UWorld Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are the commonly used first-line mood stabilizers for bipolar maintenance?

A
  • Lithium

- Valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Long term lithium therapy can adversely affect what organs?

A
  • Kidneys

- Thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What drug is preferred in bipolar maintenance treatment in patients with renal dysfunction?

A

Valproate due to the potential nephrotoxic effects of lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Patients with a single episode of major depressive disorder who respond to acute treatment should continue antidepressant treatment for how long?

A

an additional 4-9 months (Continuation phase treatment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Maintenance phase treatment is defined as continuing antidepressant medication past the initial continuation phase treatment. How long is this and who is it appropriate for?

A
  • 1-3 years
  • Patients with a hx of multiple episodes (recurrent major depressive disorder)
  • Chronic episodes (>/= 2 years)
  • Strong family history
  • or severe episodes (e.g. suicide attempt)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who should continue maintenance therapy with an antidepressant indefinitely?

A

-Pts with a hx of highly recurrent (e.g. >/=3 lifetime episodes) and very severe, chronic major depressive episodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

time frame for adjustment disorder

A

-within 3 months of an identifiable stressor and lasting no longer than 6 months once the stressor ceases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

time frame for generalized anxiety disorder

A

> /= 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the first line medications treatment for social anxiety disorder

A

SSRIs and SNRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Contraindications for lithium therapy

A
  • Chronic kidney disease
  • Heart disease
  • Hyponatremia or diuretic use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the baseline studies that need to be done with Lithium therapy

A
  • BUN
  • creatinine
  • calcium
  • urinalysis
  • Thyroid function tests
  • ECG in patients with coronary risk factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drugs increase lithium levels?

A
  • Thiazide diuretics
  • NSAIDs, except aspirin
  • ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers
  • Antibiotics (e.g. tetracycline, metronidazole)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What drugs may either increase or decrease lithium levels?

A
  • Loop diuretics (e.g. furosemide)

- Calcium channel blockers (e.g. verapamil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What drugs decrease lithium levels

A
  • potassium-sparing diuretics

- Theophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is first-line treatment for specific phobia

A

Behavioral therapy, which involves exposure to the phobic stimulus in a controlled setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A history of psychosis together with thrombocytopenia, hematuria, and proteinuria is concerning for what?

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What should be ruled out in sudden onset psychosis in a child or adolescent

A
  • SLE
  • thyroiditis
  • Metabolic or electrolyte disorders
  • CNS infection
  • Epilepsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What medications are commonly used in the treatment of acute bipolar depression

A
  • The 2nd Gen antipsychotics quetiapine and lurasidone
  • Lamotrigine
  • Lithium, valproate, and a combo of olanzapine and fluoxetine have also demonstrated efficacy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which medication out of Acetaminophen, Lithium, Lorazepam, Risperidone, and Sertraline could cause new onset of severe GI symptoms, confusion, ataxia, and tremor?

A

Lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the greatest risk for suicide

A

history of suicide attempts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the therapeutic range of Lithium?

A

.6-1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Common lab findings in NMS

A
  • elevated CK

- leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a serotonin antagonist that has been used to treat severe cases of serotonin syndrome

A

-Cyproheptadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the treatment for acute dystonia?

A

-Benztropine or diphenhydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

treatment for akathisia

A

-Beta blocker (propanolol) or Benzodizepine (lorazepam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

treatment for parkinsonism

A

Benztropine or amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

treatment for tardive dyskinesia

A

no definitive treatment but clozapine may help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The pathophysiology of Tardive Dyskinesia is thought to involve what?

A

D2 receptor upregulation and supersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diagnostic criteria for narcolepsy

A
  • Recurrent lapses into sleep or naps (minimum 3 times per week for 3 months)
  • At least 1 of the following: 1) Cataplexy: brief loss of muscle tone precipitated by strong emotion (e.g. laughter, excitement). 2) Low CSF levels of hypocretin-1. 3) Shortened REM sleep latency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the associated features of Narcolepsy

A
  • Hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations

- Sleep paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe the management of Gender Dysphoria

A
  • support; psychotherapy (individual, family)
  • Hormone therapy
  • Gender-reassignment surgery (typically only >/= 18)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Abrupt cessation of alprazolam, a short-acting benzodiazepine, is associated with what?

A

significant withdrawal symptoms, including generalized seizures and confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What should happen if there is any concern about autism spectrum disorder

A

Thorough screening and evaluation should be undertaken and educational/behavioral services offered as soon as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Maintenance treatment of Bipolar disorder typically involves continuation of mood stabilizers used to treat the acute mood episode. What are the evidence based options?

A
  • Lithium
  • Valproate
  • Quetiapine
  • Lamotrigine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe the sleep pattern consistent with normal aging

A
  • decreased total sleep time
  • peak sleepiness earlier in evening
  • nocturnal awakenings
  • reduced sleep during early morning hours
  • daytime napping/reduced daytime sleep latency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the BMI cutoff for Anorexia Nervosa

A

<18.5

37
Q

Treatment for Anorexia nervosa

A
  • CBT
  • nutritional rehabilitation
  • Olanzapine for severe cases
38
Q

What effect of TCA overdose is the best predictor of complications?

A

QRS duration

39
Q

What QRS duration in TCA overdose has been associated with an increased risk of arrhythmias and/or seizures ad is an indication for treatment with sodium bicarb?

A

> 100 msec

40
Q

Survivors of sexual assault are at high risk for developing what?

A
  • PTSD
  • depression
  • suicidality
41
Q

onset and duration of postpartum blues

A
  • onset 2-3 days after birth

- resolves within 14 days

42
Q

onset of postpartum depression

A

within 4 weeks

43
Q

What is the treatment of catatonia

A

-Benzodiazepines and/or ECT

44
Q

The acute onset of headache following a meal in a pt treated with phenelzine raises concern for what

A

hypertensive crisis

45
Q

Several biomarkers used in screening for unhealthy alcohol use include what?

A
  • AST:ALT ratio of at least 2:1
  • elevated GGT
  • macrocytosis
  • pancytopenia
  • increased carbohydrate-deficient transferrin
46
Q

Neuroimaging of the brain in a schizophrenic typically shows what?

A

-loss of cortical tissue volume with ventricular enlargement with lateral ventricular enlargement being the most widely replicated finding

47
Q

Describe the difference between naltrexone and Acamprosate

A
  • Naltrexone can be initiated while the patient is still drinking
  • Acamprosate, a glutamate modulator, is another first-line medication for alcohol dependence. It is initiated once abstinence is achieved and is used to maintain abstinence rather than to reduce drinking in nonabstinent patients
48
Q

Treatment for Hoarding disorder

A

CBT

49
Q

What is first line treatment for obsessive compulsive disorder

A

-exposure and response prevention (a type of CBT) and/or an SSRI

50
Q

If signs such as bradycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression and hyporeflexia are seen, co-ingestion of what with benzos should be suspected

A

other sedative hypnotics, the most common being alcohol

51
Q

what is first line pharmacotherapy for narcolepsy

A

-Modafinil, a nonamphetamine medication that promotes wakefulness

52
Q

When antipsychotic dose reduction is not possible due to risk of worsening psychosis, how is Tardive Dyskinesia best managed?

A

switching to clozapine

53
Q

Time frame for acute stress disorder

A

from 3 days to 1 month

54
Q

If a patient presents with acute mania and is exhibiting acute psychosis and escalating agitation what would be the preferred treatment

A

Risperidone due to more rapid onset of actions

-Lithium, Valproate, and carbamazepine would be ineffective in managing the patient’s psychosis and agitation acutely

55
Q

Augmentation with this drug is an option for treatment of patients with depression with partial response to selective SSRIs. It has activating effects and a favorable side effect profile (no weight gain or sexual side effects), making it a good choice for patients who are on SSRI therapy but have fatigue, weight gain, or a hx or sexual side effect

A

Bupropion

56
Q

MOS of Bupropion

A

norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor

57
Q

This is a first-line treatment for panic disorder and agoraphobia. It can be used alone or in combo with antidepressants (SSRIs) to help target avoidance behavior

A

CBT

58
Q

Most antidepressants should be discontinued 2 weeks before beginning an MAOI to avoid serotonin syndrome or hypertensive crisis. However, which SSRI has a relatively longer half-life than other antidepressant and must be stopped 5 weeks before initiating an MAOI

A

Fluoxetine

59
Q

A hypertensive crisis may occur in patients who consume foods rich in the sympathomimetic substance tyramine while taking an MAOI. What are the prohibited foods

A
  • Aged cheeses

- Aged, smoked, pickled, or cured meats/fish/poultry

60
Q

What symptoms of Serotonin syndrome are unlikely to be seen in Hypertensive crisis from a food-drug interaction

A
  • Dilated pupils
  • Hyperreflexia
  • Hyperthermia
61
Q

What are signs of anorexia nervosa other than BMI < 18.5 and distorted body image

A
  • dry skin
  • brittle hair and nails
  • cold intolerance
  • bradycardia
  • Patients who induce vomiting may have haypokalemia and/or calluses on dorsum of their hands
62
Q

What are the indications for hospitalization in Anorexia nervosa

A
  • Bradycardia (< 40/min), dysrhythmia
  • Hypotension (< 80/60) orthostasis
  • Hypothermia (< 35C)
  • Electrolyte disturbance, marked dehydration
  • Organ compromise (renal, hepatic, cardiac)
  • < 70% expected weight (BMI < 15)
63
Q

bupropion is contraindicated for use in eating disorders due to an increased risk of what?

A

Seizures

64
Q

Describe antidepressant discontinuation syndrome

A
  • sudden onset of dysphoria
  • fatigue
  • insomnia
  • myalgia
  • dizziness
  • flu-like and GI symptoms
  • tremor
  • neurosensory disturbances
65
Q

Symptoms of antidepressant discontinuation syndrome begin within 2-4 days of medication being abruptly stopped or rapidly tapered. What factors are associated with more severe symptoms

A
  • Shorter half life (eg, paroxetine, venlafaxine)
  • higher doses
  • longer duration
66
Q

What is the best approach to manage antidepressant discontinuation syndrome

A

re-institute the same antidepressant and taper the dose gradually over 2-4 weeks
-or substitute fluoxetine, which is more easily tapered due to its long half-life

67
Q

The anticonvulsant lamotrigine is used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder and is often used specifically to targer bipolar depression. One of the most significant side effects of lamotrigine is waht?

A
  • drug rash, a mild form of which occurs in up to 10% of those treated
  • The more severe mucocutaneous rashes of Stevens-Johsons syndrome and TEN are more rare
68
Q

Management of lamotrigine induced rash

A

Because of the challenge of predicting the eventual severity, it should be discontinued at the first sign of rash and substituted with another agents

69
Q

Describe the relationship of Major depressive disorder to cortisol levels

A

-Hyperactivity of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, results in increased cortisol levels

70
Q

Hippocampal and frontal lobe volumes in Depression

A

decreased

71
Q

REM sleep latency and slow wave sleep in depression

A

decreased

72
Q

What psych dx? abnormalities in cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical circuits

A

Obsessive compulsive disorder

73
Q

What psych dx? Increased sensitivity to lactate infusion

A

panic attacks

74
Q

Hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis in Anorexia nervosa

A

Suppression leads to decreased GnRH and LH, with resultant amenorrhea and infertility

75
Q

physical heart finding in anorexia nervosa

A

Cardiac hypertrophy

76
Q

bone finding in anorexia nervosa

A

Osteopenia

77
Q

When prescribing opioids, what measures can be taken to reduce the risk of opioid misuse

A
  • Checking the prescription drug-monitoring program data for undisclosed co-prescriptions
  • Performing RANDOM urine drug screens
  • scheduling frequent follow up visit . . .at least every 3 months
78
Q

Treatment of dissociative identity disorder

A

long-term, trauma-focused psychotherapy

79
Q

Treatment of Oppositional defiant disorder

A
  • Parent management training
  • Psychotherapy (anger management, social skills training)
  • No pharmacotherapy for ODD but assess for comorbid ADHD & treat if present
80
Q

Abrupt discontinuation of a benzo can results in a petentially life-threatening withdrawal syndrome, characterized by what?
Related this to patients who also have anxiety disorders?

A
  • anxiety, insomnia, tremors, psychosis, seizures

- Mild withdrawal may be difficult to distinguish from reemergence of the underlying disorder

81
Q

Stimulant medication is a first line treatment for most adults with ADHD. What is preferred in patients with a hx of substance use disorder to avoid the risks of drug misuse and addiction

A

Nonstimulant Atomoxetine

82
Q

Dementia with Lewy bodies prestns with dementia plus 2 or more of the following features: visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, fluctuating cognition, and REM sleep behavior disorder. Parkinson disease dementia and Dementia with lewy bodies share similar pathology and clinical features. Howevere, they can be differentiated based on course. Describe this

A
  • PDD is diagnosed when parkinsonism predates cognitive impairment by > 1 year
  • DLB: cognitive impairment would develop before or at the same time as parkinsonism
83
Q

Patients with bulimia nervosa have some symptoms consistent with hypothyroidism (eg, weight gain, low energy, dry skin) but lack what other signs of the disorder?

A
  • Bradycardia
  • Slowed deep tendon relaxation
  • Diastolic HTN
84
Q

Most healthy adults can safely consume how much caffeine daily?

A

<400 mg

85
Q

Pediatric depression often presents with symptoms of what rather than depressed mood

A

irritability

86
Q

Pharmacotherapy is effective for pediatric depression, and evidence shows that SSRIs are most effects. Among the SSRIs, what is considered the medication of choice based on several meta-analysis

A

Fluoxetine

87
Q

Among the psychotropic med, what is most commonly associated with hepatotoxicity

A

Valproate

88
Q

In addition to hepatotoxicity, Valproate is also associated with what side effects?

A
  • tremor
  • thrombocytopenia
  • alopecia
89
Q

This low-potency antipsychotic has been associated with cholestatic jaundice

A

Chlorpomazine