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First Aid > UWorld > Flashcards

UWorld Flashcards

1
Q

Drug classes used to treat BPH

A

5-alpha reductase inhibs (finasteride) and alpha-adrenergic blockers (prazosin), antimuscarinics

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2
Q

What are the humoral and cell components of Type III hypersensitivity?

A

Antibody-antigen complexes, complement; neutrophils

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3
Q

E coli virulence factor in bloody diarrhea

A

Verotoxin (Shiga-like)

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4
Q

What areas is drained by para-aortic nodes?

A

Testes, ovaries, kidneys, uterus

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5
Q

Cofactors of branched chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase, pyruvate dehydrogenase, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrog

A

Thiamine (B1), FAD (B2), NAD (B3), Acetyl CoA (B5), lipoate

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6
Q

Cancer of rectum below dentate metastasizes to

A

Lungs (enters systemic circ thru internal iliac)

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7
Q

What’s in the carpal tunnel?

A

Flexor digitorum profundus tendons, flexor digitorum superficialis tendons, flexor pollicis longus tendon, median nerve

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8
Q

anti-centromere

A

CREST

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9
Q

What rxn is catalyzed by aldose reductase?

A

Glucose to sorbitol (sorbitol accums in DM)

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10
Q

granular muddy brown casts

A

ATN

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11
Q

Triceps reflex

A

C7, C8

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12
Q

Toxic component of lipopolysaccharide

A

Lipid A

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13
Q

Biceps/brachioradialis reflex

A

C5, C6

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14
Q

Howell Jolly bodies

A

Basophilic nuclear remnant in RBCs (should have been removed by spleen). Occurs in sickle cell and post-splenectomy

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15
Q

What enzyme is primarily responsible for NADPH pdtion?

A

G6PD

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16
Q

painless, spontaneous lower GI bleeding in a child

A

Meckel diverticulum

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17
Q

What causes a left shift in O2-hemoglobin curve?

A

Left shift=less O2 to tiss: decr H+ (high pH), decr 2,3 BPG, decr temp

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18
Q

What’s the protein defect with elevated chylomicron and VLDL remnants?

A

ApoE

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19
Q

Intestinal lipase inhibitor used for weight loss

A

orlistat

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20
Q

lung cancer assoc with gynecomastia and galactorrhea

A

large cell carcinoma

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21
Q

cAMP signal pathway

A

lots pituitary: FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, CRH, hCG, ADH, MSH, PTH, calcitonin, GHRH, glucagon, histamine, epinephrine

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22
Q

Lymph node that drains lower rectum to anal canal above pectinate

A

Internal iliac

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23
Q

Infections with catalase positive bugs

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

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24
Q

Ecthyma gangrenosum

A

P aurigonsa

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25
Q

Fetus with limb and craniofacial abnormalities, neural tube defects, abortion

A

MTX

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26
Q

Probenecid MOA

A

Blocks organic anion transporter in kidney to incr conc in serum (penicillin) or urine (urate)

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27
Q

Where’s glucokinase?

A

Beta cells of pancreas and liver

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28
Q

CN for carotid sinus reflex

A

IX in, X out

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29
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome symptoms

A

Hyperthermia, lead pipe rigidity, autonomic instability, altered mental status

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30
Q

Cell types seen in inflammatory diarrhea or dysentery

A

Leukoctyes +/- RBCs

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31
Q

Severe intermittent abdominal pain that presents with currant jelly stool

A

Intussusception

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32
Q

Niacin synth’d from (blank)

A

tryptophan

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33
Q

Drugs that inhibit NF-kB

A

Corticosteroids

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34
Q

What areas are drained by internal iliac nodes?

A

Rectum to anal canal, bladder, vagina, cervix, prostate

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35
Q

Solid, cystic, and calcified mass in brain

A

Craniopharyngioma

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36
Q

bilious emesis, abdominal pain and failure to pass meconium

A

Hirschsprung disease

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37
Q

Passes thru foramen magnum

A

Brainstem, spinal root of CN XI, vertebral arteries

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38
Q

Ketogenic aa’s

A

Leucine and lysine

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39
Q

Screening test for fetal lung maturity

A

Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio (<1.5 predictive of NRDS)

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40
Q

antiandrogen therapy that blocks androgen receptors

A

flutamide, spironolactone

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41
Q

Function of malonyl-CoA

A

Fatty acid synthesis and blocks beta oxidation thru inhib of carnitine acyltransferase

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42
Q

CML translocation and mutation

A

t(9;22); BCR-ABL inhibs apoptosis and promotes tyrosine kinase

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43
Q

waxy casts

A

ESRD

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44
Q

CN in medulla

A

IX, X, XI,, XII

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45
Q

Murmurs heard with handgrip

A

AR, MR, VSD

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46
Q

anti-Smith

A

specific for SLE

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47
Q

Injury to superior gluteal nerve

A

Motor: thigh abduction

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48
Q

Pre-existing recipient antibodies react to donor antigen

A

hyperacute transplant rejection

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49
Q

Type III collagen

A

reticulin–skin, blood vessels, uterus, fetal tiss, gran tiss

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50
Q

bronchiolitis obliterans, accelerated atherosclerosis, chronic graft nephropathy, vanishing bile duct

A

chronic transplant rejection

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51
Q

What are the CV defects associated with with Kartagener?

A

Situs inversus

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52
Q

projection

A

attributing one’s own feelings to others (thinking someone is angry with you when you’re angry with them)

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53
Q

vitamin deficiency with peripheral neuropathy and cardiac involement

A

wet beriberi from thiamine deficiency (wet involves heart)

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54
Q

antiandrogen therapy that blocks conversion of testosterone to DHT at peripheral tissues

A

5-alpha-reductase inhibs eg finasteride

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55
Q

Receptor tyrosine kinase signal pathway

A

MAP kinase growth factors: insulin, IGF-1, FGF, PDGF, EGF

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56
Q

Horizontal nystagmus, abducens palsy, ataxia, encephalopathy

A

Wernicke enceph (damage to mamillary bodies)

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57
Q

Marfinoid body habitus plus intellectual disability and thrombosis

A

Homocystinuria. Cystathione beta synthase mutation leads to buildup and methionine and homocysteine

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58
Q

fatty casts

A

nephrotic syndrome

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59
Q

Injury to tibial nerve

A

Sensory: Bottom of foot to lateral edge; Motor: foot inversion, plantar and toe flexion

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60
Q

Traverses foramen ovale

A

V3

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61
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta mutation

A

Type I collagen

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62
Q

Cyanotic congenital heart disease

A

Tet of Fallot; truncus arteriosus; transposition; tricuspid atresia, total anomalous pulm venous connection

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63
Q

E coli virulence factor in bacteremia and septic shock

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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64
Q

What antibody protects from Giardia?

A

IgA

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65
Q

vasculitis of graft vessels with interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate

A

acute transplant rejection

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66
Q

DNA polymerase with 5’ to 3’ exonucleases activity that excises RNA primers on lagging strand

A

DNA polymerase I

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67
Q

Meds that can cause hyperkalemia

A

Nonselective beta-blockers, ACE-I, ARB, K+ sparing diuretics, Cardiac glycosides, NSAIDs

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68
Q

antimitochondrial Abs

A

PBC

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69
Q

Injury to common peroneal nerve

A

Sensory loss along lateral shin and dorsum of foot; Motor: Foot eversion, dorsiflexion, toe extension

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70
Q

Malrotation of midgut

A

Usually asymptomatic but can lead to ischemia and volvulus

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71
Q

Oxidase positive

A

P aeruginosa, Neisseria, Vibrio, Campylobacter, H pylori, Legionella

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72
Q

Granulomatous inflammation and destruction of intrahepatic, interlobular bile ducts

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

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73
Q

Branches of celiac trunk

A

Common hepatic, splenic, left gastric

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74
Q

Cerebellar ataxia, telangiectasias, incr risk of sinopulmonary infections

A

Ataxia telangiectasia (mutation in gene responsible for DNA break repair)

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75
Q

Dyslipidemia with premature CAD, tendon xanthomas, xanthelasmas

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia. Defect in LDL receptor and ApoB

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76
Q

number needed to treat

A

NNT=1/ARR

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77
Q

Common causes of septic arthritis in sickle cell

A

S aureus, salmonella

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78
Q

Congenital heart dz, dysmorphic facies, hypocalcemia

A

DiGeorge

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79
Q

Halflife equation

A

.7*Vd/Cl

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80
Q

Genitofemoral nerve

A

Sensory: scrotum/labia majora; medial thigh; Motor: cremaster

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81
Q

Biochem processes exclusively in mito

A

Fatty acid oxidation, TCA, gluconeogenesis (pyruvate carboxylation)

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82
Q

Causes of osteomyelitis in sickle cell

A

Staph aureus, Salmonella

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83
Q

Type IV collagen

A

basement memb, basal lamina, lens

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84
Q

Causes of osteomyelitis in IVDU

A

Pseudomonas, candida, S aureus

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85
Q

Bite cells and Heinz bodies

A

G6PD deficiency

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86
Q

Fetus with Ebstein anomaly, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, hypothyroidism

A

lithium

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87
Q

Injury to obturator nerve

A

Sensory loss on inner thigh; Motor: thigh adduction

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88
Q

pyuria without casts

A

acute cystitis

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89
Q

Upward gaze palsy from damage to..

A

Superior colliculus

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90
Q

Acidic aa’s

A

Aspartate, glutamate

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91
Q

Treatment for organophosphate

A

Atropine (antichol) to counteract cholinesterase inhib

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92
Q

nephrotic syndrome in those with hepatitis

A

membranous nephropathy

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93
Q

Pudendal nerve

A

Sensory: perineum and external genitalia; motor: external urethral and anal sphincters

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94
Q

What’s the function of micro RNA?

A

gene silencing and mRNA degradation

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95
Q

Drugs that prevent IL-2 txn

A

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus

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96
Q

Traverses foramen rotundum

A

V2

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97
Q

E coli virulence factor in infant meningitis

A

K1 capsular polysaccharide

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98
Q

Fetus with nasal hypoplasia, stippled epiphysis

A

Warfarin

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99
Q

MOA botulinum toxin

A

cleaves SNARE and blocks exocytosis of ACh NTs

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100
Q

Type II collagen

A

cartilage

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101
Q

lung cancer assoc with Cushing syndrome, Lambert-Eaton, SIADH

A

small cell carcinoma

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102
Q

What’s the protein defect with elevated LDL?

A

LDL receptor, ApoB-100

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103
Q

donor T cells proliferate in immunocompromised host and reject host cells

A

graft vs host disease

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104
Q

What activates Th1? What inhibs Th1?

A

Activate: IL-12, IFN-gamma; Inhib: IL-4, 10

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105
Q

Nutrients that can contribute to serotonin syndrome

A

Tryptophan, omega 3 fatty acids

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106
Q

Hypoketotic hypoglycemia

A

Failure of fatty acid degradation from lack of carnitine or acyl-CoA dehydrog

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107
Q

Cell types seen in watery diarrhea

A

No inflammatory cells, just mucus and sloughed epithelial cells. Enterotoxin which is noninflamm

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108
Q

Enzyme defic in hereditary fructose intolerance

A

Aldolase B

109
Q

Treatment for maple syrup disease

A

Restriction of valine, luceine, isoleucine; supplementation of thiamine

110
Q

What are the CV defects associated with Down Syndrome?

A

Endocardial cushion defects: ASD, VSD, single AV node (ostium primum and regurge)

111
Q

pacemaker rates

A

Fastest to slowest: SA, AV, bundle of his/Purkinje/ventricles

112
Q

precursor of pyrimidine

A

orotic acid

113
Q

E coli virulence factor in watery diarrhea

A

Heat stable/labile enterotoxin

114
Q

Traverses jugular foramen

A

IX,X,XI, jugular vein

115
Q

Arthralgias, skin findings, ACE elevation, hilar lymph nodes

A

Sarcoidosis

116
Q

CN for gag reflex

A

IX in, X out

117
Q

Symptoms of right sided vs left sided colon cancer

A

Right: bleeding and iron defic anemia; Left: obstruction

118
Q

Follicular lymphoma

A

t(14;18); Bcl-2 is antiapoptotic

119
Q

Failure of gut recanalization

A

Duodenal atresia

120
Q

Lymph node that drains foot and calf

A

Popliteal

121
Q

Burkitt lymphoma translocation and mutation

A

t(8;14); c-Myc is transcription activator

122
Q

vasculitis common in patients with hepatitis

A

polyarteritis nodosa

123
Q

What’s the function of small nuclear RNA?

A

mRNA splicing and transciption regulation

124
Q

Drugs that increase coronary vasodilation

A

CCBs (both di and nondi)

125
Q

Type I collagen

A

bone, skin, tendon

126
Q

What are the CV defects associated with DiGeorge?

A

3 Ts: tetrology of Fallot, truncus arteriosus, transposition of great arteries

127
Q

Structures supplied by IMA

A

Distal 1/3 of transverse colon to upper part of rectum

128
Q

Child with Intellectual disability, seizures, hypopigmentation

A

Phenylketonuria

129
Q

cardiac tissue conduction velocity

A

Fastest to slowest: purkinje, atrial muscle, ventricular muscle, av node (mnemonic: park at venture ave)

130
Q

Congenital toxo

A

Chorioretinits, cranial calcifications, hydrocephalus

131
Q

Lateral gaze palsy from damage to

A

Frontal eye fields or abducens nerve in pons

132
Q

Lymph node that drains anal canal below pectinate

A

Superficial inguinal

133
Q

Cancer of rectum above dentate metastasizes to

A

Liver (enters portal circ thru inf mesenteric)

134
Q

Structures supplied by celiac artery

A

Pharynx, lower esophagus to proximal duodenum, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen

135
Q

Enfuvirtide MOA

A

fusion inhib by binding to gp41

136
Q

What’s in the aortic hiatus of diaphragm?

A

aorta, thoracic duct, azygos vein

137
Q

heterophile abs against sheep erythrocytes

A

Mono

138
Q

absolute risk reduction

A

ARR=control rate - treatment rate

139
Q

What are the humoral and cell components of type IV hypersensitivity?

A

No humoral; T cells and macrophages

140
Q

Syringomyelia

A

Bilateral loss of pain and temperature. Occurs in Chiari I malformation

141
Q

What does Th1 release?

A

IL-2, IFN-gamma, TNF-alpha

142
Q

reaction formation

A

doing something that’s the opposite of what you’re feeling

143
Q

RBC casts

A

glomerulonephritis, malignant HTN

144
Q

Precursor of vit A

A

carotene

145
Q

Enzyme that’s deficient in lead poisoning

A

ALA dehydrotase or ferrochelatase

146
Q

Anticholinergic toxicity

A

Hot as a hare, dry as a bone, red as a beet, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, full as a flask (urinary retention), fast as a fiddle (tachycardia)

147
Q

widespread thrombosis of graft

A

hyperacute transplant rejection

148
Q

What antibody binds mast cells and basophils?

A

IgE

149
Q

Albinism, pyogenic infections, progressive neuro dysfunction

A

Chediak-Higashi

150
Q

lung cancer assoc with clubbing and hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

A

adenocarcinoma

151
Q

Iliohypogastric nerve

A

Sensory: suprapubic; motor: abs and obliques

152
Q

drugs that cause arterial dilation and decr afterload

A

dihydropyridines (nifedipine)

153
Q

What are the CV defects associated with Marfan?

A

Aortic dissection and aneurysm, mitral valve prolapse

154
Q

Drugs that prevent response to IL-2

A

Sirolimus

155
Q

frontal bossing, macrocephaly, short arms and legs, midface hypoplasia

A

achondroplasia (FGFR3 mut)

156
Q

Causes of agglute neg mono-like syndromes

A

CMV, HHV-6, HIV, Toxo

157
Q

Bacterial and viral infections in infancy, chronic diarrhea, mucocutaneous candidiasis

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency disorder

158
Q

Porphyria with blistering and photosensitivity

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda; uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

159
Q

IP3 signal pathway

A

GnRH, Oxytocin, ADH, TRH, Histamine, ang II, gastrin

160
Q

sustained, involuntary muscle contractions

A

dystonia

161
Q

CN for pupillary light reflex

A

II in, III out

162
Q

IgM against Fc portion of IgG

A

Rheumatoid factor

163
Q

CN in midbrain

A

III, IV

164
Q

cGMP signal pathway

A

vasodilators: ANP, BNP, EDRF (NO)

165
Q

Where’s hexokinase?

A

Most tiss (not liver or pancreas)

166
Q

Enzyme that’s deficient in sideroblastic anemia

A

ALA synthase

167
Q

Drug that inhibits pancreatic enzymes needed to digest complex carbs

A

Acarbose

168
Q

What enzyme is deficient in homocystinuria and what builds up?

A

Defic of cystathione beta-synthase leads to high levels of homocysteine and methionine

169
Q

Patellar reflex

A

L3, L4

170
Q

Horizontal gaze center in

A

pons

171
Q

Newborn with hyperammonemia

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase defic is most common. Presents with high orotic acid and low citrulline. Carbamoyl phos synthetase defic results in low orotic and citrulline

172
Q

drugs that decrease HR

A

beta blockers and nondihydropyridines (verap and dilti)

173
Q

Causes of myopathy with increased creatine kinase

A

Autoimmune (polymyositis), musc dystrophy, hypothyroid, statins

174
Q

What’s in the esophageal hiatus of diaphragm?

A

Esoph, vagus nerve, left gastric artery

175
Q

What are the humoral and cell components of Type II hypersensitivity?

A

IgG, IgM and complement; NK cells, eos, neutrophils, macrophages

176
Q

Glutamate is precursor of (2)

A

GABA, glutathione

177
Q

Phosphorylation of mannose residues in Golgi send prot to…

A

lysosome

178
Q

Difficulty swallowing, speaking and blurred vision

A

C botulinum

179
Q

Murmurs that decrease with squatting and passive leg raise

A

MVP and HCM

180
Q

Molecule necessary for glutathione antioxidant mech

A

NADPH

181
Q

What’s the only way for more oxygen to be delivered to the heart?

A

increase coronary blood flow

182
Q

E coli virulence factor in UTIs

A

P fimbriae

183
Q

Alport syndrome and Goodpasture mutation/autoab

A

Type IV collagen

184
Q

Bacterial component that aids in attachment to epithelium

A

Pili

185
Q

Traverses foramen spinosum

A

Middle meningeal artery and vein

186
Q

What are the CV defects associated with turners?

A

Aortic coarctation, bicuspid aortic valve

187
Q

Fetus with renal dysgenesis, oligohydramnios

A

ACE-I

188
Q

CN for vestibulo-ocular reflex

A

VIII in; III, IV, VI out

189
Q

Ehlers-Danols mutation

A

Type III collagen

190
Q

Schistocytes

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia: DIC, TTP/HUS, HELLP, mechanical trauma

191
Q

relative risk reduction

A

RRR=ARR/control rate

192
Q

CN for cough reflex

A

X in, X out

193
Q

Enzyme defic in essential fructosuria

A

Fructokinase (excess fructose metab’d by hexokinase)

194
Q

hyaline casts

A

nonspecific

195
Q

What’s the protein defect with elevated chylomicrons?

A

Lipoprotein lipase, ApoC-2

196
Q

What recognizes toll-like receptors and PAMPS?

A

Cells of innate immunity

197
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma translocation and mutation

A

t(11;14); cyclin D1 promotes G1 to S

198
Q

Injury to inferior gluteal nerve

A

Motor: thigh extension

199
Q

nephrotic syndrome in those with HIV or heroin use or sickle cess

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

200
Q

Neonatal hypotonia, hyperphagia, obesity, hypogonadism

A

Prader-Willi (loss of paternal allele)

201
Q

Antiandrogen therapy that lowers testosterone synthesis

A

Leuprolide (GnRH agonist that suppresses LH when given continuously) and ketoconazole

202
Q

Histidine is precursor of

A

histamine

203
Q

Treatment for jinsonweed

A

Physiostigmine or other cholinesterase inhib to counteract antichol toxicity

204
Q

What are the humoral and cell types in Type I hypersensitivity?

A

IgE; mast cells and basophils

205
Q

Drugs that cause venodilation and decr preload

A

Nitrates

206
Q

flailing of arm or leg

A

hemiballismus from lesion of CL subthal nucleus

207
Q

Brown-Sequard (hemisection)

A

Lose all sensation at level of lesion, then IL dorsal column and CL spinothalamic. IL LMN signs at level of lesion, IL UMN signs below

208
Q

Failure of extraembryonic gut to return to abdomen cavity

A

Omphalocele (covered by thin memb) or gastroschisis (not covered)

209
Q

CD8+T cells against donor MHCs and development of antibodies

A

acute transplant rejection

210
Q

sudden, brief, uncontrolled muscle contraction

A

myoclonus

211
Q

Virulence factor that inhibits phagocytosis and complement activation

A

Protein M (S pyogenes)

212
Q

epilepsy/seizures, ataxia, inappropriate laughter

A

Angelman (loss of maternal allele)

213
Q

Porphyria with painful abdomen and port wine urine and polyneurophaty

A

Acute intermittent porphyria; porphobilinogen deaminase

214
Q

CN in pons

A

V, VI, VII, VIII

215
Q

Murmurs that decrease with handgrip

A

HCM and AS

216
Q

Glycine is precursor of

A

prophyrin then heme

217
Q

maculopapular rash, jaundice, diarrhea, hepatosplenomegaly

A

graft vs host disease

218
Q

What activates and inhibs Th2?

A

Activate: IL-2,4; Inhib: IFN-gamma

219
Q

WPW triad

A

short PR, wide QRS, delta wave

220
Q

CN for corneal reflex

A

V1 in, VII out

221
Q

Basic aa’s

A

histidine, lysine, arginine (his lyes are basic)

222
Q

What causes a right shift in O2-Hb curve?

A

Right shift=more O2 to tiss: incr H+ (low pH), incr 2,3-BPG, incr temp

223
Q

Biochem processes exclusively in cyto

A

Glycolysis, fatty acid synth, pentose phosphate

224
Q

Intracell receptor signal pathway

A

Progesterone, estrogen, testosterone, cortisol, aldosterone, t3/t4, vitamin D

225
Q

What enzyme is deficient in galactosemia?

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase

226
Q

What areas are drained by superficial inguinal nodes?

A

Anal canal, skin below umbilicus, scrotum, vulva

227
Q

WBC casts

A

pyelonephritis, inflammation, transplant rejection

228
Q

precursor of tyrosine

A

phenylalanine

229
Q

Achilles/ankle reflex

A

S1, S2

230
Q

G6PD precipitating factors

A

Infection, drugs (TMP-SMX, dapsone, antimalarials), DKA, fava beans

231
Q

Fetus with neural tube defects, orofacial clefts, microcephaly, nail/digit hypoplasia

A

phenytoin, valproate (just tube defects)

232
Q

lung cancer most common in women and nonsmokers

A

adenocarcinoma

233
Q

Inflammation and onion skin fibrosis of large bile ducts and obstruction of small ducts

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

234
Q

MOA tetanus toxin

A

cleaves SNARE in inhibitory interneuron preventing release of GABA and glycine NTs

235
Q

Arginine is the precursor of

A

nitric oxide, urea, ornithine, creatine

236
Q

What enzymes can’t be broken down in maple syrup dz?

A

Leucine, isoleucine, valine (branched chain aa’s)

237
Q

Structures supplied by SMA

A

Distal duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon

238
Q

CD4+T cells respond to recipient APCs

A

chronic transplant rejection

239
Q

Murmurs heard during valsalva and abrupt standing

A

MVP and HCM

240
Q

Target cell

A

HALT: Hb C, asplenia, liver disease, thalassemia

241
Q

Dyslipidemia with acute pancreatitis, skin xanthomas, and hepatosplenomegaly

A

Familial chylomicronemia. Defect in LPL and ApoC

242
Q

What are the CV defects associated with tuberous sclerosis?

A

valvular obstruction due to cardiac rhabdomyomas

243
Q

Zinc-containing enzyme that degrades basement membrane and ECM

A

Metalloproteinase (proteolytic enzyme)

244
Q

Disorder that causes black urine and can progress to arthritis (and pathophys)

A

Alkaptonuria. Mutation in homogentistic acid dehydrogenase which breaks down phenylalnine and tyrosine

245
Q

Maraviroc

A

Inhibs viral entry by blocking gp120–CCR5

246
Q

Cremasteric reflex

A

L1, L2

247
Q

Serotonin syndrome symptoms

A

Hyperthermia, hyperreflexia, shivering, clonus, autonomic instability, altered mental status

248
Q

Syndromes/cancers with mutation of DNA repair enzymes

A

Breast (BRCA), ovarian cancer, Lynch, xeroderma pigmentosum, Fanconi anemia

249
Q

restlessness and urge to move

A

akithisia

250
Q

relative risk

A

RR=treatment rate/control rate

251
Q

Elevated alkaline phosphate

A

Hepatobiliary disease and elevated osteoblastic activity

252
Q

Common causes of septic arthritis

A

S aureus, strep, N gonorrhea

253
Q

CN for jaw-jerk reflex

A

V3 in, V3 out

254
Q

formation of fibrous Ladd bands

A

malrotation of gut

255
Q

Fetus with microcephaly, thymic hypoplasia, small ears, hydrocephalus

A

Isotretinoin

256
Q

hematuria without casts

A

cancer, stones

257
Q

Fetus with mental retardation, microcephaly, smooth philtrum, thin vermillion border, limb dislocation, heart defects

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

258
Q

Spherocyte

A

Spherocytosis, drug/infection induced hemolytic anemia

259
Q

Tryptophan is precursor of (2)

A

Niacin, serotonin

260
Q

lung cancer assoc with hypercalcemia

A

squamous cell carcinoma

261
Q

ilioinguinal nerve

A

runs with spermatic cord; sensory to upper and medial thigh and external genitalia

262
Q

Nonreceptor tyrosine kinase signal pathway

A

JAK/STAT: prolactin, immunomodulators (cytokines), GH, G-CSF, erythropoietin, thrombopoietin

263
Q

sublimation

A

channeling impulses into socially acceptable manner

264
Q

What are the CV defects associated with Friedreich ataxia?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

265
Q

What antibody is released into secretions and breast milk?

A

IgA

266
Q

anti-dsDNA

A

specific for SLE

267
Q

Injury to femoral nerve

A

Sensory loss from inner thigh down to ankle; Motor: thigh flexion, leg extension

268
Q

anti-ANA

A

sensitive but not specific for SLE; also in pts with other conn tiss disorders

First Aid (5 decks)

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