [Qid: 8542]

A

hypouricemic agents such as allopurinol and rasburicase.

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15
Q 
TLS labs:
- Ca++
- PO4---
- K+
- Uric Acid
[Qid: 8542]
A 
TLS labs:
↓ - Ca++
↑ - PO4-
↑ - K+
↑ - Uric Acid
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16
Q

Northeastern US [Qid: 11524]

A
  • Babesiosis

- Lyme

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17
Q

What would babesiosis show in a blood slide? [Qid: 11524]

A

Maltese cross and ring form inclusions

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18
Q

Tacrolimus and cyclosporine inh ____________________.
Sirolimus inh ____________________
Pathway?
[Qid: 1155]

A

Tacrolimus/Cyclosporine —| Calcineurin.
Sirolimus —| mTOR.
TCR Calcineurin NFAT IL-2 transcription IL-2
IL-2 IL2receptor mTOR Cell proliferation and differentiation.

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19
Q

CD4+ counts

A
  • <50

- Azithromycin

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20
Q 
↓ - Serum glucose
↑ - Urine ketones
↑ - Serum ammonia
↑ - Urine propionic acid
Def of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
S&amp;S: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
[Qid: 1341]
A
  • Methylmalonic academia (AR)
  • Def of methylmalonyl-CoA mutase
  • Lethargy, vomiting and tachypnea in newborn.
  • Diagnosis by ↑ urine methylmalonic acid and propionic acid.
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21
Q 
Major manifestation:
- Acute pancreatitis
Protein defect?
Elevated lipoproteins:
- Chylomicrons
[Qid: 782]
A 
Familial chylomicronemia (Type I)
- lpl, ApoC-II
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22
Q 
Major manifestation:
- Premature CAD
Protein defect?
Elevated lipoproteins:
- LDL
[Qid: 782]
A 
Familial cholesterolemia (Type II A)
- LDL R, ApoB-100
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23
Q 
Major manifestation:
- Premature CAD and peripheral vasc dz
Protein defect?
Elevated lipoproteins:
- Chylomicron and VLDL remnants
[Qid: 782]
A 
Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia (Type III)
- ApoE
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24
Q 
Major manifestation:
- ↑ pancreatitis risk and ass w/ obesity and insulin resistance
Protein defect?
Elevated lipoproteins:
- VLDL
[Qid: 782]
A 
Familial hypertryglyceridemia (Type IV)
- ApoA-V
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25
Q

Central regulator of iron hemostasis [Qid: 787]

A

Hepcidin

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26
Q

Cells that secret a substance that controls iron storage and release [Qid: 787]

A

Hepatic parenchymal cells

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27
Q

____________________ and ____________________ increase the synthesis of hepcidin. ____________________ and ____________________ act to lower hepcidin levels [Qid: 787]

A
  • High iron levels / inflammatory conditions (APR)

- Hpoxia / increased erythropoiesis

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28
Q

NO is synthesized from ____________________ by ____________________. [Qid: 8563]

A
  • Argenine

- NO synthase

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29
Q

Which structure limits the ascent of the horseshoe kidney during fetal development? [Qid: 2]

A

Inferiro mesenteric aa

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30
Q

Retain the carbolfuchsin dye and resist decoloration by an acid-alcohol decolorizing agent. [Qid: 1309]

A

Mycolic acids

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31
Q

Specifically inh the synth of mycolic acids, an essential component of the unique mycobacterial peptidoglycan cell wall. [Qid: 1309]

A

INH

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32
Q

Wide, fixed splitting of the second heart sound that does not change with respiration [Qid: 201]

A

ASD

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33
Q

Peptic ulcers in the distal duodenum [Qid: 305]

A

Z-E S

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34
Q

Gastrinomas located in the small intestine/pancreas [Qid: 305]

A

Z-E S

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35
Q

↑ gastrin levels that rise in response to exogenous secretin administration [Qid: 305]

A

Z-E S

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36
Q

Rare but serious side effect of trazodone is ____________________, T/t for ____________________ [Qid: 707]

A

Priapism / Insomnia

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37
Q

Fracture to the orbital floor causes damage to the ____________________ [Qid: 11742]

A

Infraorbital nn (Maxillary branch)

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38
Q

Primary gastric cancer that metastasizes to the ovary [Qid: 127]

A

Krukenberg tumor

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39
Q

Krukenberg tumor has ____________________ on histology [Qid: 127]

A

Signet ring cells

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40
Q

Peptic ulcers in the distal duodenum [Qid: 305]

A

Z-E S

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41
Q

Ras/MAPK signal transduction pathway is regulated by ____________________. [Qid: 790]

A

GTP

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42
Q

Potent, long-acting opioid agonist with good bioavailability
and can be given in once-daily oral dosing [Qid: 1287]

A

Methadone

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43
Q

CNS tumors from neuronal origin frequently stain positively for ____________________ on immunohistology [Qid: 880]

A

Synaptophysin

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44
Q

CNS tumors from glial origin frequently stain positively for _____________________ on immunohistology [Qid: 880]

A

GFAP

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45
Q

Histones within core and histone outside core [Qid: 1472]

A

Within:
- H2A, H2B, H3, H4
Outside:
- H1

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46
Q

Endomysial mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate and patchy mm fiber necrosis on biopsy w/ anti-Jo-1 (anti-histidyl-tRNA synthetase) autoantibodies. [Qid: 11646]

A

Polymyositis

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47
Q

Prolonged thrombin time [Qid: 2133]

A

Unfractioned heparin & direct thrombin inhibitors

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48
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitors [Qid: 2133]

A
  • Argatroban
  • Bivalirudin
  • Dabigatran (Oral)
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49
Q

Immediately deep to the tip of the left 12th rib [Qid: 1700]

A

Left kidney

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50
Q

Non-expression of the catalase-peroxidase enzyme [Qid: 1223]

A

Mycobacterial resistance to INH

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51
Q

Genetic modification of the binding site on the mycolic acid synthesis enzyme. [Qid: 1223]

A

Mycobacterial resistance to INH

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52
Q

↓ secretion of aqueous humour by ciliary epithelium [Qid: 1363]

A
  • β-blockers (Timolol)
  • α2-AR agonists
  • CAIs (Acetazolamide)
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53
Q

↑ uveoscleral outlow of aqueous humor [Qid: 1363]

A

Prostaglandin F2α agonists:

  • Latanprost
  • Travoprost
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54
Q

↑ trabecular outlow of aqueous humor [Qid: 1363]

A

Cholinomimetics:

  • Pilocarpine
  • Carbachol
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55
Q

Glutamate –> Valine [Qid: 1470]

A

HbS

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56
Q

Glutamate –> Lysine [Qid: 1470]

A

HbC

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57
Q

Which will be closer to the cathode (-) HbS or HbC? [Qid: 1470]

A

HbC

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58
Q

Haemophilus influenzae requires what factors for growth? Can be accomplished in the presence of what other microbe? [Qid: 963]

A
  • H.Flu is a “blood loving” organism that requires X (hematin) and V (NAD+) factors for growth.
  • Staph Aureus
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59
Q

All pts beginning T/t w/ TNF-α inhs should be evaluated for _____________________ due to TNF-α’s ability to _____________________. [Qid: 720]

A

Latent Tb / Impair cell-mediated immunity

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60
Q

High-grade fever, headache, retro-orbital pain, bleeding, diffuse macular rash, muscle and joint pain, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes [Qid: 11395]

A

Dengue viruses (ssRNA virus’ w/ 4 diff serotypes)

  • Primary inf: lifelong immunity against that serotype
  • Secondary inf: if w/ a diff viral serotype, can cause a more severe illness
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61
Q

Hypothermia shift O-dissociation curve to the ____________________ [Qid: 1385]

A

Left

62
Q

Patellar reflex tests ____________________ [Qid: 1692]

A

L4

63
Q

Achilles reflex tests ____________________ [Qid: 1692]

A

S1

64
Q

Vertical diplopia [Qid: 1933]

A

Trochlear nn (eg, stairs)

65
Q

Horizontal diplopia [Qid: 1933]

A

Abducens nn (eg, driving)

66
Q

Main causes of HIV-ass esophagitis [Qid: 283]

A
  • Candida (MC)
  • CMV
  • HSV
67
Q

Patches of adherent, grey/white pseudomembranes on erythematous mucosa. LM –> pseudohyphae [Qid: 283]

A

Candida albicans

68
Q

Small vesicles –> “punched-out” ulcers. Eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions (Cowdry type A) in multinuclear squamous cells at ulcer margins [Qid: 283]

A

HSV-1

69
Q

Linear ulcerations in distal esophagus w/ intranuclear & cytoplasmic inclusions [Qid: 283]

A

CMV

70
Q

Red polysaccharide capsule on mucicarmine stain [Qid: 117]

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

71
Q

What shows in the plasmodium blood slide? [Qid: 1908]

A

Plasmodium falciparum

  • Banana shaped gametocytes
  • Ringed shaped trophozoites
72
Q
  • MCC of rotator cuff syndrome
  • Test to isolate function
    [Qid: 1732]
A
  • Supraspinatus tendinopathy

- Empty can test

73
Q

Left atrial enlargement can sometimes cause ____________________ n impingement. Neurapraxia resulting in left vocal cord paresis and hoarseness may result. [Qid: 236]

A

Left recurrent laryngeal

74
Q

Induces transient breaks in both DNA strands simultaneously to relieve (+) & (-) supercoiling [Qid: 2018]

A

Topoisomerase II

75
Q

____________________ and ____________________ specifically inh topo II’s ability to seal the strand breaks it induces, causing them to accumulate and eventual cell death [Qid: 2018]

A

Etoposide / Podophyllin

76
Q

Inh topo II and T/t for testicular cancer and small cell lung cancer [Qid: 2018]

A

Etoposide

77
Q

Inh topo II and T/t for genital warts [Qid: 2018]

A

Podophyllin

78
Q

Critically ill pts (sepsis, severe burns, trauma, and immunosuppression). Clinical findings: fever, right upper quadrant pain, and leukocytosis. [Qid: 81]

A

Acute acalculous cholecystitis–> acute infl of the gallbladder in the absence of gallstones. Typically occurs in critically ill pts –> due to gallbladder stasis and ischemia.

79
Q

Pt with acute pancreatitis is most likely to have history of what? [Qid: 440]

A

Gallstones or alcholism (Acc for 80%)

80
Q

Pulmonary arterial hypertension follows a 2-hit hypothesis. An abnormal ____________________ gene acts as the first insult and predisposes to excessive ____________________ proliferation. [Qid: 530]

A

BMPR2 / endothelial and sm cell

81
Q

Common sources of arsenic [Qid: 841]

A

Insecticides / Contaminated water

82
Q

Abdominal pain, vomiting, watery diarrhea, hypotension and a garlic odor on the breath [Qid: 841]

A

Arsenic poisoning

83
Q

Chelating agent of choice for arsenic poisoning [Qid: 841]

A

Dimercaprol

84
Q

Persistence in bleeding post-Pringle maneuver indicates ____________________. [Qid: 10583]

A

Injury to the IVC or hepatic veins

85
Q

Pts can develop what secondary condition after inflammatory (eg, celiac) or infectious (eg, giardiasis) processes damage the microvilli of the SI. [Qid: 1072]

A

Secondary lactase def

86
Q

Gram (+) cocci, coagulase (-), novobiocin resistant [Qid: 678]

A

Staph saprophyticus

87
Q

Gram (+) cocci, coagulase (-), novobiocin sensitive [Qid: 678]

A

Staph Epidermitis

88
Q

Sodium channel binding strength among Class 1 antiarrythmics [Qid: 159]

A

1C > 1A > 1B

89
Q

GnRH –> FSH –> Sertoli cells –> Inhibin B –| ____________________. [Qid: 216]

A

FSH

90
Q

Digital clubbing is often ass w/ ____________________. [Qid: 820]

A

Prolonged hypoxia

91
Q

Hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis is caused by PTH-independent formation of ____________________ by ____________________ due to mꬾ expression of ____________________. [Qid: 984/1065]

A

1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D / mꬾ / 1-α-hydroxylase

92
Q

↑ in total thyroid hormone levels, but NL levels of free thyroid hormone can be found what conditions? Due to what? [Qid: 772]

A
  • Preggo/Post-meno estrogen-replacement therapy

- Due to an ↑ in estrogen activity

93
Q

SLE T/t? –> Cushings –> ____________________ (Adrenal change seen) [Qid: 928]

A

Glucocorticoids / Bilateral adrenal atrophy

94
Q

Produced by most human cells in response to viral infections [Qid: 1468]

A

Interferons α & β

95
Q

Interferons α & β bind to type 1 IFN receptors resulting in transcription of antiviral enzymes capable of ____________________. [Qid: 1468]

A

Halting protein synthesis

96
Q

Spliceosomes remove introns containing _____ at the _____ splice site and _____ at the _____ splice site/ [Qid: 2038]

A
  • GU / 5’

- AG/ 3’

97
Q

Supracondylar fracture resulting in anterolateral displacement of the proximal fracture fragment –> ____________________. [Qid: 11855]

A

Radial n inj

98
Q

Supracondylar fracture resulting in anteromedial displacement of the proximal fracture fragment –> ____________________. [Qid: 11855]

A

Median n and brachial a inj

99
Q

Short PR interval, delta wave, widening of QRS [Qid: 11797]

A

WPW syndrome ∆

100
Q

Short PR interval, delta wave, widening of QRS [Qid: 11797]

A

WPW syndrome ∆

101
Q

WPW syndrome is due to… [Qid: 11797]

A

…an accessory pathway that bypasses the AV node and directly connects the atria and ventricles.

102
Q

MC pineal gland tumor [Qid: 1261]

A

Germinomas

103
Q

Obstructive hydrocephalus and upward gaze limitation with downward gaze preference, bilateral eyelid retraction, and light-near dissociation [Qid: 1261]

A

Pineal gland tumor w/ perinaud syndrome

104
Q

Very tender, small, red-blue lesion under the nail bed [Qid: 467]

A

Glomus tumor

105
Q

↑ of what in diet can provide ε for PDH def pt w/out ↑ lactate? [Qid: 998]

A

Lysine and leucine (Exclusively ketogenic AAs)

106
Q
  • ANP is released in response to?
  • ∴ effect on kidney, adrenal and BV?
    [Qid: 1978]
A
  • ↑ blood volume

- limits Na reab and renin secr, restricts ald sercr and relaxes sm in arterioles

107
Q

Neprilysin effect?

Neprilysin inh? [Qid: 1978]

A
  • Degrades ANP/BNP (as well as bradykinin, glucagon, enkephalins)
  • Sacubitril
108
Q

CF w/ eosinophilia and recurrent infiltrates (eventual bronchiectasis) [Qid: 665]

A

ABPA

  • Also in asthmatics
  • Elevated IgE
109
Q

Branching pseudohyphae w/ blastoconidia [Qid: 11633]

A

Candida

110
Q

Central venous catheter and receipt of parenteral nutrition are risk factors for which fungus? [Qid: 11633]

A

Candida

111
Q

Acute-onset confusional state characterized by a fluctuating level of consciousness with deficits in attention, memory, and executive function. [Qid: 2122]

A

Delirium (Reversible)

112
Q

Gradual-onset confusional state with deficits in attention, memory, and executive function [Qid: 2122]

A

Dementia (Irreversible)

113
Q

Allergic symptoms caused by the release of histamine [Qid: 173]

A

Rhinorrhea, itchy eyes and nose, urticaria

114
Q
  • 1st gen antihistamines?
  • Receptor blockade?
    [Qid: 173]
A
  • Chlorpheniramine, Diphenhydramine

- Antihistmine, antimuscurinic, anti-α adrenergic, and anti-serotonergic

115
Q

Benzo MOA?

[Qid: 937]

A
  • Positive allosteric modulation of GABA-A receptors
116
Q

Effects of chronic opioid use?

[Qid: 1257]

A

Tolerance to S/Es except constipation and miosis

117
Q

Drugs that induce hemolytic anemia in G6PD def pts.

A

Pain IN the PRIMARY PYRAMID requires 3 elements (nitro, chlor, sulf)

Pain=ASA, ibuprofen
IN=INH
PRIMARY=primaquine
PYRAMID=pyrimethamine
3 elements=nitrofurantoin, chloramphenicol, sulfonamides
118
Q

What part is always involved in Hirschsprung dz? and why? [Qid: 330]

A

Rectum cuz NC cells migrate caudally

119
Q

Why is there hemolytic anemia in PK def? What results from the hemolytic anemia? [Qid: 1020]

A
  • due to failure of glycolysis and resultant failure to generate ATP to maintain erythrocyte structure
  • Splenic hyperplasia (Red pulp)
120
Q

HSV-1 encephalitis can lead to temporal lobe necrosis resulting in ___________________ & ___________________ in addition to classic features. [Qid: 907]

A

Personality changes / Aphasia

121
Q

CHF due to dilated cardiomyopathy causes ___________________ dysfn. [Qid: 92]

A

Systolic

122
Q

HTN heart Dz –> Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy –> ___________________ dysfn. [Qid: 92]

A

Diastolic

123
Q

Ergot alkaloids?
Nonergot alkaloids?
MOA?
[Qid: 703]

A
  • Bromocriptine
  • Pramipexole, ropinirole
  • Dopamine agonists
124
Q

Where does ADH act in the nephron? [Qid: 1161]

A

Principal cells of the medullary segment of the collecting duct

125
Q

What occurs with an interscalene block? [Qid: 11744]

A
  • Anesthetizes the brachial plexus

- Transient ipsilateral diaphragmatic paralysis due to C3-5 involvement

126
Q

Repetitive or prolonged kneeling resulting in anterior knee pain [Qid: 1491]

A

Prepatellar bursitis

127
Q
  • Pharyngeal arch CN derivations
  • Aortic arch derivatives
    [Qid: 1750]
A

+ 5, 7, 9, 10 (Sup), 10 (Recurrent)

  • 1st arch is MAXimal (Maxillary)
  • Second = Stapedial
  • C is third letter (Carotid)
  • 4th arch = 4 limbs (systemic)
  • 6th = Pulmonary
128
Q

Adenoma-carcinoma sequence

[Qid: 421]

A

APC –> KRAS –> P53

129
Q

Sarcoid granulomas produce ___________________ and ___________________. [Qid: 796]

A

1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol / ACE

130
Q

Predominant type of lymphocyte found in sarcoid granulomas [Qid: 796]

A
  • CD4+ T-helper cells

- ↑CD4/CD8 T-cell ratio in bronchopulmonary lavage fluid

131
Q

Mycoplasma genus (incl Ureaplasma) are resistant to what antibiotics? [Qid: 1677]

A

Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems and vacomycin (No cell wall)

132
Q

β-lactamase, ESBL [Qid: 1000]

A

Penicillin resistance

133
Q

Mutated PBP [Qid: 1000]

A

Penicillin resistance

134
Q

Mutated peptidoglycan wall [Qid: 1000]

A

Vancomycin resistance

135
Q

Mutated DNA gyrase [Qid: 1000]

A

Quinolone resistance

136
Q

____________________-modifying enzymes [Qid: 1000]

A

Aminoglycoside / Aminoglycoside resistance

137
Q

Mutated RNA polymerase [Qid: 1000]

A

Rifamycin resistance

138
Q

Symmetric peripheral neuropathy [Qid: 1046]

A

Dry beriberi (Thiamine def)

139
Q

CHF w/ symmetric peripheral neuropathy [Qid: 1046]

A

Wet beriberi (Thiamine def)

140
Q

Green discoloration of pus or sputum seen in bacterial inf is due to ____________________. [Qid: 1910]

A

presence of MPO

141
Q

Difference in meiotic nondisjunction on RFLP blot [Qid: 8328]

A

Meiosis 1 = 1 band matching the father (NL) & 2 bands matching the mother (AbNL)
Meiosis 2 = 1 band matching the father (NL) & 1 THICKER band matching the mother (AbNL)

142
Q

IF microscopy shows granular deposits of IgG, IgM, and C3 in the mesangium and BMs. [Qid: 8]

A

PSGN

143
Q

Abn huntingtin causes ↑ ____________________, silencing the genes necessary for neuronal survival. [Qid: 840]

A

histone deacetylation

144
Q

Hypoberic hypoxia is the primary cause; it leads to an inc RR w/ development of resp alk. [Qid: 12024]

A

High-altitude sickness

145
Q

Fn of IL-12 [Qid: 762]

A

Stimulates the differentiation of naïve T-cells to TH1 subpopulation

146
Q

Pts def. in IL-12 would be T/t w/ ____________________ because it also stimulates Th1 differentiation. [Qid: 762]

A

IFN-γ

147
Q

Within the true pelvis, ureters lie anterior to the ____________________ and medial to the ____________________. The ____________________ crosses over the anterior surface of the ureter (“water under the bridge”). [Qid: 1804]

A

Internal iliac a / Ovarian vessels / Uterine a

148
Q

Direct indicator of alveolar ventilation status [Qid: 528]

A

Arterial PaCO2 (Hypocapnia implies ongoing alveolar hyperventilation)

149
Q

Glycerol produced by the degradation of TGs in adipose tissue can be used by ____________________ in the liver and kidney to synthesize glucose during gluconeogenesis. [Qid: 1889]

A

Glycerol kinase

150
Q

____________________ oxygen extraction exceeds that of any other tissue in the body. This is met by a proportionate ↑ in ____________________. [Qid: 2009]

A

Myocardial / coronary blood flow (∴ coronary sinus has least O2 content)

UWorld cheat sheet (7 decks)

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