UWorld 1st time incorrects Flashcards

1
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

can cause paroxysmal hypertension and is a tumor of the adrenal medulla (derived from neural crest cells)

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2
Q

neural crest gives rise to

A
  1. sensory neurons of spinal and cranial nerves
  2. autonomic postganglionic neurons
  3. melanocytes
  4. leptomeninges (arachnoid and pia mater)
  5. cartilage, ligaments, and bones of branchial arch origin
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3
Q

endoderm gives rise to

A
  1. Epithelial linining of GI and respiratory tracts
  2. thyroid and parathyroid glands
  3. thymus
  4. liver and gall bladder epithelium
  5. pancreas
  6. epithelial lining of urinary bladder and urethra
  7. epithelial lining of tympanic cavity and auditory tube
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4
Q

mesoderm gives rise to

A
  1. adrenal cortex (not medulla)
  2. connective tissue
  3. cartilage
  4. bone
  5. muscle
  6. blood cells and blood and lymph vessels
  7. spleen
  8. kidneys
  9. gonads
  10. serous membranes of lining body cavities
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5
Q

neuroectoderm gives rise to

A
  1. central nervous system
  2. somatic motor neurons of spinal and cranial nerves
  3. preganglionic autonomic neurons
  4. posterior pituitary
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6
Q

surface ectoderm gives rise to

A
  1. epidermis of the skin
  2. hair, nails, sweat and sebaceous glands
  3. parotid gland
  4. anterior pituitary (Rathke’s pouch)
  5. lens of the eye
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7
Q

notochord gives rise to

A

nucleus pulposus

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8
Q

Hirschsprung disease

A

congenital cause of constipation

  • absence of ganglion cells in submucosal and myenteric plexuses of colon segment
  • due to neural crest migration defect
  • lack of peristalsis here
  • distal rectum always involved
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9
Q

greater sciatic foramen

A

occupied by piriformis muscle
-superior gluteal nerve, artery, and vein exit through the greater sciatic foramen above piriformis muscle (major hip abductors lie here)

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10
Q

lots of fractured bones and bluish tinge to sclerae leads to what likely finding

A
  • osteogenesis imperfecta
  • AD collagen type 1 defect
  • impaired osteoid production by osteoblasts
  • decreased production of normal type 1 collagen
  • example of pleiotropy (multiple often seemingly unrelated physical effects caused by a single genotype)
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11
Q

duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

x-linked recessive disorder caused by dystophin mutations

complication includes cardiomyopathy

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12
Q

patients with nonallergic bronchospastic conditions (emphysema and chronic bronchitis)are not prescribed what

A

non-selective beta blockers (ex: metoprolol) due to bronchoconstriction

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13
Q

beta blockers and pts with chronic respiratory disorders

A
  • not recommended

- if they must be prescribed then use a beta1 selective blockers should be used (like metoprolol)

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14
Q

foul-smelling putrid rust colored sputum mixed in aspiration is seen with…

A

aspiration pneumonia caused by bacteroides species

  • less likely but still possible is strep pneumo
  • lung abscess usually occur in individuals with episodes of impaired consciousness (alcohol/drug abuse, dementia) or decreased ability to swallow (esophageal strictures)
  • generally caused by aspiration of anaerobic and aerobic bacteria from oral cavity into the lower respiratory tract
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15
Q

which NSAID contains sulfa in it

A

celecoxib (selective COX2 inhibitor)

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16
Q

mixed connective tissue disease

A

autoimmune condition
high antibody titers to U1-ribonucleoprotein

  • joint pain
  • myalgias
  • pleurisy
  • esophageal dysmotility
  • raynauds phenomenon
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17
Q

primary toxic agent in lipopolysaccharide in gram-negative organisms

A

lipid A (also causes septic shock)

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18
Q

what should be cut to relieve pressure in a patient with carpal tunnel?

A

flexor retinaculum (aka. transverse carpal ligament) –> compresses the median nerve

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19
Q

as part of an intake the patient should always be asked…

A

about advanced directives including the patients end of life care

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20
Q

Fragile X symptoms

A

x-linked (LOF)
long narrow face, prominent forehead and chin, large testes, hyperlaxity of joints, developmental delay (speech and motor), and neuropsychiatric features

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21
Q

klinefelter syndrome

A

47, XXY

  • primary hypogonadism (low testosterone, elevated FSH and LH, elevated estradiol)
  • tall stature, gynecomastia, small testes (often undescended), and infertility
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22
Q

analysis of variance (ANOVA)

A

used to determine whether there are any significant differences between the means of several independent groups

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23
Q

spironolactone

A

aldosterone antagonist

-anti-androgenic effects: gynecomastia

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24
Q

most cardiac venous blood drains into the right atrium via the…

A

coronary sinus
-anything that causes right atrial pressure to increase (like pulmonary hypertension) will also cause the coronary sinus to dilate

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25
Q

interstitial lung disease (restrictive pulmonary) causes

A

airway widening due to increased outward pulling (radial traction) by the surrounding fibrotic tissue

-radial traction is increased in restrictive pulmonary disease

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26
Q

what happens to the following 3 in isolated diastolic heart failure

  1. LV end-diastolic pressure
  2. LV end-diastolic volume
  3. LV ejection fraction
A
  1. Increased
  2. Normal
  3. Normal

*Conditions that reduce ventricular compliance lead to increased LV end-diastolic pressures and the same LVED volumes (upward shift in PV curve)

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27
Q

early group A strep pharyngitis treatment

A

penicillin – early treatment is good

-prevents acute rheumatic fever and can cause CV death

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28
Q

what three enzymes can act on pyruvate

A
  1. lactate dehydrogenase (anaerobic)
  2. pyruvate dehydrogenase (aerobic)
  3. pyruvate carboxylase–> to form oxaloacetate which is used to regenerate glucose via gluconeogenesis
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29
Q

what would a chest stab wound hit if its in the lateral fifth intercostal space

A

left lung

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30
Q

what would a left stab wound to the anterior chest wall hit?

A

right ventricle

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31
Q

drug-induced lupus erythematosus

A
  • can be due to hydralazine, procainamide, quinidine, minocycline and isoniazid (metabolized via phase II liver acetylation)
  • anti-histone antibodies, arthralgias, and pleuritic chest pain
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32
Q

lateral medullary (wallenberg) syndrome

A

PICA injury/obstruction which is a branch off the vertebral artery

usually due to acute ischemia (due to trauma) in a vertebral artery branch presenting with ataxia (fall toward side of lesion), loss of pain/temp on ipsi face and contra body

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33
Q

leprosy (hansen disease)

A

deforming infection primarily of skin and nerves (infect schwann cells) caused by Mycobacterium leprae

  • usually via armadillo
  • tuberculoid leprosy is least severe form and usually self-limited
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34
Q

amiodarone

A
  • class III antiarrhythmic drug
  • potassium channel blockers
  • prolongs QT
  • LOW risk of TDP
  • must start by checking TSH then continue to check it while they are on the drug
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35
Q

pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

A
  • necessary for transamination and decarboxylation of amino acids (used in gluconeogenesis)
  • nitrogen involved
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36
Q

nystatin

A

drug used for oral thrush (candida fungi)

  • note neutrophils typically prevent hematogenous spread of candida (you will see BOTH pseudohyphae and budding yeast)
  • t lymphocytes prevent superficial candida infection
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37
Q

dexamethasone

A

positive impact on fetal survival

  • corticosteroids have the greatest effect on increasing surfactant production by accelerating maturation of type II pneumocytes (note that surfactant is stored in the lamellar bodies–> organelles containing parallel stacks of membrane lamellae)
  • as surfactant is degraded it is recycled back into the same type II pneumocytes via endocytosis for reprocessing
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38
Q

diabetic nephropathy

A
  • earliest test for it is to see albumin in the urine
  • can be manifested as a diffuse or nodular glomeruloscerlosis (aka. Kimmelstiel-Wilson)
  • KW–> characterized by PAS+ deposits (hyaline) of mesangial matrix, thickened basement membranes, and nephrotic syndrome
  • ovoid hyaline masses in the periphery of the glomerulus
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39
Q

Respiratory vs metabolic acid/alkylosis

A
respiratory 40 (increase, decrease)
metabolic 24 (decrease, increase)
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40
Q

how to treat acute cholecystitis

A

third-generation cephalosporin (cefotaxime or ceftriaxone) + metronidazole

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41
Q

choledocholithiasis

A

gallstone impaction in the common bile duct

-results in elevated direct bilirubin in blood, leading to jaundice and colicky right upper quadrant pain

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42
Q

what is tertiary vs quaternary prevention

A

3 –> reduces likelihood of disease recurrence or exacerbation in people already diagnosed with disease

4 –> methods to mitigate or avoid consequences or unnecessary or excessive interventions in the health system

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43
Q

secondary prevention

A

identifies disease at pre-clinical state

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44
Q

primary prevention

A

reduces number of new cases by eliminating risk factors or through immunization

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45
Q

systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

A

SVR = deltaP/CO

deltaP = mean arterial pressure - right atrial pressure

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46
Q

what can cause syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion?

SIADH can cause hyponatremia, osmolarity, which can result in a seizure

A
  • CNS disorders
  • chronic pulmonary disease
  • drugs
  • ectopic ADH secretion by small cell carcinoma of lung
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47
Q

ulceroglandular tularemia

A

caused by francisella tularensis

  • gram-neg coccobacillus
  • begins with rupturing pustule followed by ulcer and regional lymph nodes
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48
Q

what type of sperm are in seminiferous tubules

A

spermatogonia

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49
Q

what can result in septic arthritis

A

neisseria gonorrhoeae

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50
Q

what connects osteocytes to each other?

A

gap junctions

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51
Q

fenoldopam

A

short-acting, selective, peripheral dopamine-1 receptor agonist that causes renal vasodilation, arteriolar dilation, and increased natriuresis

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52
Q

most common cause of fatal sporadic encephalitis or inflammation of brain parenchyma

A

HSV-1

  • presents with fever, headache, seizures, aphasia, mental status/behavior changes
  • temporal lobe hemorrhage/edema on brain imaging
  • cerebrospinal fluid PCR for HSV
  • treat with acyclovir
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53
Q

familial erythrocytosis

A

B-globin mutation resulting in reduced binding of 2,3-BPG and increased hb oxygen affinity

-most of their blood is fetal hemoglobin

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54
Q

what level of the spinal cord is the lateral horn (intermediolateral cell column) located

A

T1-L2

-sympathetic preganglionic neurons

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55
Q

how to treat urge incontinence/overactive bladder syndrome/detrusor instability

A

anticholinergic medications

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56
Q

what hole in the skull does the mandibular nerve (V3) come out of?

A

foramen ovale

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57
Q

pineal gland mass

A

causes

  • obstructive hydrocephalus (nonbloody/nonbilious emesis)
  • dorsal midbrain (Parinaud) syndrome (blurry vision)
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58
Q

hypoxemia + reasons for elevated alveolar to arterial gradient

A
  1. right to left shunt
  2. ventilation/perfusion mismatch
  3. impaired diffusion
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59
Q

hypoxemia + reasons for normal alveolar to arterial gradient

A
  1. hypoventilation

2. low inspired fraction of oxygen

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60
Q

zika virus

A
  • single-stranded RNA flavivirus
  • microencephaly, craniofacial disproportion
  • neurological abnormalities (ex: spasticity, seizures)
  • ocular abnormalities
  • infects and destroys fetal neural progenitor cells causing fetal death
  • dx via calcifications, ventriculomegaly, cortical thinning
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61
Q

DiGeorge syndrome and what defects are common

A

maldevelopment of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch derivatives
-immunodeficiency can result from thymic aplasia which causes deficiency of T cells (mainly found in the paracortex)

-thymic aplasia, hypocalcemia, tetralogy of fallot, truncus, arteriosus, transposition of great arteries

CATCH
Conotruncal cardiac defects
Abnormal facies 
Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia
Cleft palate
Hypocalcemia
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62
Q

clostridium perfringens

A
  • gas gangrene due to penetrating injury
  • can also cause transient watery diarrhea and abdominal discomfort
  • can also cause late onset food poisoning
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63
Q

anticholinergic toxicity

A
  1. hot as a hare
  2. dry as a bone
  3. red as a beet
  4. blind as a bat
  5. mad as a hatter
  6. full as a flask
  7. fast as a fiddle
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64
Q

tertiary amines

A

physostigmine (helps with anticholinergic toxicity)

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65
Q

increased % of O2 saturation causes unloading of what from blood?

A

protons

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66
Q

mechanism of action of fenofibrate

A

reducing hepatic VLDL production by inhibiting 7-alpha-hydroxylase

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67
Q

neutrophil elastase released by PMNs and Macrophages … what does it do?

A

responsible for extracellular elastin degradation

  • major serum inhibitor of alpha-1 antitrypsin
  • causes panacinar emphysema
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68
Q

cardiac output equation

A
CO = SV x HR
CO = rate of O2 consumption / arteriovenous O2 content difference
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69
Q

clues to lead to arteriosclerosis

A
  • isolated systolic hypertension

- decreased arterial compliance

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70
Q

if giving a drug for a drug company and they offer to pay you for time explaining the drug you should…

A

give the drug if you think its the right fit BUT DO NOT ACCEPT THE MONEY AT ALL

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71
Q

positive vs negative predictive value

A

amount of true positives vs negatives

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72
Q

mechanism of action of macrolides

A

binding to P site of 50S ribosomal subunit and also decreases the elimination of warfarin via CYP450

ex: clarithromycin and erythromycin

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73
Q

if the patient is on hemodialysis what type if amyloid deposits are most likley

A

Beta-2 microglobulin is too large and does not pass through all of the dialysis membranes

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74
Q

how to test for pneumocystis jirovecci and who usually gets this and first line treatment

A

direct fluorescent antibody test or stained with methenamine silver stain

AIDS pts usually get P.jirovecci

first line treatment: TMP-SMX

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75
Q

how to calculate total lung capacity

A

FRC + IC

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76
Q

what is associated with pernicious anemia (antibodies to intrinsic factor/destruction of parietal cells)

A

atrophic gastritis

  • hypochlorhydria –> compensatory increase in gastrin
  • loss of parietal cells –> loss of IF and low B12
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77
Q

Test used to compare two mean values

A

Two sample t test

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78
Q

What does RNA polymerase I do?

A

Form essential ribosomal components —> works exclusively in the nucleolus

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79
Q

What does the posterior descending artery come off of on the heart?

A

Right coronary sinus

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80
Q

What does hypocretin do?

A

Aka orexin. Produced in the lateral hypothalamus and promotes wakefulness and inhibits REM

-too little in CSF causes cataplexy and narcolepsy (treat narcolepsy with modafinil— nonamphetamine stimulant to promote wakefulness)

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81
Q

Fracture of pterion part of skull does what?

A

Can cause laceration of middle meningeal artery (branch of maxillary) which can cause epidural hematoma

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82
Q

pagets disease

A

deformity of long bones + hearing loss (increased hat size and messed up hearing)

  • look for receptor factor NFk-B ligand
  • osteocytes in pagets are typically large and can have over 100 nuclei (normal have 2-5)
  • serum ca, phosphorous, and PTH are noraml and alkphos is increased
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83
Q

pregnant woman with HPV genital warts… what can be affected in the baby?

A

true vocal cords cause of its stratified squamous epithelium

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84
Q

budding spherical yeast with thick polysaccharide capsules

A

cryptococcus neoformans and causes meningoencephalitis (mainly in AIDS pts)

  • you get it from bird droppings then gets inhaled into the alveoli of lungs
  • seen via india ink staining
  • also stains red with mucicarmine
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85
Q

apical holosystolic murmur going to axilla

A

suggests mitral regurgitation

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86
Q

Henosch-Sholein purpura (palpable purpura on thighs and butt which can lead to blood in urine and stool)

A

due to IgA-immune complexes circulating around

-usually in children and can also cause joint pain

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87
Q

pulmonary arterial hypertension

A

hereditary AD

-can also cause smooth muscle proliferation

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88
Q

losartan mechanism of action

A

angiotensin II receptor blocker

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89
Q

internuclear ophthalmoplegia

A

conjugate horizontal gaze where ipsilateral lesion/eye is unable to adduct and contralateral eye abducts with nystagmus

-this can be seen in pts with multiple sclerosis (CD4+T lymphocytes activated by myelin basic protein)

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90
Q

pneumonia that requires cholesterol to grow cause of cell membrane

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

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91
Q

Fas pathway

A

activation-induced t lymphocyte death/apoptosis

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92
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

CFTR gene mutation. impared post-translational processing (deltaF508)–> causes improper folding and glycosylation of CFTR

if a young child is always getting respiratory infections (pseudomonas/staph) and has pancreatic insufficiency then think CF!

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93
Q

enterococcus

A

component of normal colon flora

  • grows in saline and bile and PYR positive
  • cathetar or anything in gu tract can cause enterococcus endocarditis
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94
Q

what is needed for PCR amplification?

A

nucleotide sequence of regions flanking target exon

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95
Q

scabies

A

mite and eggs

  • rapidly spreading rash
  • spread via person to person contact
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96
Q

midazolam

A

benzodiazepine (works by binding GABA-A receptors causing an increase in the frequency of chloride channels opening in the presence of GABA)

-note that barbiturates increase duration of chloride channels opening

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97
Q

odds ratio

A

-measure of strength of association b/w exposure and outcome

OR = ad/bc

-dont use total amount but how many did/didnt respond to the drug or whatever it is

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98
Q

how can rheumatoid arthritis cause flaccid paralysis

A

involving cervical spine and vertebral malalignment subluxation
-endotracheal intubation can worsen this

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99
Q

inheritance of androgenetic alopecia

A

polygenic inheritance

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100
Q

trochlear nerve (CN 4) palsy

A

vertical diplopia (double vision)– trouble walking down stairs

-innervates superior oblique muscle

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101
Q

how to measure potency of inhaled anesthetic

A

minimal alveolar concentration

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102
Q

diabetic ketoacidosis

A

polydipsia, polyuria, and fruity odor to breath/urine (metabolic acidosis)
hyperglycemia, low bicarb, high anion gap, decreased serum sodium

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103
Q

strongyloides stercoralis infection youll see what

A

rhabditiform larvae in stool

eggs and adult parasites only seen in intestinal biopsies

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104
Q

continuous infusion of drug eliminated by first order kinetics… when do you hit steady state?

and… what is the formula for half-life

A

4-5 half-lives

Vd x 0.7 / CL

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105
Q

bupropion

A

antidepressant similar to amphetamines -work by inhibiting reuptake of norepi and dopamine (no weight gain or sexual dysfunction)

-side effects: stimulant effects (tachy and insomnia), headache, seizures in bulimic pts

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106
Q

amphotericin B

A

treatment for systemic mycoses
-preferentially binds ergosterol of fungal cell membranes and also binds slightly to cholesterol causing all the bad side effects

-known for renal toxicity

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107
Q

damage to waht can cause contralateral hemiballism (LARGE flinging movements of proximal limbs on one side of body)

A

subthalamic nucleus (part of basal ganglia)

-if they are small flinging movements then it would be more like huntingtons which is from caudate atrophy

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108
Q

lithium induced diabetes insipidus

A

lithum antagonizes action of vasopressin on principal cells in collecting duct

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109
Q

what is associated with cutaneous small vessel vasculitis

A

medication (penicillin and cephalosporins) usually you see leukoclastic vasculitis

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110
Q

janeway lesions

A

seen in infective endocarditis with mitral regurg as well

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111
Q

major antibody associated with mucosal immunity

A

secretory IgA (from the duodenum)

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112
Q

gout

A

disease caused by tissue deposition of monosodium urate crystals. a risk factor is increased purine metabolism and PRPP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthetase) is response for this
-neutrophils cause the intense inflammation and pain
TREATMENT
first line: NSAIDs
second line: Colchicine

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113
Q

nutcracker effect

A

increased pressure of left renal vein cause of compression where vein crosses aorta under SMA… can cause elevated left gonadal vein leading to varicocele formation

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114
Q

how old do pts realize death is final

A

age 7

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115
Q

vitamin A deficiency can cause

A

night blindness, thickened and dry skin

-can occur due to prolonged biliary obstruction (diffuse itchiness)

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116
Q

guyon canal syndrome (ulnar trap)

A

pins and needles, mild weakness, flattened hypothenar eminence

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117
Q

hydrocephalus

A

intracranial calcifications and chorioretinitis -usually due to congenital toxoplasmosis in utero

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118
Q

serotonin syndrome

A

altered mental status, autonomic hyperactivity, neuromuscular excitation

-antidote: cyproheptadine (antihistamine)

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119
Q

anaplastic tumors

A
  1. loss of cell polarity
  2. nuclear pleomorphism
  3. large nuclie/hyperchromatic
  4. mitotic figures
  5. giant, multinucleated tumor cells

*dont look like tissue of origin

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120
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

adverse reaction to antipsychotic meds with lead pipe rigidity, hyperthermia, sympathetic hyperactivity, mental status changes

treatment: dantrolene (ryanodine receptor blocker that inhibits calcium release from SR) or bromocriptine if refractory

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121
Q

aflatoxin-induced p53 mutations to G –> T due to moldy food is due to what

A

aspergillus (increased risk of liver cancer)

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122
Q

scurvy

A
  • all the symptoms are due to decreased connective tissue strength
  • perifollicular hemorrhages
  • myalgias
  • subperiosteal hematoma
  • gingivitis
  • due to deficiency of ascorbic acid (vitamin c)
  • abnormal proline and lysine hydroxylation
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123
Q

reasons for holosystolic murmur

A

tricuspid regurg, mitral regurg, ventricular septal defects

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124
Q

pt with fever, headache, delirium, petechial rash, and meningismus has what?

A

meningococcal meningitis

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125
Q

disseminated gonorrheal infection triad

A

arthritis
dermatitis
tenosynovitis

-all in sexually active woman due to neisseria gonorrheae

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126
Q

how to treat androgenetic alopecia

A
  • 5a reductase inhibitors (finasteride)

- this is NOT autoimmune but polygenic inherited loss of hair

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127
Q

olanzapine and clozapine

A

2nd gen antipsychotic
-metabolic adverse effects

-clozapine (indicated in treatment resistant schizophrenia and when its associated with suicidal ideations) causes fatal neutropenia and agranulocytosis

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128
Q

tricyclic antidepressants

A

give to pts with treatment resistant depression

  • work by inhibiting reuptake of norepi and serotonin as well as inhibiting fast sodium channel conduction (slowing myocardial depolarization leading to arrhythmias)
  • strong anticholinergic properties
  • side effects include urinary retention, confusion
  • if you overdose the cause of death is due to inhibitory properties of Na channels
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129
Q

prostacyclin

A

= prostaglanin I2

-inhibits platelet aggregation and causes vasodilation locally

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130
Q

most common adverse effect of fibrinolytic therapy

A

hemorrhage

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131
Q

nissl substance

A

corresponds to rough ER

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132
Q

pathogenesis cells in COPD

A
  • neutrophils
  • macrophages
  • CD8+Tcells
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133
Q

deficiency of B1 (thiamine) causes what clinical problems

A

beriberi (peripheral neuropathy and heart failure)
wernicke korsacoffs –> occulomotor, ataxia, encephalopathy
chronic can lead to korsakoffs syndrome –> memory impairment, confabulation, and apathy

-MOST SUSCEPTIBLE AREA = MAMMILLARY BODIES

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134
Q

most frequent CNS tumor in immunosuppressed pts and associated with EBV

A

primary CNS lymphoma

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135
Q

what to give for PTSD

A

SSRI, SNRI, prazosin for nightmares along with CBT

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136
Q

raloxifene and tamoxifin

A

selective estrogen receptor modulators

  • inhibit the effects of estrogen on breast tissue and can reduce risk of gynecomastia in pts
  • adverse effects: hot flashes and venous thromboembolism

-adverse effects of tamoxifen only: endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma

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137
Q

drugs that can cause aplastic anemia

A

carbamazine, chloramphenicol, sulfonamides, and radiation

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138
Q

which enzyme in the CTA cycle uses FAD

A

succinate dehydrogenase

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139
Q

ventromedial nucleus does what

A

center of satiety

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140
Q

parts of HIV cell fusion

A

gp41 and gp120, cd4 receptor, and chemokine receptor

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141
Q

rapid hyponatremia correction can lead to what

A

osmotic demyelination syndrome of axons in central pons (spastic quadrapalegia and psuedobulbar palsy)

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142
Q

blastomyces dermatitidis

A

lung, skin, and bone involvement

-dimorphic fungus with thick walls

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143
Q

what two muscles flank the median nerve

A

flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus

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144
Q

rat poison works in the body like…

A

kinda acts like a super warfarin

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145
Q

how to treat heparin overdose

A

protamine sulfate

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146
Q

lung apex tumors (superior sulcus)–> pancoast tumors cause what

A

invasion/compression of surrounding structures

  • hoarseness –> recurrent laryngeal nerve
  • horner syndrome (ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) –> stellate ganglion
  • SVC syndrome –> superior vena cava
  • brachiocephalic syndrome (unilateral) –> brachiocephalic vein
  • sensorimotor deficits –> brachial plexus

*Note the pt can present with rib destruction and atrophy of hand muscles as well

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147
Q

clopidogrel

A

irreversibly blocks P2Y12 component of ADP receptors on platelet surface and prevents platelet aggregation.
-as effective as aspirin for prevention of CV events and should be used in pts with aspirin allergy

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148
Q

ankylosing spondylitis

A

chronic inflammatory disease of axial skeleton

  • progressive pain and stiffness of spine, sacroiliitis
  • can also cause reactive arthritis (cant see, cant pee, cant climb a tree)
  • HLA-B27 positive serology
  • look at degree of chest expansion (you will see limited chest expansion and spinal mobility) –> this can eventually lead to hypoventilation
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149
Q

southern blots test for

A

DNA

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150
Q

northern blots detect what?

A

target mRNA to assess gene expression

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151
Q

x-linked sideroblastic anemia

A

due to gamma-aminolevulinate synthase mutation

-histology: ring sideroblasts

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152
Q

HIV-1 vs HIV-2

A

1: worldwide, high viral load
2: west-africa, low viral load

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153
Q

gancyclovir vs acyclovir

A

they are structurally similar but gancyclovir has a greater activity against CMV DNA polymerase

-if the person has gancyclovir-resistant CMV you can use foscarnet (can cause hypocalcemia and hypomagnesmia)

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154
Q

ocular disease in pts with untreated HIV

A

cytomegalovirus retinitis

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155
Q

schizotypal personality disorder

A
  • eccentric behavior
  • odd beliefs
  • perceptual distortions
  • social anxiety
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156
Q

schizoid personality disorder

A

tends to struggle in realtionships and is socially detached

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157
Q

genetic defect in NADPH oxidase

A

chronic granulomatous disease

  • impaired intracellular killing
  • more sensitive to catalase positive organisms
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158
Q

paradoxical embolism

A

venous thrombosis crosses into arterial circulation via abnormal connection b/w right and left cardiac chambers (youll see a wide splitting of S2)

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159
Q

mhc class I vs II structure

A

I: heavy chain and Beta2 microglobulin

II: alpha and beta polypeptide chains

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160
Q

Trazadone

A

sedating antidepressant that can cause priaprism (long standing erection)

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161
Q

zolpidem

A

nonbenzo hypnotic used in insomnia treatment

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162
Q

imipramine and clomipramine

A

tricyclic antidepressants used as second line therapy cause of cardiotoxicity

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163
Q

what does a positive babinski sign show

A

upper motor neuron sign

  • abnormal plantar flexion
  • spastic paralysis
  • increased muscle tone
  • clasp knife rigidity
  • hyperreflexia
  • pronator drift
  • pyramidal weakness
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164
Q

lower motor neuron signs

A
  • flaccid paralysis
  • weakness
  • hypotonia
  • muscle atrophy
  • fasciculations
  • suppressed/absent reflexes
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165
Q

colchicine mechanism of action

A
  • treatment of acute gouty arthritis in pts who cant take NSAIDs
  • inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis by blocking tubulin polymerization
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166
Q

coronary dominance

A

depends on which gives blood to the PDA

right coronary artery –> right dominant (70%)

left circumflex artery –> left dominant (10%)

20% are both

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167
Q

difference between free ribosomes and ribosomes attached to ER

A
  • free ribosomes: in cytosol and translate proteins found in cytosol
  • attached ribosomes: bind to RER after protein translation begins. synthesize secretory proteins, integral membrane proteins of nucleus and cell membrane and parts of organelles
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168
Q

edrophonium

A
  • short acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
  • used to treat myasthenia gravis
  • reduces heart rate, cardiac conduction, and cardiac contractility
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169
Q

esmolol

A

cardioselective beta1 blocker (short acting)

  • decreases heart rate, myocardial contractility, and cardiac contraction without affecting renal blood flow
  • beta blockers prolong PQ interval cause they decrease AV conduction
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170
Q

phenylephrine

A

selective a1-adrenergic receptor agonist that causes a generalized increase in peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure

-significant renal, splanchnic, and mesenteric vasoconstriction

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171
Q

statin mechanism of action

A

inhibit HMG CoA reductase (rate limiting step in hepatic cholesterol synthesis)

-before you give a statin make sure to check their liver transaminase levels because statins are hepatotoxic and show muscle toxicity as well

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172
Q

cholestyramine mechanism of action

A

increases hepatic cholesterol and bile acid synthesis cause it binds to bile acid and prevents it from being taken back up in the terminal ileum

-they also increase hepatic production of triglycerides and can cause hypertriglyceridemia

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173
Q

myeloperoxidase

A

key component of respiratory burst of neutrophils and is released into phagocytic vacuole and extracellular space as part of immune response to bacteria/pathogens

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174
Q

methylmalonic acidemia

A
  • AR organic acidemia
  • methylmalonyl-CoA mutase deficient
  • lethargy, vomiting, and tachypnea in newborn
  • hyperammonemia, ketotic hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis
  • elevated urine methylmalonic acid and propionic acid
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175
Q

what to suspect when you have a pregnant woman with alpha-fetoprotein and/or acetylcholinesterase in the amniotic fluid

A

neural tube defects due to neural folds not fusing in pregion of anterior or posterior neuropores

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176
Q

what is the main factor driving lung abceses

A

neutrophils releasing lysosomal content

-a sign someone has these is copious sputum (foul-smelling) as well as x-ray of cavitation with air-fluid level

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177
Q

anterior pons infarct

A

contralateral hemiparesis, babinski sign, contra lower facial palsy, dysarthria

-trigeminal nerve involvement if they have sparing of forehead muscles

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178
Q

how does having hep b give you a chance of getting hep d

A

the b surface antigen virus coats hep d antigen of hep d virus before it can infect hepatocytes and multiply

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179
Q

TTN gene mutation

A
  • AD with incomplete penetrance, likely a familial inheritance
  • encodes sarcomere protein titin and when mutated causes dilated cardiomyopathy
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180
Q

mu opioids cause what

A

contraction of smooth muscles in sphincter of oddi (leading to spasm and increase in common bile duct pressures)

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181
Q

pt has cyanotic spells that improve with squatting and a systolic murmur

A

tetralogy of fallot
-abnormal neural crest migration leading to anterior and cephalad deviation of infundibular septum (malaligned VSD and overriding aorta)

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182
Q

4 characteristics of tetralogy of fallot and what is the most important factor in degree of intracardiac shunting and cyanosis

A

PROVe

  1. Pulmonary infundibular stenosis (most important determinant for prognosis) –> right ventricular outflow tract obstruction
  2. Right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH) –> boot shaped heart on chest X-ray
  3. Overriding aorta
  4. VSD
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183
Q

failed fusion of superior and inferior endocardial cushions

A
  • defects of av septum and values (tri and bi)

- initially left to right shunting then becomes r to left and causes delayed cyanosis

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184
Q

porphyria cutanea tarda

A

enzyme deficiency in late porphyrin synthesis steps (Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase)

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185
Q

in post strep glomerulonephritis what immunofluorescence stains will be seen

A
  • granular deposits of IgG, IgM, and C3

- discrete subepithelial humps on electron microscopy

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186
Q

first line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine: neuroleptic medication that inhibits neuronal high frequency firing by reducing the ability of soium channels to recover from inactivation
- can cause bone marrow suppression

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187
Q

clasp-knife spasticity

A
  • initial resistance then sudden release

- internal capsule stroke can cause this due to the upper motor neuron lesion

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188
Q

maraviroc

A

targets CCR5 to stop HIV from infecting macrophages

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189
Q

Enfuviritide

A

HIV fusion inhibitor (blocks gp41)

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190
Q

eplerenone

A

aldosterone antagonist

-can be used in Conn syndrome

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191
Q

what do you think of when someone has cataracts and no other symptoms

or when a diabetic has cataracts

A

galactokinase deficiency

if its a diabetic you can assume that they have cataracts due to aldose reductase converting glucose to sorbitol faster than sorbitol can be metabolized

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192
Q

pathologic features of hiv-associated dementia

A

microglial nodules and multinucleated giant cells

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193
Q

patient with symmetric bilateral lower extremity pitting edema and tortuous abdominal veins….

A

interior vena cava obstruction

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194
Q

what heart defect is associated with turner syndrome

A

bicuspid aortic valve and aortic coarctation

-you will also see a shield chest, decreased femoral pulse, shortened 4th metacarpals, high-arched palate, streak ovaries/amenorrhea/infertility, cystic hygroma (fluid filled sac due to lymphatic blockage), and horseshoe kidney

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195
Q

first line treatment for essential tremor

A

propranolol

-pts say symptoms improve with alcohol consumption

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196
Q

epidural hematoma

A
  • pt with fracture of. temporal bone and rupture/tear of middle meningeal artery
  • pt loses consciousness, wakes up, then loses consciousness again
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197
Q

Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome

A
  • AR
  • bilateral sensorineural hearing loss and congenital long QT syndrome
  • mutation in voltage gated K channels
  • mutation in KCNQ1 and KCNE1 genes
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198
Q

Huntingtons disease findings

A

chorea, dementia, behavioral changes

  • loss of neurons in caudate and putamen
  • NMDA associated toxicity
  • AD- CAD trinucleotide repeats
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199
Q

atropine

A
  • treats bradycardia
  • decreases vagal influence on SA and AV node
  • side effect: increased intraocular pressure can cause acute closed-angle glaucoma
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200
Q

peau d’orange

A

erythematous, itchy breast rash with skin texture changes analogous to an orange peel

-usually due to inflammatory breast cancer and is caused by cancerous cells obstructing lymphatic drainage due to spread to dermal lymphatic spaces

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201
Q

horse/sheep erythrocytes in monospot test

A

this is done and positive in pts with EBV

-if its mono and not from EBV it could be due to CMV

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202
Q

how is nitric oxide synthesized and what does it do

A

arginine + O2 along with stress/Ca increase which then makes NO + Citrulline

-causing vasodilation

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203
Q

kartagener syndrome

A

-form of primary ciliary dyskinesia (AR)

  1. situs inversus
  2. chronic sinusitis
  3. bronchiectasis

*infertility can also occur due to sperm tails or cilia in fallopian tubes

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204
Q

where is the most common location for an anal fissure?

A

posterior midline –> likely due to decreased blood flow

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205
Q

what type of cells are in the adrenal medulla

A

chromaffin cells –> modified neuroendocrine cells derived from neural cresta nd are stimulated by acetylcholine to secrete catecholamines

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206
Q

propionyl-CoA is made from what… and if you have excess how does it present

A

odd chain fatty acids, branched-chain amino acids, methionine, and threonine

-presents as propionic acidemia –> lethargy, poor feeding, vomiting, hypotonia 1-2 weeks after birth

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207
Q

anticholinergic toxicity

A
  • hot as a hare
  • dry as a bone
  • red as a beet
  • blind as a bat
  • mad as a hatter
  • full as a flask
  • fast as a fiddle

-GIVE THE PT PHYSOSTIGMINE (cholinesterase inhibitor)

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208
Q

anticholinergiic drugs

A

atropine and scopolamine

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209
Q

ACE inhibitor side effects

A

cough

hyperkalemia

decreased GFR initially cause of actions on efferent tubules of glomerulus

-angioedema is rare but can occur (increase in bradykinin increases vascular permeability) –> any pt on these with swelling or difficulty breathing should have the drug discontinued

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210
Q

lead time bias

A

apparent increase in survival time when there actually isnt one.

-detecting it earlier makes people think that pts lived longer when in reality you just found out they had is sooner

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211
Q

where are most things reabsorbed (including water) in the nephron

A

proximal tubule

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212
Q

how is isoniazid metabolized

A

via acetylation and there are fast and slow acetylators so it depends what grup people are in to see how quickly the drug will work

-its also directly hepatotoxic

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213
Q

what bacterial pathogens are most likely to occur after influenza virus

A

-the following pathogens are more likely due to the loss of cilia from influenza

  • strep pneumo
  • staph aureus
  • haemophilus influenzae
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214
Q

cilostazol

A

pde inhibitor that inhibits platelet aggregation

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215
Q

nitrate moa and adverse effects

A

get converted to NO, activate guanylate cyclase and increase intracellular cGMP leads to myosin light chain dephosphorylation leading to vascular smooth muscle relaxation

headaches, flushing, light headedness, hypotension
-due to veinodilation (systemic dilation)

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216
Q

what characterizes Alzheimer disease

A

decfreased acetylcholine in nucleus basalis of meynert and hippocampus caused by diminished activity of choline acetyltransferase

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217
Q

COPD exacerbations usually occurs due to which infections

A

viral: rhinovirus, influenza, parainfluenza

bacterial infection: haemophilus influenzae, moraxella catarrhalis, streptococcus pneumoniae

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218
Q

what does cyanide poisoning look like and how do you fix it

A
  • reddish skin discoloration , lactic acidosis, narrowing of venous-arterial PO2 gradient
  • give nitrates (amyl nitrite) so iron is converted to ferric iron in the blood so it binds the cyanide and stops it from blocking cytochrome c oxidase
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219
Q

zidovudine (drug)

A

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

-blocks phosphodiester bond so reverse transcriptase cant be made

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220
Q

what predisposes someone to infective endocarditis to a native valve

A

mitral valve prolapse with regurg

-rheumatic heart disease is common only in developing nations

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221
Q

if a patient has malaria from africa it is likely to be chloroquine resistant… which drugs should you give?

A

atovaquone-proguanil or artemisinins

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222
Q

pts with malaria p vivax or p ovale have…

A

dormant liver forms (hypnozoites) that require the addition of primaquine therapy

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223
Q

funtion of detrusor muscle

A

to squeeze the bladder so you can completely empty during urination

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224
Q

struvite kidney stones

A

usually seen in pt with upper urinary infection by urease-producing organisms (proteus, klebsiella). hydrolysis of urea yields ammonia which alkalinizes urine and facilitates precipitation of magnesium ammonium phosphate. urinalysis shows hematuria and elevated urine ph

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225
Q

why cant sheep blood agar support haemophilus growth

A

insufficient nutrients. it needs X factor (hematin) and V factor (NAD+)

-it can get V factor (NAD+) when grown alongside S aureus cause its Beta-hemolytic –> called satellite phenomenon

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226
Q

follicular lymphoma cytogenetic analysis

A

BCL-2 overexpression and t(14;18)

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227
Q

does carbon monoxide poisoning affect PaO2

A

no, it only increases carboxyhemoglobin (which represents levels of CO-bound hemoglobin)
-it decreases the O2 carrying capacity of of blood cause CO binds stronger than O2

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228
Q

constant vomiting leads to what acid-base disturbance

A

metabolic alkalosis due to net loss of acid gastric secretions

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229
Q

what enzymes breaks down triglycerides

A

hormone sensitive lipase – found in adipose tissue, allowing for glycerol to be used in glucose production and fatty acids to be used in ketone body formation during times of starvation

lipoprotein lipase – on endothelial cells that function to degrade triglycerides found in chylomicrons and VLDL, works in bloodstream to form FFAs that are then transported into adipocytes storage or used by tissues for energy production

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230
Q

hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

acute renal failure in children

  • microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
  • microthrombi in small vessels
  • thrombocytopenia
  • acute kidney injury
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231
Q

if portal hypertension leads to esophageal varicies… where is the portal blood shunted to?

A

left gastric vein

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232
Q

most important mediator in sepsis

A

TNF-alpha (acute phase cytokine produced by activated macrophages)

-also IL-1 and IL-6

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233
Q

what causes intestinal atresia of the midgut in newborns? “apple peel atresia” occurs when superior mesenteric artery is obstructed

A

vascular occlusion in utero and the first sign of this is bilious emesis

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234
Q

neurophysins

A

carrier proteins for oxytocin and vasopressin (produced in paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei) are released from posterior pituitary

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235
Q

DIC pathogenesis in pregnant women

A

placental damage –> release of tissue factor from placenta into maternal circulation –> activation of intravascular coagulation –> circulating microthrombi –> platelet/factor consumption –> bleeding

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236
Q

preferred antihypertensives in pts with diabetic nephropathy

A

ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers… due to antiproteinuric effects

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237
Q

patients with sickle cell disease and chronic splenic infarctions lead to BLANK and require BLANK

A

fibrosis and atrophy of spleen

they require increased folic acid due to erythrocyte turnover

–HbS allows for hydrophobic interactions among hemoglobin molecules

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238
Q

orotic aciduria

A

rare autosomal recessive disorder of de novo pyrimidine synthesis that occurs due to defect in UMP synthase

  • physical and mental retardation
  • megaloblastic anemia
  • large amounts of urinary orotic acid

give uridine supplementation

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239
Q

where is the apex of the lung located on the anterior side of the body

A

above the clavicle and the first rib through superior aperature in the neck

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240
Q

broad spectrum anticonvulsants for generalized seizures

A

lamotrigine, levetiracetam, topiramate, valproic acid

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241
Q

grayish white vaginal discharge with fishy odor

A
overgrowth of gardnerella vaginalis (anaerobic gram variable rod)
clue cells (squamous epithelial cells covered with bacterial organisms) are seen on wet mount microscopy or cytology
treat with metronidazole or clindamycin
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242
Q

septic shock

A

facial flushing and altered consciousness + positive for bacteria

due to LPS toxin–> Lipid A

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243
Q

Terbinafine uses and mechanism of action

A

dermatophytosis (by tinea corporis) and suppresses enzyme squaline epoxidase to block synthesis of fungal membrane ergosterol

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244
Q

renal ammoniagenesis

A

renal epithelial cells metabolize glutamine (generating ammonia and bicarb) which buffers acids in the blood

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245
Q

what is strep gallolyticus associated with (aka s bovis)

A

colonic cancer

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246
Q

sphingomyelinase deficiency (Niemen-Picks disease)

A

accumulation of lipid sphingomyelin, hepatosplenomegaly, neurologic regression, cherry red macular spot in infancy

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247
Q

how does glucagon work

A

via adenylyl cyclase and protein kinase A

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248
Q

where does the lymph of the testis drain to vs the scrotum lymph

A

testis –> para-aortic

scrotum –> superficial inguinal lymph nodes

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249
Q

what is HAART therapy associated with

A

fat redistribution (increases abdominal girth)

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250
Q

what do pelvic floor strength exercises do

A

target levator ani to improve support around urethra and bladder

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251
Q

how do you tell if a pt is taking exogenous thyroid hormone or if they have graves

A

graves will have an elevated thyroglobulin and exogenous use will have undetectable thyroglobulin

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252
Q

what deficiency causes maternal virilization

A

aromatase, also causes ambiguous genetalia in baby

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253
Q

cancers of the pelvis (including prostate) spread to where via the vertebral venous plexus/prostatic venous plexus

A

lumbosacral spine

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254
Q

where is the breast tumor if you have dimpling of the skin

A

suspensory ligament

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255
Q

testicular torsion is when BLANK wraps around the BLANK leading to ischemia

A

twisting of testis around spermatic cord (containing gonadal artery), leading to ischemia …. note that the gonadal artery arises from the abdominal aorta

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256
Q

what to give for C.diff treatment

A

oral vancomycin or metronidazole

fidoximicin –> macrolide against RNA polymerase

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257
Q

what do studies show in a pt with lactose intolerance?

A

increased breath hydrogen test
reduced stool ph
elevated stool osmolaltiy

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258
Q

what do you see on xray for necrotizing enterocolitis

A

thin curvilinear areas of lucency that parallel the bowel wall lumen

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259
Q

where does heme synthesis occur and what are the precursors ?

A

partly in the mitoC and partly in erythrocytes

made from glycine and succinyl-CoA

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260
Q

recombination

A

gene exchange occurs through the crossing over of 2-double stranded DNA molecules

mixing of genome segments in segmented viruses that infect the same host cell

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261
Q

what drugs are guanosine analogs

A

acyclovir, famciclovir, and valacyclovir… also gancyclovir

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262
Q

what do thiazide diuretics do to ion levels in the body?

A

raises calcium, uric acid, glucose, cholesterol, and triglycerides

lower sodium, potassium, and magnesium

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263
Q

minimal change disease

A
  • mostly in children
  • proteinuria
  • hypoalbuminemia
  • edema (reversible with corticosteroids)
  • may be triggered by recent URI
  • foot process effacement
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264
Q

what can increased nsaid use do to the kidneys?

A

chronic interstitial nephritis and papillary necrosis

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265
Q

what is a sign for meckel diverticulum

A

-includes mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis layers
spontaneous and painless lower gi bleeding

99m-TC-pertechnetate localizes ectopic gastric mucosa and increased uptake in the lower right quadrant

  • most common vitelline duct anomaly: results from partial closure of vitelline duct with patent portion attached to ileum (a fibrous band my connect tip of diverticulum to the umbilicus)
  • failure of obliteration of vitelline duct (omaphalomesenteric duct) –> painless GI bleeding
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266
Q

pts with severe mitral regurgitation

A

holosystolic murmur at apex with radiation to the axilla

audible S3 gallop

-pts with severe mitral regurg develop left-sided volume overload with an S3 gallop due to the large volume of regurgitant flow reentering the ventricle during mid-diastole. The absence of an S3 gallop excludes severe chronic MR

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267
Q

first line treatment for pts with ADHD

A

stimulant medications: increase availability of norepinephrine and dopamine in the prefrontal cortex

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268
Q

what heart defect is common in pts with down syndrome and what are possible causes of down syndrome

Also list the As of down syndrome

A

complete atrioventricular defect

causes: trisomy 21 or 46 XX (14;21) robertsonian translocation or mosaicism (nondisjunction during mitosis)

5As

  1. Advanced maternal age
  2. Atresia (duodenal)
  3. AV septal defect
  4. Alzheimers
  5. AML/ALL
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269
Q

number needed to treat equation

A

number needed to treat = 1 / absolute risk reduction

absolute risk reduction = control event rate - experimental event rate

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270
Q

what virus is common in pts with lung transplants?

A

cytomegalovirus

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271
Q

staph aureus

A

is on the normal skin flora and intravascular catheters are causing an increase in the incidence of their bloodstream infections

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272
Q

Abacavir

A

HIV/AIDS medication that can cause an allergic reaction in pts with HLA-B*57:01 molecule

causes delayed (type 4) hypersensitivity reaction

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273
Q

what laboratory findings do you see in rheumatoid arthritis

A

anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies
-rheumatoid factor is an antibody (typically IgM) specific for the Fc component of IgG
soft tissue swelling and bony erosions
C reactive protein and ESR correlate with disease activity
-fibrinoid necrosis with palisading histiocytes/epithelioid cells

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274
Q

severe retrosternal pain that radiates to the back

A

aortic dissection (intimal tearing)

275
Q

pleiotropy

A

multiple phenotypic manifestations from single genetic mutation (diff organs)

276
Q

what to think of in a child who has pemphigus vulgaris

A

staph scalded skin syndrome and causes exotoxin mediated skin damage (exfoliatin exotoxin)

277
Q

key clinical features of tay-sachs vs niemann-pick disease

A

Tay-Sachs
Beta-hexoaminidase A deficiency resulting in GM2 ganglioside accumulation
-progressive neurodegeneration, cherry red macular spot and no heptaosplenomegaly

Niemann-Pick

  • sphingomyelinase deficiency
  • same as tay-sachs BUT WITH HEPATOSPLENOMEGALY
278
Q

metalloproteinases

A

zinc containing enzymes that degrade extracellular matrix

participate in normal tissue remodeling and in tumor invasion through basement membrane and connective tissue

279
Q

what noise is heard with aortic regurg

A

decrecendo with diastolic murmur with maximal intensity just after closure of aortic valve
-more noticeable when pt leans forward on exam table

-aortic regurg causes fall in diastolic aortic pressure and a rise in systolic aortic pressure

280
Q

gertsmann syndrome

A
  • damage to angular gyrus of the dominant parietal lobe
  • agraphia
  • acalculia
  • finger agnosia
  • left/right disorientation
281
Q

haloperidol

A

high potency first generation antipsychotic
risk of acute harm
used for delerium to treat behavioral and psychotic manifestations

282
Q

chemoreceptor trigger zone

A
  • chemotherapy goes here and triggers vomiting
  • on dorsal surface of MEDULLA at caudal end of fourth ventricle (area postrema)
  • to help with chemo induced n/v you can use serotonin antagonists and neurokinin 1 antagonists
283
Q

malignant hyperthermia

A

after administration of inhalation anesthetics or succinylcholine to genetically susceptible individuals

-treated with dantrolene that blocks ryanodine receptors and prevents release of Ca into cytoplasm of skeletal muscle fibers

284
Q

what medications can you give for manic features

A

valproate and carbamazepine

285
Q

systemic mastocytosis

A

abnormal proliferation of mast cells and increased histamine which causes hypersecretion of gastric acid by parietal cells in stomach as well as a variety of other symptoms (hypotension, flushing, pruritus)

286
Q

what do these lead to believe as a dx

  • microcytic anemia
  • construction worker
  • constipation/abdominal pain
  • mental status changes
A

lead poisoning

  • inhibits heme synthesis pathway
  • leads to basophilic stippling

first line treatment –> edetate calcium disodium (increases urinary excretion of lead)

IN CHILDREN

  • lead poisoning will present with:
  • loss of milestones/cognitive impairment, behavioral problems, encephalopathy
  • constipation, abdominal pain, decreased vitamin D metabolism
  • interstitial nephritis
  • anemia
287
Q

how to treat beta blocker overdose

A

glucagon because it increases heart rate and contractility independent of adrenergic receptors

glucagon activates G-protein coupled receptors on cardiac myocytes activating adenylate cyclase and raising intracellular cAMP —> increase SA firing

288
Q

side effect of omeprazole

A

lower calcium absorption

prolonged use can increase risk of osteoporosis

289
Q

abnormally slow relaxation of muscles

A

AD
increased number of trinucleotide repeats
myotonia (myotonic dystrophy)

290
Q

what causes a transudate vs exudate pleural effusion

A

both are due to some type of heart/vascular failure

EXUDATE –> inflammatory increase in vascular membrane permeability: infection (pneumonia), malignancy, rheumatologic disease

TRANSUDATE –> pressure changes (hydrostatic or oncotic pressure): heart failure, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome

291
Q

adenoma to carcinoma sequence

A

firing order of events is AK-53 (normal —> at risk —> adenoma —> carcinoma)

normal colon — (APC inactivation/B-catenin accumulation)–> hyperproliferative epithelium (methylation abnormalities and COX-2 overexpression) – (KRAS activation)–> adenoma –(p53 inactivation)–> carcinoma

292
Q

lamotrigine

A
  • treats partial and generalized seizures (anticonvulsant mood stabilizer) also used in depressed phase/maintenance of bipolar disorder
  • blocks voltage gated sodium channels
  • benign rash that can progress to SJS and toxic epidermal necrolysis are rare but life threatening adverse effects
293
Q

what lab tests are used to check the status of the biliary tract

A

alk phos and gamma-glutamyl transferase

294
Q

histology of adenocarcinoma of the lung

A

invasive glandular cells with abundant cytoplasm

-most common lung cancer among non-smokers and women

295
Q

pure red cell aplasia is associated with what 3 pathologies?

A
  1. thymoma
  2. lymphocytic leukemia
  3. parvovirus B19
296
Q

neurofibromatosis 1 (aka. vonRecklinghausen’s disease)

A
  • AD, NF1 tumor suppressor
  • PNS tumor syndrome
  • cafe-au-lait spots
  • pigmented iris nodules
  • cutaneous neurofibromas (made of schwann cells)
297
Q

what are schwann cells embryologically derived from

A

neural crest

298
Q

heteroplasmy

A

clinical variability of mitochondrial diseases (presence of both normal and mutated mtDNA, resulting in variable expression in mitochondrially inherited disease)

299
Q

neurologic deficits and megaloblastic anemia… what is deficient and what should you measure to check?

A

B12 (cobalmin) is deficient and you should measure methymalonic acid which will be increased

300
Q

abusive head trauma

A

subdural hemorrhage, posterior rib fractures, and retinal hemorrhages

301
Q

damage to brainstem at level of red nucleus or below results in what type of stuck posturing

A

extensor

302
Q

damage to brainstem above red nucleus results in what type of stuck positioning

A

flexed

303
Q

fever, stiff neck, altered mentation

A

bacterial meningitis

304
Q

how to treat essential tremors

A

beta blockers

305
Q

ethosuximide

A

treats absence seizures and blocks type T calcium channels

306
Q

onset of gas anesthetic depends on what

A

solubility in blood (blood/gas partition coefficient)

307
Q

name the first generation anti-histamines and their associated side effects

A

chlorpheniramine and diphenhydramine
-meant to block histamine released from mast cells

-also blocks alpha adrenergic, serotonergic, and cholinergic receptors (cholinergic blocking can cause blurriness when looking at things close up cause of the ciliary muscles impaired accomodation)

308
Q

how do volatile anesthetics alter cerebral blood flow

A

they increase it. this is undesireable side effect as it increases cerebral vascular pressure

309
Q

edrophonium

A

used in the tensilon test to see if a pt with myasthenia gravis is undertreated. if the pt gets better with edrophonium (a short acting ace inhibitor) then you need to increase the pts dosage of their med

310
Q

pentapeptide

A

is a beta-endorphin thats made from the POMC precursor… the same one that makes ACTH and melanin

311
Q

what nerves come off of the sciatic nerve?

A

branches into the common peroneal (wraps around medially to the anterior side and branches into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves) and the tibial nerve (stays posterior)

312
Q

what innervates each of the eye muscles

A

CN III (oculomotor): SMILI (superior, medial, inferior rectus, lateral palpebrae superioris, and inferior oblique)

CNIV (trochlear): superior oblique

CNVI (abducens): lateral rectus

313
Q

what nerve becomes problematic in pts with crutches

A

proximal radial nerve injury

  • weakness in extensor muscles of arm and no triceps reflex
  • radial nerve injury can also cause wrist drop (no wrist extension
314
Q

von Hipple Lindau disease

A

AD

cerebellar hemangioblastoma and congenital cysts in kidney, liver, and pancreas

315
Q

NF2

A

AD nervous sytem tumor

-bilateral cranial nerve 8 schwannomas and multiple meningiomas

316
Q

sturge-weber syndrome

A

rare congenital neurocutaneous disorder

  • cutaneous facial angiomas
  • leptomeningeal angiomas
  • V1 and V2 distributions of trigeminal nerve
  • mental retardation, seizures, hemiplegia, skull radiopacities
  • tram-trak calcifications
317
Q

tuberous sclerosis

A

AD

  • cortical and subependymal hamartomas
  • cutaneous angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum)
  • visceral cysts
  • renal and cardiac problems as well
  • seizures are major complication
318
Q

osler-weber-rendu syndrome

A

hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

-AD

319
Q

friedreich ataxia

A
  • AD
  • progressive gait ataxia
  • hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  • DM
  • kyphoscoliosis
  • pes cavus

degeneration of….
lateral corticospinal tract (spastic paralysis)
spinocerebellar tract (ataxia)
dorsal columns (decrease in vibratory sense and proprioception)
dorsal root ganglia (loss of DTRs)

320
Q

clostridium tetani with tetanus toxin

A

due to puncture wound usually

  • blocks gaba and glycine
  • locked jaw
  • only grows at inoculation site
  • clinical diagnosis (dont really test for it usually)
  • give diazepam and do wound debridement/antitoxin/vaccine booster/antibiotics
321
Q

uncal herniation

A

ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy with fixed dilated pupil

322
Q

cholinergic toxicity and what to give the pt as a result

A

DUMBELS —> give the pt an antimuscarinic agent (glycopyrrolate/hyoscyamine/propantheline)

Diarrhea/diaphoresis
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm, bronchorrhea, bradycardia
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation
323
Q

decrease in compound muscle action potential

A

botulinum toxin

324
Q

cavernous hemangiomas cause increased risk of what

A

intracerebral hemorrhage and seizures

325
Q

what does the iliohypogastric nerve supply blood to

A

sensation to suprapubic and gluteal regions

motor function to anterolateral abdominal wall muscles

326
Q

restless leg syndrome (causes and treatments)

A
  • idiopathic, iron deficiency, uremia, diabetes

- avoid triggers and use dopamine agonists (pramipexole)

327
Q

what is the most common cause spontaneous lobar hemorrhage

A

cerebral amyloid angiopathy and these usually occur in the occipital and parietal lobes

328
Q

what is the problem with using halogenated inhaled anesthetics

A

they can cause acute hepatitis due to their reactive intermediates (….ane drugs)

329
Q

what artery supplies the occipital lobe of the brain

A

PCA

330
Q

what happens if. you give a pt with alcoholism glucose without thiamine?

A

hemorrhage and necrosis of mammillary bodies

331
Q

myeloperoxidase

A

found in neutrophils and converts hydrogen peroxide to hypochlorous acid (bactericidal compound causes oxidative damage to host cells)

332
Q

NADPH oxidase

A

catalyzes reduction of molecular oxygen to superoxide free radicals (destroys bacteria) —> deficiency of this causes chronic granulomatous disease and pts cant destroy catalase positive organisms

333
Q

superoxide dismutase

A

neutralizes reactive oxygen species (preventing cell injury)

334
Q

two most common causes of toxic shock syndrom

A

-essentially shoving something in a hole for too long

  • tampon use
  • nasal packing after epistaxis
superantigens bind to mhc class II and no antigen processing needed (T cell receptors bind to bacterial secretory products)
-due to macrophages and T lymphocytes
335
Q

both bactrim and tenofovir can cause acute interstitial nephritis… what is the the key difference in the kidney damage they do?

A

tenofovir also causes focal damage to the proximal tubule

336
Q

symptoms of chronic alcoholic pancreatitis

A

abdominal pain, chronic diarrhea, and recent weight loss

-due to digestive enzyme deficiency

337
Q

what is the most common complication of bicuspid valves

A

aortic stenosis (usually in their 50s)

338
Q

gomori trichrome stain

A

characteristic of mitochondrial myopathies (red ragged fiber disease)

339
Q

milrinone

A

PDE3 enzyme inhibitor that reduced cAMP to provide 2 beneficial effects for treating systolic heart failure

causes vasodilation and decreases preload and afterload

340
Q

mechanism of action of opiate analgesics

A

increased potassium efflux out of cells to cause hyperpolarization of the post-synaptic cell

341
Q

why would a pt have an S4 heart sound?

A

decreased left ventricular compliance and associated with restrictive cardiomyopathy and left ventricular hypertrophy

342
Q

what does a pulmonary artery balloon measure

A

left atrial pressure

343
Q

ectopia

A

its like metaplasia but you are born with it so its congenital rather than metaplasia which is developed during adult life

344
Q

what two enzymes in the process of atp production require thiamine as a co-factor

A
  1. pyruvate dehydrogenase

2. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

345
Q

new diabetes (hyperglycemia) and a rash (necrolytic migratory erythema –> blistering with erythematous plaques and central clearing), what do you think?

A

glucagonoma

346
Q

elevated methionine, marfanoid habitus, lens subluxation, thrombosis/stroke/MI, kyphosis, and intellectual disability

A

its probably homocysteinuria and you should supplement B6, increase cysteine in diet, increase methionine in diet and increase folate in diet

347
Q

what are the two parts of the lesser omentum

A

hepatogastric and hepatoduodenal ligaments

348
Q

two major symptoms of hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)

A

Paresthesias and muscle weakness

-you also get a metabolic alkalosis

349
Q

aspirin intoxication

A

fever, tinnitus, and tachypnea

also… RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS with increased respiration and loss of CO2 then METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

350
Q

sick sinus syndrome

A

you will see the p wave disappear and is due to age related degeneration of the sinoatrial node located on the right atrial wall causing reduced cardiac output

351
Q

if gastrin levels rise in response to secretin, what is that suggestive of?

A

zolinger-elison syndrome which is a gastrin secreting tumor

352
Q

what two tests can you do when comparing qualitative data

A

chi-square and logistic regression

353
Q

what do you need to check before starting a patient on metformin

A

renal activity because if its decreased the patient will be at greater risk for lactic acidosis

354
Q

treatment of hepatic encephalopathy after eating a lot of smoked meats and having cirrhosis

A

increase in blood ammonia levels
lactulose (increased conversion of ammonia to ammonium)
rifaximin (decrease intraluminal ammonia production)

355
Q

grayish pharyngeal exudate

A

corynebacterium diphtheriae

  • conversion from nontoxigenic to toxigenic C.Diphtheriae occur due to infection with lysogenic bacteriophage called corynephage beta –> this inserts the tox gene into its genome which results in bacterial expression of diphtheria AB toxin (PHAGE CONVERSION PERMITTING EXOTOXIN PRODUCTION)
  • stains deeply with aniline dyes
  • irreversibly halts protein synthesis due to ADP-ribosylation of EF-2
356
Q

alpha 1 blockers

A

can help with BPH and decreasing peripheral vascular resistance
-doxazosin, prazosin, and terazosin

357
Q

ecological study

A

population level as unit of analysis (instead of individual level)

358
Q

tibial nerve problems

A
  • tibial nerve is the one that follows on the back of the leg from the sciatic nerve
  • problems with this will cause difficulty in plantar flexion and decreased sensation over the sole of the foot
359
Q

common peroneal nerve problems

A

foot drop and trouble everting ankle as well as toe extension

360
Q

phenoxybenzamine

A
irreversible a1 and a2 blocker
prevents catecholamine (hypertensive) crisis
361
Q

Low serum sodium and normal urine osmolality after deprivation test and no change with vasopressin being added…. what do you think?

A

primary polydipsia

362
Q

pringle maneuver

A

clamp the hepatoduodenal ligament to see if bleeding stops (common bile duct, hepatic artery, and hepatic portal vein are all in this ligament)

363
Q

primary central nervous sytem lymphoma

A

second most common cause of ring enhancing lesions (first is toxoplasma gondii) which is usually as a result of EBV which infects B cells primarily and is seen on biopsy of the brain

T cell abnormalities can be seen on blood smear

364
Q

inheritance pattern of achondroplasia

A

AD with full penetrance and homozygosity is lethal

365
Q

mechanism of action of all hepC drugs

A

inhibit viral genome replication and assembly

366
Q

how to treat cardiac toxicity of tricyclic antidepressants

A

sodium bicarbonate

-works by increasing serum pH and extracellular sodium (alleviating fast sodium channel blockade)

367
Q

nonseptate hyphae that branch at wide 90degree angles

A

mucor, rhizopus, and absidia (all fungi)

368
Q

pts with small cell lung cancer could have what major paraneoplastic syndrome

A

lambert-eaton myasthenic syndrome: autoantibodies to presynaptic Ca2+ channels and decreased ACh release

  • proximal muscle weakness and dry mouth/impotence
  • histo shows small, round/oval cells with scant cytoplasm and large hyperchromatic nuclei (chromogranin+)
369
Q

hallmark of acute acute graft rejection

A

dense interstitial lymphocyte infiltration

370
Q

most common cause of acute pericarditis

A

viral etiology

371
Q

what causes most oral DM drugs to be contraindicated?

A

impaired kidney function

372
Q

side effect of doxorubicin

A

-dilated cardiomyopaty and its a chemotherapeutic drug

373
Q

where does steroidogenesis occur?

A

mitochondria then smooth endoplasmic reticulum

374
Q

gallstone ileus

A

passage of large gallstone and it gets stuck usually at the ileocecal valve

  • small bowel obstruction
  • gas in gallbladder and biliary tree as seen on x-ray
  • high pitch bowel sounds
375
Q

how does hep b immunization work?

A

when you actually get infected the immunity stops the virus from being able to infect any cells

376
Q

what are the teoxic alcohols

A

ethylene glycol and methanol

-give pt fomepizole (competative alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

377
Q

extended spectrum beta lactamases

A
  • render penicillins and cephalosporins inactive
  • on plasmids
  • transmitted via conjugation
378
Q

thromboxane

A

increases platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction

379
Q

what medication do you give to a pt who suffered from a subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

nimodipine (calcium channel blocker)

-prevents cerebrovascular spasm

380
Q

what are the extrapyramidal adverse effects of taking a typical antipsychotic medication

A
ADAPT 
AD --> acute dystonia (muscle spasm/stiffness)
A --> akathisia (restlessness) 
P --> parkinsonism (bradykinesia) 
T --> Tardive dyskinesia
381
Q

endemic location for histoplasmosis and path

A

mississippi and ohio river valley , in macrophages

382
Q

endemic location for blastomycosis and path

A

eastern and central US, as well as great lakes, broad based budding yeast

383
Q

endemic location for coccidioidomycosis and path

A

southwestern US and california, spherule filled with endospores

384
Q

endemic location for para-coccidioidomycosis and path

A

latin america, budding yeast with captains wheel formation

385
Q

guillan barre syndrome

A

immune mediated, demyelinating polyneuropathy (molecular mimicry), cross reacts with myelin of spinal roots and peripheral nerves…. causing demyelination

-you will see inflammatory infiltrate in the endoneurium

386
Q

what are the differentials for pulsus paradoxus

A
  1. cardiac tamponade
  2. pericarditis
  3. asthma/COPD
  4. obstructive sleep apnea
  5. croup
387
Q

what do alcohol based disinfectants target

A

lipid bilayer membranes and then they denature proteins after

388
Q

how can you tell the difference between PTSD and acute stress disorder

A

acute stress disorder occurs for more than three days but less than 1 month

PTSD is the same thing but it lasts for longer than 1 month

acute stress disorder just changes to PTSD after the one month mark

389
Q

hemagluttinin and neuraminidase

A

HA: binds sialic acid and promotes viral entry
NA: promotes progeny virion release (inhibited by oseltamivir)

390
Q

maintenance dose

A

CPss x CL / bioavailability fraction

391
Q

loading dose

A

Vd x CPss / bioavailability fraction

392
Q

what is the drug of choice in a pt in cardiogenic shock

A

dobutamine due to the increase in CO and increase in end-organ perfusion

393
Q

how to treat an SSRI/SNRI/MAOI/TCA overdose

A

cyproheptadine (serotonin antagonist)

394
Q

how to treat a benzo overdose and what are the signs of benzo withdrawal

A

flumazenil (benzo competitive antagonist)

W/D

  • rebound anxiety
  • tremor
  • insomnia
  • sympathetic hyperactivity (diaphoresis and palpitations)
  • severe cases: psychotic symptoms, seizure, death
395
Q

whatre the most common causes of acute pancreatitis

A
  1. gall stones

2. alcohol abuse (you will also see macrocytosis)

396
Q

if a patient has bulemia nervous, where does her BMI usually stand?

A

in normal range (this is the main distinguishing factor compared to anorexia where BMI is below 18.5)
-they also may have bilateral painless parotid gland enlargement and hypokalemia

397
Q

equation of the PPP?

A

oxidative/irreversible part: glucose-6-phosphate –> ribulose-5-phosphate

-enzyme used is G6PD

398
Q

what causes hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

AD mutation in genes encoding sarcomeric proteins like myosin binding protein C and beta-myosin heavy chain

  • can cause sudden cardiac death
  • avoid vasodilators and diuretics in these pts cause you need to make sure enough blood is getting to their heart
399
Q

how do right sided colon cancers typically present

A

iron deficiency anemia (fatigue and pallor)

occult blood loss (not visible in the poop yet)

400
Q

adverse effect of permanent pacemaker

A

tricuspid regurg which can lead to right sided heart failure (edema, hepatomegaly, distended jugular veins)

401
Q

how to help with hypoglycemia

A

mild: eat candy bar or juice
severe (pt passed out): emergency glucagon IM injection (will work w/i 10-15mins) and if you cant find this then put something sweet on buccal mucosa but this may not work and if so it will work slowly

402
Q

rotavirus pathologic finding

A

blunting of villi in duodenum and proximal jejunum

403
Q

hepatic angiosarcoma

A

associated with: arsenic, thorotrast, and polyvinyl chloride

tumor cells express CD31 (endothelial cell marker)

404
Q

future mother with pain in both knees and feet then stillbirth probably has what

A

parvovirus B19 (non-enveloped single stranded DNA)

405
Q

most common location of traumatic aortic rupture

A

aortic isthmus (directly after the arch)–> tethered by the ligamentum arteriosum (relatively fixed and immobile due to adjacent descending aorta)

  • usually due to a motor vehicle accident/sudden deceleration
  • you will also see a widened mediastinum on x-ray
406
Q

where do acoustic shwannomas (aka. acoustic neuroma) usually occur

A

cerebellar pontine angle, due to vestibulocochlear nerve problem (CN8)

407
Q

what allows viruses to go through a genetic shift mutation

A

reassortment is due to segmented nature of genomes

408
Q

inositol triphosphate and its second messenger system

A

-binds to receptor on ER and causes increase in cytoplasmic Ca2+ —> increases smooth muscle contraction

phospholipase C cleaves PIP2 into IP3 (causes Ca2+ release from ER) and DAG (activates PKC to phosphorylate proteins and cause smooth muscle contraction)

409
Q

recurrent sinopulmonary and gi infections as well as failure to thrive and lack of proper signaling b/w CD4 Tcells and B lymphocytes…

A

hyperimmunoglobulin M syndrome (defective class switiching)

problem with or absence of CD40 or CD40L could cause this (so you have lots of IgM and not much of the other ones)

410
Q

someone normally at sea level is hiking up a mountain, what do you think?

A

possible high altitude sickness. most cases subside within two days but it can cause cerebral/pulmonary edema

  • pt starts hyperventilating–> respiratory alkalosis (blowing off too much CO2)
  • hypobaric hypoxia
411
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich vs Chediak-Higashi

A

Wiskott-Aldrich

  • mutation is WAS gene (defective antigen presentation cause leukocytes and platelets are unable to reorganize actin cytoskeleton)
  • WATER (wiskott-aldrich, thrombocytopenia, eczema, recurrent infections)
  • fewer and smaller platelets

Chediak-Higashi

  • defect in LYST (lysosomal trafficking regulator gene)–> microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion
  • PLAIN (progressive neurodegeneration, lymphohistiocytosis, albinism, recurrent pyogenic infections, peripheral neuropathy)
  • giant granules in granulocytes and platelets
412
Q

how do you determine the power of a study

A
power = chance of detecting difference 
power = 1 - B 
B = probability that there is no difference
413
Q

what part of neisseria meningitis can cause septic shock

A

lipooligosaccharide (LOS) –> endotoxin (like LPS) that causes toxicity when released into plasma via shedding of outer membrane or bacterial lysis

*contrast with lipoteichoic acid found in gram + bacteria and acts as a regulator of of autolytic cell wall enzymes

414
Q

overuse injury caused by repetitive strain and chronic avulsion of secondary ossification center of WHAT

A
  • proximal tibial tubercle

- called Osgood-Schlatter disease (traction apophysitis)

415
Q

first line treatment for panic disorder

A

SSRI

-for an acute attack you can give a benzo

416
Q

pyrrolidonyl arylamidase positivity leads you to think what

A

strep pyogenes or enterococcus

417
Q

what does enterococci grow in

A

bile and hypertonic solutions

418
Q

how to test for fat malabsorption

A

stool microscopy with sudan III stain

419
Q

where is airway resistance highest in the respiratory tract

A

highest in the medium-sized bronchii then goes down from there

420
Q

linkage disequilibrium

A

when respective alleles are inherited together in the same gamete (haplotype) more or less frequently than expected at random –> this is usually because the alleles are in close proximity

421
Q

aTTrition bias

A

form of selection bias (they are ASSes and dont follow up again)

-disproportionate loss to follow-up b/w exposed and unexposed groups

422
Q

caseating granulomas with centra necrosis is what type of tb and what do you look for … how are they formed

A

secondary–> look for CD14+ cells at periphery (monocyte/marcophage lineage)

-you will also see langhans giant cells

caseating granuloma formation

  • form after macrophages come into contact with something they cant eat fully/degrade
  • IL-12 is released by macrophage–> Th1 differentiation (CD4 lymphocytes)
  • Th1 goes to site and releases IFN-gamma to activate more macrophages
  • then TNF-a gets released to call for even more help from macrophages/monocytes
  • macrophages differentiate into epitheliod and langhans giant cells to wall off the area to limit bacterial spreading
423
Q

if you are not absorbing (gastrectomy) or are not taking in (strict vegan diet) enough B12

A

this would take 4-5 years to develop because body stores SO MUCH OF IT

424
Q

list the torch infections

A
Toxoplasma 
OTHER --> strep agalactiae, ecoli, listeria, and parvob19
Rubella 
CMV
HIV/herpes
Syphilis
425
Q

altered level of consciousness, pinpoint pupils, and central respiratory depression

A

opioid overdose: acute respiratory acidosis (low pH and high PaCO2) due to hypoventilation

bicarb is still near normal

426
Q

rotator cuff muscles

A

supraspinatus–> abduction (suprascapular nerve)
infraspinatus–> external rotation (suprascapular nerve)
teres minor–> adduction and external rotation (axillary nerve)
subscapularis–> adduction and internal rotation (upper and lower subscapular nerve)

427
Q

rotator cuff syndrome

A

tendon impingement trauma of supraspinatus between humeral head and acromion

problems/pain with abduction of arm

428
Q

krabbe disease defect

A

lysosomal storage disease: deficiency of galactocerebrosidase
-destroys myelin sheath (oligodendrocytes)

429
Q

metachromatic leukodystrophy defect

A

arylsulfatase A deficiency

-impaired myelin production

430
Q

adrenoleukodystrophy

A

peroxisomal disorder: VLCFA CoA synthetase defect

  • dementia, hearing loss, seizures
  • gray discoloration of white matter/severe demyelination/perivascular inflammation
431
Q

what do proteosomes do?

A

degradation of ubiquitinated proteins

432
Q

name the three peroxisomal diseases

A
  1. Adrenoleukodystrophy
  2. Zellweger syndrome
  3. Infantile refsum disease
433
Q

prevalence dependent values

A

positive and negative predictive values

434
Q

around what age is it acceptable to diagnose ADHD

A

around 4-5years old

435
Q

what are the 5Ps of acute intermittent porphyria and how do you treat it

A
  1. Painful abdomen
  2. Port-wine-colored urine
  3. Polyneuropathy
  4. Psychological disturbances
  5. Precipitated by drugs (cytochrome P-450 inducers), alcohol, starvation

-porphobilinogen deaminase defect (excess porphobilinogen and ALA)

Treated with hemin and glucose

436
Q

if pt comes in with blistering cutaneous photosensitivity and hyperpigmentation

A
  • Porphyria cutanea tarda: most common porphyria
  • uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase defect (increase in uroporphyrin)
  • causes tea-colored urine
  • exacerbated with alcohol consumption and associated with hep C
  • treated with phlebotomy, sun avoidance, antimalarials
437
Q

weakness of quadriceps muscle, loss of patellar reflex, and loss of sensation over anterior and medial thigh and medial leg

A

femoral nerve injury (can be due to trauma, compression, stretch injury, or ischemia)

438
Q

if hematin (factor 10) and nicotinamide (factor 5) adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) are in a question what should you automatically think about

A

haemophilus influenzae

-major virulence factor is the polysaccharide capsule (polyribosylribitol phosphate (prp)) by binding to factor H and stopping complement by degrading C3b

439
Q

mild renal insufficiency, normocytic anemia, hypercalcemia, bone pain, osteolytic radiolucent bone lesions

A

multiple myeloma –> plasma cell malignancy associated with excessive IgG

gamma gap: serum protein - serum albumin > 4

myeloma cells replicate in the bone marrow and release cytokines that stimulate osteoclasts (by secreting RANKL and destroying osteoprotegrin) and inhibit osteoblasts

  • M spike due to IgG, rouleaux formation, bence jones protein
  • decreased PTH, normal PTH-related protein, increased urinary calcium, decreased 1,25vitD
CRAB
hyperCalcemia 
Renal involvement 
Anemia 
Bone lytic lesions/Back pain
440
Q

list two DNA-binding proteins that are transcription factors and how do you look for them

A

c-Jun and c-Fos (leucine zipper motif) –> transcription factors

-southwestern blots look for these as well as nucleases, and histones—-IF YOU SEE DOUBLE STRANDED DNA BEING USED ITS SOUTHWESTERN

441
Q

what does the latissimus dorsi do and what innervates it

A

extension, adduction, and medial rotation of humerus

thoracodorsal nerve

442
Q

how does mycoplasma pneumoniae cause anemia

A

IgM cold agglutanins cross react and cause clumping and lysis of RBCs
-anemia decreases with fading of immune response against bacteria

443
Q

neprilysin

A

responsible for the breakdown of natriuretic peptides (ANP and BNP–> released due to cardiac stretch) and angiotensin II

444
Q

methotrexate vs trimethoprim and pyrimethamine

A

all block dihydrofolate reductase –> so it blocks rapidly dividing cells

  • methotrexate does it humans
  • trimethoprim does it in bacteria
  • pyrimethamine does it in protazoa

adverse effects: stomatitis, bone marrow suppression, liver function abnormalities

445
Q

eosinophilia, winter months, proximal bronchiectasis

A

aspergillus fumigatus

446
Q

the PPD skin test, patch test, and candida skin test are testing what?

A

T cell immune function, so they are causing type IV hypersensitivity reactions

447
Q

do platelets express COX1 or COX2

A

COX1 so if you dont wanna mess with platelet aggregation then you can give celecoxib which is selective for COX 2

COX enzymes block prostaglandin synthesis
1–> in areas of platelets and gi system
2–> in areas of acute inflammation (by IL-1 and TNF-a)

448
Q

pts with new or worsening back pain, fever, and recent endocarditis or bacteremia (especially staph aureus)

A

vertebral osteomyelitis

-get MRI of spine for dx

449
Q

what does the body do in response to fatty foods

A

the pancreas secretes CCK from acinar cells

450
Q

what acid base disorder does a pulmonary embolism cause

A

respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation (hypocapnia)

451
Q

what to think when the scapula lifts off the thoracic wall and becomes prominent (winged scapula)

A

paralysis of serratus anterior due to long thoracic nerve injury –> serratus anterior is along surface of first 8 ribs and inserts on the medial boarder of the scapula

-causes impaired abduction of shoulder past horizontal

452
Q

BRAF V600E

A

melanoma (usually metastasizes)

453
Q

how to determine true negatives and false positives with specificity

A

true negatives = (specificity) x (number of pts confirmed w/o disease)

false positives = (1 - specificity) x (number of pts confirmed w/o disease)

454
Q

coughing spells that last a very long time even after your sickness gets better

A

pertussis (esp. in pt who hasnt had booster shots)

455
Q

how to remember ECG waveforms during wake/sleep cycle

A

BATSDB (BATS Drink Blood)

B: awake eyes open
A: awake eyes closed 
T: n1 
S/K: n2 --> TWOoth grinding 
D: n3 --> parasomnias 
B: REM
456
Q

primary cytokines involved in pathogenesis of RA

A

IL-1 and TNF-alpha

457
Q

multiple myeloma vs waldenstroms macroglobulinemia

A

MM has CRAB findings and M spike due to IgG

WM has M spike due to IgM and hyperviscosity syndrome (blurred vision, raynaud phenomenon), no CRAB findings

458
Q

when is PTH-related protein increased

A

malignancy

459
Q

heart problems mixed with bibasilar crackles and S3

A

left sided heart failure so fluid is backing up into the lungs and causing a decrease in heart compliance

460
Q

P bodies

A

in cytoplasm only

-play a role in mRNA translation, regulation, and mRNA degradation … also maybe storage

461
Q

migraine therapy: abortive and preventative

A

abortive: NSAIDs, triptans, dihydroergotamine
preventative: lifestyle changes, b-blockers, amitriptyline, topiramate, valproate, botox injections

462
Q

glaucoma medications

A

increase trabecular outflow–> carbachol, pilocarpine (M3 agonists)

increase uveoscleral outflow–> lantanoprost, bimatoprost (prostaglandin agonists)

decrease aqueous humor synthesis–> timolol (beta blocker), brimonidine (a2 agonist), and acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)

463
Q

typical bruise is called what

A

ecchymosis (cutaneous or subcutaneous collection of extravasated blood at least 1cm in diameter)

464
Q

lentigines

A

on a little old mans head –> brown sunspots

465
Q

fanconi syndrome

A

generalized reabsorption defect in all of proximal tubule (increase excretion in pretty much everything)

-leads to metabolic acidosis, hypophosphatemia, osteopenia

466
Q

how does ALL present

A

mediastinal mass

  • lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly
  • hypercellularity of bone masses
467
Q

homeobox genes typically code for what

A

transcription factors

468
Q

how to tell the difference between a left or right sided colon adenocarcinoma

A

right sided –> bleeding, iron deficiency anemia,

left sided –> obstructing symptoms like constipation, abdominal distension, nausea, and vomiting

469
Q

what can trigger erythema multiforme

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae and HSV
sulfa drugs, beta-lactams, and phenytoin

you will see a targetoid rash (target lesions)
-cytotoxic T cell mediated rash

470
Q

when the clavicle breaks, what causes the two ends to go in each direction

A

medial fragment–> displaced superiorly due to sternocleidomastoid

lateral fragment–> displaced inferiorly due to weight of arm and pectoralis major

471
Q

if someones rheumatoid arthritis drugs arent working well what the first line drug to add

A

methotrexate

472
Q

fulminant hepatitis in pregnant women

A

HepE

  • high mortality rate
  • patchy necrosis on liver biopsy
  • enteric and epidemic
  • fecal oral transmission
  • ssRNA
  • unenveloped
473
Q

waxing and waning lymphadenopathy

A

Follicular lymphoma

  • indolent course
  • t(14;18)
  • translocation of heavy chain Ig with BCL-2(18)
474
Q

regardless of lipid levels what lipid related drug should you give to decrease risk of cardiovascular events

A

always give a statin (hmg-coa reductase inhibitor)

475
Q

when diagnosing a metabolic alkalosis what can you look at next to help with the differential

A

urine chloride and pts volume status

476
Q

medial hypertrophy, intimal fibrosis, luminal narrowing of pulmonary arteries

A

pulmonary arterial hypertension

-give pt Bosentan (endothelin receptor competitive antagonist)–> causes vasodilation and decreases progression of vascular remodeling and right ventricular hypertrophy

477
Q

mechanism of action of sulfonylureas and meglitinides

A

close K+ channel in pancreatic B-cell membrane –> cell depolarizes –> insulin release via increase Ca2+ influx

478
Q

interscalene nerve block

A
  • anesthetizes the brachial plexus as it passes through the scalene triangle
  • anesthetic for shoulder and upper arm
  • nearly all pts develop transient ipsilateral diaphragmatic paralysis due to involvement of phrenic nerve roots
479
Q

ulcers where in the gi tract are not likely to be malignant

A

duodenum

-gastric ones should be biopsied

480
Q

bone pain in a young boy with systemic symptoms

A

hematogenous osteomyelitis

  • common in metaphysis of long bone due to slower blood flow and capillary fenesrae
  • w/o proper treatment can progress to chronic suppurative osteomyelitis
481
Q

cardiac description: decreased LV cavity, sigmoid shaped ventricular septum, increased collagen in ventricular wall, brownish perinuclear cytoplasmic inclusions (lipofucsin pigment)

what is this?

A

normal aging heart

482
Q

what do interferon alpha and beta do?

A

type 1 interferons are synthesized due to viral infections andincrease MHC I and transcribe enzymes to HALT protein synthesis

Note these are only active with dsRNA to selectively target virally infected cells only

  • RNase L: endonuclease to degrade all RNA
  • protein kinase R: block eIF-2 to stop translation initiation
483
Q

what to suspect with back pain that wont get better no matter what and is worse at night

A

malignancy/metastasis

484
Q

if a pt has back pain when they walk but feels better leaning forward on something while they walk… what do you think?… shopping cart sign

A

LUMBAR PAIN/PROBLEM

spinal stenosis usually caused hypertrophied ligamentum flavum and can cause those symptoms

485
Q

three causes of narrowing of spinal canal

A
  1. disc herniation
  2. ligamentum flavum hypertrophy
  3. osteophyte formation affecting facet joints
486
Q

other name for end-diastolic volume

A

preload

487
Q

most common trigger of afib

A

aberrant electrical foci in the pulmonary veins near their ostia into the left atrium

488
Q

post MI: gross, microscopic, problems

A

1 day: none, coag necrosis, arrhythmias

3 days: hyperemia, PMN and coag necrosis, fibrinous/inflammatory pericarditis

2 weeks: yellow/brown softening, macrophages/granulation tissue, pseudoaneyrism of inferior wall/free wall rupture/papillary muscle rupture/septal (VSD) rupture

> 2weeks: recancalized artery/gray-white scar, contracted scar, aneurysm of anterior wall/Dressler (immune pericarditis)

489
Q

pt presents with proximal muscle weakness, gottron papules, photodistributed facial erythema, darkening and thickening of facial tips, increased risk of occult malignancy

-perimysial inflammation and atrophy with CD4+T cells

A

dermatomyositis (autoimmune) –> may occur alone or as paraneoplastic syndrome due to underlying adenocarcinoma

treat with glucocorticoids

-if they have all these symptoms without the skin problems its polymyositis and involves CD8T cells and endomysial inflammation

both are a problem with autoantibodies against tRNA synthetase

490
Q

how does fibromuscular dysplasia look

A

alternating areas with aneuyrsmal dilation (string of beads appearance) and loss of internal elastic lamina

491
Q

midshaft humerus break… which artery/nerve is affected?

A

deep brachial artery and radial nerve

492
Q

where is the most common location for epistaxis

A

anterior NASAL SEPTUM which includes Kiesselbachs plexus

493
Q

distal humerus break… which artery/nerve is affected?

A

pinches median nerve and brachial artery

494
Q

congenital torticollis

A
  • noted by 2-4 weeks of age
  • after this the child prefers to hold their head to one side
  • usually results from malposition of head in utero or birth trauma
  • usually resolve with stretching it out over time
495
Q

why should you not administer high O2 to a pt with COPD

A

you could cause a COPD exacerbation due to increased CO2 retention (O2 induced hypercapnia) resulting in confusion and lethargy —> ventilation/perfusion mismatch

496
Q

what nerve, artery, and vein are in the anterior compartment of the leg

A

deep peroneal nerve, anterior tibial artery and vein

497
Q

what nerve is in the lateral compartment of the leg?

A

superficial peroneal nerve

498
Q

whats in the posterior compartment of the leg?

A

tibial nerve, posterior tibial artery and vein, peroneal artery and vein

499
Q

whats the best way to avoid a fall for an elderly person, whats the first thing the physician should do?

A

look at their medications
-psychotropic (aripiprazole, sertraline, amitriptyline, and benzos) and cardiovascular drugs (calcium channel blockers, beta blockers, and diuretics) can cause an increased falling risk

500
Q

what infection causes hypo/hyperpigmented areas of the skin specifically seen in sun exposed areas and in hot/humid weather

-just found in stratum corneum of skin

A
Pityriasis versicolor (tinea versicolor) --> Malassezia globosa)
-can dx via KOH preparation
501
Q

etanercept mechanism of action

A

TNF-alpha inhibitor that acts as a decoy receptor

-this drug is added onto methotrexate fro those with bad RA

502
Q

what type of MHC class is on an antigen presenting cell?

A

MHC class II

-MHC class I is found mainly on most of the human nucleated cells that present either self or antigen and are never lysosomed

503
Q

dog bite that becomes erythematous and grows gram negative coccobacilli with the culture having a mouse-like odor

A

pasteurella multocida

504
Q

why would you have an enlarged coronary sinus?

A

elevated right sided heart pressure (anything that can cause this like pulmonary hypertension)

505
Q

thickening of pleura and what is seen on histology

A

mesothelioma

  • may result in hemorrhagic pleural effusion (exudative), pleural thickening
  • psammoma bodies, calretinin positive
506
Q

honeycomb appearance of lung

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

  • loss of type 1 pneumocytes and hyperplasia of type 2 pneumocytes
  • traction bronchiectasis and digital clubbing
507
Q

what happens to someones kidney after they drink ethylene glycol

A

toxic alcohol found in antifreeze

  • acute kidney injury causing acute tubular necrosis
  • vacuolar degeneration with ballooning of proximal tubular cells

overall symptoms –> altered mentation, renal failure, high anion gap metabolic acidosis, increased osmolar gap, and calcium oxalate crystals in urine

508
Q

two major adverse effects of theophylline

A

seizures and tachyarrhythmias

509
Q

plummer vinson syndrome

A

PLUMBERS DIE

  1. Dysphagia
  2. Iron deficiency anemia –> leads to koilonychia (spoon shaped nails) and shiny red tongue secondary to atrophy of lingual papillae
  3. Esophageal web

-treat with iron supplementation

510
Q

what to expect if someone has lead poisoning on peripheral blood smear

A

basophilic stippling of hypochromatic RBCs

511
Q

Hibernating myocardium

A

-state of chronic myocardial ischemia
presence of left ventricular systolic dysfunction due to reduced coronary blood flow at rest that is partially or completely reversible by coronary revascularization

512
Q

positive trendelenburg gait, what nerve is affected?

A

superior gluteal nerve
-make sure to give injections in the superiolateral quadrant of the butt, not the superiomedial quadrant cause you can mess up this nerve

513
Q

what does thymidylate synthase do?

A

converts dUMP into dTMP and its important cause its a dihydrofolate reductase

U –> T (important to make DNA without apoptosis due to incorporation of uracil)

514
Q

first line treatment for generalized/social anxiety disorder

A

ssri and snri

515
Q

majority of overdose deaths are due to what

A

opioids

516
Q

what finding is pathognomonic for pyelonephritis

A

WBC casts

517
Q

explain noise induced hearing loss

A

damage to stereociliated hair cells of organ of corti

  • due to shearing forces against tectorial membrane
  • high frequency hearing is lost first regardless of damaging noise frequency
518
Q

noncaseating granuloma formation

A

-usually seen in autoinflammatory conditions

  • chronic t-lymphocyte and macrophage activation
  • macrophages secrete TNF-alpha, IL-1, IL-6, and IL-12
  • IL-12 causes Th1 differentiation
  • Th1 produces IL-2 and IFN-gamma (more macrophages/giant cells)
519
Q

most common reason to have a COPD exacerbation

A

viral or bacterial respiratory infections

520
Q

manifestations of arsenic poisoning and how to treat

A
  • garlic breath, watery diarrhea, vomiting, prolonged QTc

- give dimercaprol or DMSA

521
Q

marker of mast cell activation

A

tryptase is a specific marker

522
Q

what reaction does G6PD catalyze?

A

glucose-6-P ——–> 6-phosphogluconolactone

523
Q

what type of damage is caused by CCl4

A

free radical injury
-its oxidized by cp450 in the liver forming free radical CCl3 which reacts to structural lipids of the cell membrane leading to hepatocyte necrosis

524
Q

what medications do you give to someone who had a TIA (transient ischemic attack)?

A

statin and low dose aspirin (predominantly inhibiting cox-1/blocking platelet aggregation)

525
Q

peripheral neuropathy (wrist/foot drop), asthma, sinusitis, skin nodules/purpura

can also involve heart, GI, kidneys

A

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss)

  • granulomatous, necrotizing vasculitis with eosinophilia
  • MPO-ANCA/p-ANCA, increased IgE level
526
Q

interruption of what dopaminergic pathway can lead to galactorrhea and amenorrhea

A

tuberoinfundibular pathway

527
Q

artery with the lesser curvature of the stomach causes bleeding what could it be?

A

left or right gastric arteries

528
Q

painless, solid testicular mass in man age bw 15-35

A

testicular cancer

529
Q

what makes elastin so elastic?

A

cross linking of lysine residues

530
Q

bilateral acoustic neuromas

A

NF2

531
Q

what enzymes require B1 (TTP) as a cofactor?

A

Be APT

Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase
Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Transketolase

532
Q

flattening of deltoid muscle with acromial prominence suggests what

A

anterior humerus dislocation

533
Q

Rb mutation causes what two types of cancer

A

retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma

534
Q

what causes peripheral neuropathy

A

endoneural arteriole hyalinization

535
Q

explain the metyrapone stimulation test

A
  • sensitive indicator of the HPA-axis
  • metyrapone blocks cortisol synthesis so you dont have feedback so you should have a surge in ACTH being released and 17-hydroxysteroids will accumulate in the urine
536
Q

what is associated with hirschsprung disease vs meconium ileus?

A

H: down syndrome, rectosigmoid obstruction, normal meconium, positive squirt sign
M: cystic fibrosis, ileus obstruction, inspissated mass(dehydrated meconium), negative squirt sign

537
Q

what is messed up/inhibited if you eat poison mushrooms

A

RNA polymerase II (mRNA)

538
Q

c-ANCA (cytoplasmic staining antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies)

A

pathognomonic for granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)

-may target neutrophil proteinase 3

539
Q

what causes varicose veins (dilated, torturous veins in superficial leg)

A

chronically increased intraluminal pressure and/or loss of tensile strength in vessel wall —> leading to incompetent venous valves

complications

  • edema
  • skin ulcerations
  • stasis dermatitis
  • poor wound healing
  • infections
540
Q

post-prandial epigastric pain with food aversion and weight loss

associated with generalized atherosclerosis

A

chronic mesenteric ischemia

541
Q

MEN type 1 vs type 2a vs type 2b

A

1: primary hyperpara, pituitary tumor, and pancreatic tumors
2a: primary hyperpara, medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma
2b: medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuroma/marfanoid habitus

542
Q

what does alcohol inhibit that can lead to hypoglycemia

A

gluconeogenesis

543
Q

blue-black spots on connective tissue and osteoarthropathy later in life

A

Alkaptonuria: congenital deficiency of homogentisate oxidase

elevated HGA

treat with dietary restriction of tyrosine and phenylalanine

544
Q

common cause of eccentric hypertrophy

A

chronic aortic regurg which can be due to aortic root dilatation

545
Q

immune mediated noncaseating granulomas, hypercalcemia, elevated ACE
african american female
enlarged lymph nodes
hilar and mediastinal adenopathy
involves: lungs (most common), skin, eyes, heart

-can also cause weight loss

what is this and what is it associated with?

A

sarcoidosis

  • large number of CD4+ T lymphocytes release IFN-gamma and TNF-alpha to drive macrophage activation and granuloma formation
  • bronchoalveolar lavage fluid in pulmonary sarcoidosis demonstrates high CD4/CD8 ratio

assoiated with Bell palsy, Uveitis, Granulomas, Lupus pernio, Interstitial fibrosis, Erythema nodosum, Rheumatoid arthritis-like arthropathy
a FACIAL DROOP is UGLIER

hypercalcemia is due to increase 1alpha-hydroxylase mediated vitamin D activation in macrophages
CD4+ T cell mediated

546
Q

severe constant middle or left chest pain that may radiate to neck and shoulders
pain increases on inspiration
relieved by sitting up and leaning forward

A

acute pericarditis

547
Q

hyperphosphatemia can lead to what with calcium

A

hypocalcemia

548
Q

hypertensive crisis

A
  • blood pressure >180/120 with end organ damage
  • malignant nephrosclerosis in the kidney–> fibrinoid necrosis of small arteriolar walls and hyperplastic arteriosclerosis (onion skin appearance)
  • maha can occur due to erythrocyte fragmentation and platelet consumption at narrowed arteriolar lumen
549
Q

false positive VLDR/RPR with prolonged PTT due to lupus anticoagulant

A

antiphospholipid syndrome

treat with systemic anticoagulation

550
Q

if you see a young woman with rash, joint pain, and fever (and sometimes proteinuria) what should you think?

A

systemic lupus erythematosus

-hypocomplement, ANA+, anti-dsDNA, anti-smith

551
Q

lateral prefrontal corte vs orbitofrontal cortex

A

lateral prefrontal –> executive functioning, organization, motivation, planning, and purposeful action

orbitofrontal –> personality and inhibition

552
Q

how to beta blockers affect the R-A-A axis

A

they block the formation of renin so none is made

553
Q

breast carcinoma with human epidermal growth factor 2 (HER2) positivity

A

you can give Trastuzumab –> monoclonal antibody that targets tyrosine kinase receptors (these receptors are commonly overexpressed in breast cancer pts)

  • major adverse effect is cardiotoxicity (reducing cardiomyocyte contractility with no fibrosis)
  • blocking these receptors downregulates cellular proliferation and promotes apoptosis
  • HER2+ is associated with aggressive disease
554
Q

what can predispose someone to develop angiosarcoma

A

Stewart-Treves Syndrome –> chronic lymphedema

555
Q

selegiline mechanism of action

A

MAO-B inhibitor

556
Q

amorphous extracellular matrix with scattered stellate or globular myxoma cells within abundant mucopolysaccharide ground substance

A

myxoma tumor (usually found in left atrium)

  • mobile and small
  • tumor plop sound
  • glycosaminoglycans
  • breath worse when sitting/better when lying down
557
Q

explain the difference between pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid

A

pemphigus vulgaris

  • autoantibodies against desmosomes
  • painful flaccid bullae
  • erosions affecting skin and MUCOSAL membranes
  • bullae spread laterally with pressure and new blisters may form with gentle rubbing
  • mucosal involvement is common
  • positive nikolsky sign

bullous pemphigoid

  • autoantibodies against hemidesmosomes
  • tense/firm bullae
  • separates entire dermis from epidermis
  • no mucosal involvement and negative nikolsky sign
558
Q

tumor grade vs tumor stage

A

grade –> differentiation

stage –> tumor expansion** this is more important for prognosis

559
Q

azathioprine metabolism

A

azathioprine –> 6-MP

6-MP –HGPRT–> active metabolites block purine synthesis
6-MP –TPMP/Xanthine Oxidase–> inactive metabolites

Note: allopurinol blocks xanthine oxidase

560
Q

what do alveolar hyaline membranes in the lungs represent

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome (restrictive)

-macrophages and neutrophils involved in initial part

561
Q

axonal reaction and wallerian degeneration

A

changes made in the neuron after the axon is severed/damaged

  • increased protein synthesis to facilitate axon repair
  • enlarged rounded cells with peripherally located nuclei and dispersed finely granular nissl substance (everything pushed to periphery)

Wallerian degeneration is essentially just the axon/myelin breaking down and macrophages remvoing the debris all distal to the site of injury

  • this occurs much faster in the PNS b/c you dont have the BBB
  • in the CNS you could have axonal debris for years, suppressing axonal growth via myelin associated inhibitory factors

also note that glial scars can inhibit axonal growth/regeneration

562
Q

whats the one part of the body that cannot use ketone bodies for energy

A

erythrocytes

563
Q

what type of anemia does a pt have with chronic kidney disease and why

A

normocytic anemia because the kidneys cannot make enough EPO (epo is made and released from the peritubular interstitial cells/fibroblasts in renal cortex)

-also chronic kidney disease causes decreased Ca and increased phosphate leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism which can cause osteitis fibrosa cystica

564
Q

what is the single most important measure to to reduce the risk of transmission of hospital acquired infections

A

hand hygiene

565
Q

common precipitating factors of G6PD deficiency anemia

A
  1. infections
  2. drugs (dapsone, antimalarials, sulfonamides)
  3. DKA
  4. favism (eating fava beans)
566
Q

pt eats cheese then gets meningitis, what causes this?

A

listeria monocytogenes
-can also cause meningitis in baby and has intrinsic resistance to cephalosporins due to PBPs

-use ampicillin to treat

567
Q

tinitis, vertigo, sensoryneural hearing loss

A

menire disease

-pathogenesis related to increased volume and pressure of endolymph in vestibular apparatus

568
Q

why would pus/sputum have a green discoloration

A

due to presence of myeloperoxidase (blue-green-heme-based enzyme that is released from neutrophil azurophilic granules and forms hypochlorous acid/bleach)

569
Q

hemorrhage and subsequent hypotension can do what to the kidneys?

A

acute tubular necrosis (3 phases)

  1. initiation (24-36hrs) –> initial ischemic or toxic insult
  2. maintenance (1-2weeks) –> fully established tubular damage with oliguria, fluid overload, electrolyte abnormalities, low GFR, high serum creatinine
  3. recovery –> re-epithelialization of tubules (electrolyte wasting– decrease K, phosphorous, mg, ca)
570
Q

diffuse medium sized lymphocytes and high proliferation index indicated via Ki-67 fraction (approaching 100%)

A

Burkitt lymphoma

  • strong association with EBV
  • starry sky appearance (due to macrophages)
  • 8;14 translocation –> c-myc acts as transcription activator controlling proliferation, differentiation, and apoptosis
571
Q

symptoms of schizophrenia and mood disorders together (pt must have >2wks of psychotic symptoms without a manic or depressive episode)

A

schizoaffective disorder

572
Q

immature defense mechanism. I actually feel mad but i dont want to admit it so im gonna think that youre mad

A

projection

573
Q

get yelled at by the boss so you go home and yell at your neighbor

A

displacement

574
Q

what nerve is around the posterior wall of the external auditory canal

A

small auricular branch of vagus nerve

575
Q

explain muscle loss in cancer related cachexia

A

ubiquidine -proteosome pathway mediates protein degradation

-MAINLY DUE TO TNF-A (suppresses appetite and increases basal metabolic rate)

  • rapid disposal of unneeded intracellular proteins
  • high levels of proinflammatory cytokines lead to increased ubiquidination of sarcomeric muscle proteins –> extensive skeletal muscle loss
576
Q

digoxin mechanism and toxicity

A

MECHANISM

  • used in a pt with afib that decreases conduction through the AV node and increases contractility in pts with heart failure
  • blocks Na/K ATPase

TOXICITY
-one of the ways it works is by slowing down heart rate via increasing parasympathetic tone

color vision alterations
nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue, confusion, weakness

-most serious complication = life threatening ventricular arrhythmias

577
Q

what stains positive for GFAP (glial fibrillary acidic protein)

A

neoplasms of glial origin: astrocytoma, ependymoma, and oligodendroglioma

-gfap is essentially just staining for astrocytes

578
Q

what gives reticulocytes their blue-ish color

A

blue-ish cytoplasm and reticular precipitates of residual ribosomal RNA

579
Q

if you see a serum calcium of over 13, what should you be suspicious of

A

underlying malignancy and secretion of PTHrP (causes hypercalcemia and loss of phosphate usually seen with squamous cell carcinomas

580
Q

if you see nail clubbing what should you automatically think of

A

the pt has had prolonged hypoxia

  • large cell lung cance
  • TB
  • cystic fibrosis
  • suppurative lung diseases: empyema, bronchiectasis, and chronic lung abscesses
581
Q

pt with severe long-bone and/or pelvic fractures who develops acute onset neurologic abnormalities, hypoxemia, and a petechial rash

A

fat embolsim syndrome –> occlusion of pulmonary microvessels by fat globules (early histological finding)

582
Q

octreotide

A

synthetic analog of somatostatin given to help the symptoms of carcinoid syndrome

583
Q

wheezing, facial flushing, diarrhea

-associated with ileal tumor with hepatic metastasis

A

carcinoid syndrome

584
Q

intracellular protazoa with rod shaped kinetoplasts

A

cutaneous leishmaniasis (enlarging pinkish papule at site of bite then eventually develops into a nodule or plaque)

  • infected from sand flies
  • obligate intracellular protazoa that mature in macrophages
585
Q

what drugs should you not give to someone on lithium

A

thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and NSAIDs

-volume depletion and drug interactions

586
Q

what are you likely to see on histological examination from the bowel of an individual with Crohns disease vs UC

A

Crohns: patchy transmural inflammation and noncaseating granulomas, mouth to anus, strictures (due to bowel wall edema, fibrosis, thickening of muscularis mucosae), fistulas (penetration of ulcers through intestinal wall), and abscesses

UC: involves mucosa and submucosa in the colon only,

587
Q

gross hematuria, acute flank pain, and passage of tissue fragments in the urine

-usually seen in pts with sickle cell or sickle trait, DM, analgesic nephropathy, or severe obstructive pyelonephritis

A

renal papillary necrosis

588
Q

CREST SYNDROME

A

limited scleroderma and anti-centromere antibodies

  • calcinosis
  • raynauds
  • esophageal dysmotility
  • sclerodactyly
  • telangiectasias
589
Q

physician burnout vs fatigue

A

burnout –> emotional exhaustion, cynicism, depersonalization, decreased sense of personal accomplishment that can result in suboptimal pt care and medical errors

fatigue –> caused by sleep deprivation resulting in cognitive impairment and medical errors

590
Q

musculocutaneous nerve injury

A

usually due to trauma or overuse (C5-C9)
innervated forearm flexors (biceps brachii and brachialis), corachobrachialis (flexes and adducts arm), and sensory innervation to lateral forearm

591
Q

painless genital ulcer

A

with lymphadenopathy: syphilis

without lymphadenopathy: klebsiella granulomatis

592
Q

what part of the brain does the pupillary light reflex go to?

A

afferent limb: optic nerve (CN2)
efferent limb: occulomotor (CN3)

upper midbrain: pretectal nucleus –> Edinger-westphal nuclei (via CN3)

*if a pt has no direct or indirect pupillary constriction this means its likely a CN3 problem

593
Q

diphenoxylate

A

opioid antidiarrheal drug

  • binds mu opiate receptors in gut to slow motility
  • overuse can lead to euphoria and physical dependence -usually combined with atropine to discourage abuse by inducing adverse effects if taken in high doses
594
Q

leser trelat sign

A
  • usually a sign of internal malignancy (typically GI cancer)
  • seborrheic keratosis all over frontal trunk of body
595
Q

alendronate, ibandronate, risedronate, and zoledronate

A

bisphosphonates

  • pyrophosphate analogs that bind hydroxyapatite in bone, inhibiting osteoclast activity
  • used in osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, paget disease of bone, metastatic bone disease, and osteogenesis imperfecta
  • may cause esophagitis and kinda a pain to take cause you have to take with water and remain upright for 30 mins after, can also cause osteonecrosis of jaw, and atypical femoral stress fractures
  • if taken IV can cause flu-like symptoms
596
Q

what can cause foamy frothy urine

A

proteinuria or bile salts in urine

597
Q

ezetimibe mechanism of action

A

blocks cholesterol absorption on brush boarder of small intestine

598
Q

what causes wrinkles?

A

decrease in collagen fibril production

  • this is due to UVA penetration causing photoaging due to the reactive oxygen species activating inflammatory cell receptors and nuclear transcription factors (leading to decreased production)
  • metalloproteinases and collagenases are upregulated to degrade type I and III collagen and elastin
599
Q

where are uva and uvb light absorbed?

A

UVB –> upper dermis and contribute to sunburn and increased risk of malignancy

UVA –> deeper into skin and cause photoaging (leads to decreased collagen fibril production and upregulation of metalloproteinases) that degrade type I and III collagen and elastin

Note: photoaging is first seen with thinning of epidermis and increased crosslinking of collagen with a deposition of collagen breakdown products

600
Q

explain the difference between brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform, schizophrenia, schizoaffective, and delusional disorder

A

BPD –> one day to one month of sudden onset psychosis, full return to function

schizophreniform –> one month to 6 months of schizophrenia, functional decline not required

schizophrenia –> more than 6 months with included functional decline

schizoaffective disorder –> mood disorder + schizophrenia

delusional disorder –> more than 1 month of delusion(s) with no other psychotic symptoms

601
Q

what type of infectyions should you be most worried about in a neutropenic pt?

A

pts own endogenous bacterial flora (fever is only sign of infection)

602
Q

diffusely homogenous pale eosinophilic cytoplasm in hepatocytes

A

hepatits B (ground glass appearance)

603
Q

pathogenesis of diffuse esophageal spasm

A

impaired neural inhibition

604
Q

markers for chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

b cell markers: CD 19,20,23 with smudge cells seen on peripheral blood smear

605
Q

chronic myeloid leukemia, what cells are increased?

A

increased number of granulocytes (neutrophils at different ages of maturation)
-low leukocyte/neurtrophil alk phos

606
Q

arthritis, diarrhea, fever and maybe sometimes hyperpigmentation of skin

A

tropheryma whippelii (whipple disease)

607
Q

most susceptible cells in the brain to ischemia

A

CA1 pyramidal neurons of the hippocampus (can cause anterograde amnesia and disorientation to place and time)

608
Q

what to think of with a new onset of left varicocele associated with flank pain and hematuria

A

renal vein thrombosis possibly due to hypercoagulable state (in nephrotic syndrome for example)
-loss of anticoagulant factors can increase the risk of thrombotic and thromboembolic complications

609
Q

what is the cause of acute appendicitis?

A

obstruction of the lumen of the appendix

-then a bacterial infection can result from the backing up of the poop

610
Q

prostate cancer that metastasizes to the spinal cord and causes compression

A

results from local extension of vertebral metastases into the epidural space

611
Q

pilocytic astrocytoma

A

cystic tumor usually in kids and you will see rosenthal fibers and granular eosinophilic bodies

612
Q

pancytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly (extramedullary hematopoiesis), dry tap, and teardrop cells (aka dacryocytes)
-associated with clonal expansion of megakaryocytes –> secrete cytokine TGF-beta

A

primary myelofibrosis

613
Q

what causes actinic keratosis and what is it a precursor for

A

sun exposure and squamous cell carcinoma

614
Q

what medication can you give to a pt with spasticity

A

baclofen (gaba-b agonist) –> also used for dystonia and multiple sclerosis, acts on the BACk
tizanidine (alpha2 agonist)

615
Q

if someone has a foreign object stuck in their throat like a fishbone or something where is this and what problem can it cause if the nearby nerve is messed up

A

gets lodged in the piriform recess and may cause damage to the superior/internal laryngeal nerve (affects afferent limb of cough reflex) –> CN10

616
Q

bone metastases can be osteoblastic, mixed, or osteolytic

A

Osteoblastic (SCLEROTIC): prostate, small cell lung cancer, hodgkin lymphoma

Mixed: GI and breast

Osteolytic (LUCENT): MM, non-small cell lung cancer, non-hodgkin lymphoma, renal cell carcinoma, melanoma

617
Q

rhabdomyolysis

A

granular muddy brown casts seen due to skeletal muscle necrosis causing acute tubular necrosis

  • direct cytotoxicity and renal vasoconstriction
  • can be due to crush injury, prolonged muscle activity (seizure, marathon), drugs (tatins, amphetamines, heroin)
618
Q

what property of a drug makes it more likely to be metabolized and cleared by the liver rather than the kidney

A

liver = more lipophilic drugs

619
Q

lidocaine and mexiletine

A
  • class 1B antiarrhythmic drug
  • binds inactivated sodium channels and rapidly dissociates –> preferentially binds to rapidly depolarizing and ischemic ventricular myocardial fibers
  • suppresses v.tach induced by rapidly depolarizing and ischemic myocardium
620
Q

explain the high dose dexamethasone suppression test

A

ectopic sources will show no difference in cortisol or ACTH levels

621
Q

what type of cancer can you treat with vitamin A derivatives

A

APL/AML (treated with all-trans-retinoic acid)

622
Q

what type of cells line the ventricles?

A

ependymal cells

623
Q

lateral displacement of proximal fracture fragment during supracondylar humeral fractures

A

radial nerve injury

624
Q

in a pt with mitral stenosis why would the left recurrent laryngeal nerve become impinged and what would this cause

A

this causes left atrial enlargement which can cause too much compression on the nerve causing hoarseness and left vocal cord paresis

625
Q

avoidant personality disorder

A

they WANT to be with people but avoid it due to fear of criticism and rejection

626
Q

two possible diagnoses when seeing an increase in endogenous insulin

A
  1. insulinoma

2. sulfonylurea medication (increases endogenous insulin release)

627
Q

what do you see on IF in goodpasatures?

A

linear IgG and C3 deposits

  • also antibodies to alpha 3 chain to type IV collagen
  • treat with plasmapheresis
628
Q

whats the first step of tertiary syphillus?

A

vasa vasorum endarteritis

629
Q

here is the problem, list the nerve involved

  1. weakness in knee flexion
  2. weakness in dorsiflexion and numbness on dorsal foot and posterolateral calf
  3. weakness in plantar flexion and inversion, absent ankle reflex
A
  1. sciatic nerve
  2. common peroneal nerve
  3. tibial nerve
630
Q

what type of neoplasm can a blue-ish tumor under the nail be?

A

glomus tumor/glomangioma (thermoregulation)

melanoma (pigmentation)

631
Q

most common benign vascular tumors in adults

A

cherry hemangiomas (small, bright red, papular lesions)

632
Q

whats the purpose of Protein A

A

virulence factor on staph aureus that binds to Fc of IgG leading to impaired complement activation, opsonization, and phagocytosis

633
Q

indole + (what bacteria)

A

ecoli

634
Q

signet ring on histology slide of stomach, what do you think?
-kinda looks like a circle with two darker sides (nucleus pushed to the side)

A

GASTRIC ADENOCARCINOMA

  • no glands formed, just abundant mucin droplets that push nucleus to one side
  • diffuse involvement of stomach wall due to loss of E-cadherin
  • leather bottle stomach –> linitis plastica
635
Q

how do you treat rickettsia species

A

doxycycline–> blocks 30S ribosomal subunit

636
Q

rapidly progressive dementia, myoclonus, death within a year of symptom onset
spongiform changes in brain (uniform intracellular vaculoes throughout gray matter), widespread neuronal loss and no inflammatory response

A

creutzfeldt-jakob disease (alpha helix to beta sheet)

-most cases are sporadic but they can also be inherited or iatrogenic

637
Q

flulike illness, conjunctival suffusion (noninflammatory), corkscrew shaped organism

A

leptospira (via water sports and being in contact with contaminated water)

638
Q

IgE-dependent vs independent mast cell degranulation

A

dependent –> due to environmental exposure/food/beta-lactam/sulfonamide antibiotics

independent –> due to opiods, radiocontrast agents, and vancomycin (work by activating PKA and PI3 kinase)

639
Q

renal cell carcinoma

-risk factors and what gets obstructed

A
  • smoking, hypertension, obesity, toxin exposure
  • inferior vena cava gets obstructed
  • also note that the tumor can sometimes make EPO which causes erythrocytosis
640
Q

mannitol

A

osmotic diuretic (increases plasma or tubular fluid osmolality)

  • causes extraction of water from interstitial spaces around the body to go be peed out
  • this can reduce edema and intracranial pressure in pts with cerebral edema
  • severe toxicity is pulmonary edema
641
Q

main causes of toxic megacolon and how will the pt present

A

ulcerative colitis and c.diff

abdominal pain/distension, bloody diarrhea, ever, shock (hypotension and tachypnea)

best way to see this is via x-ray

642
Q

black vs brown gallstone pigments

A

brown –> biliary tract infection

black –> chronic hemolytic anemia, increased cycling of bilirubin

643
Q

tumor in metaphyses of long bone, worsening pain and soft tissue swelling, lytic bone lesion

A

osteosarcoma (pleomorphic spindle shaped tumor that generate osteoid and thin trabeculae of neoplastic bone)

  • malignant proliferation of osteoblasts
  • risk factors: familial retinoblastoma, paget disease, and radiation exposure
644
Q

what type of ALL causes a mediastinal mass making it difficult to breath, swallow, or it can also cause superior vena cava syndrome

A

T-cell ALL

645
Q

pathogenesis in diabetic gastroparesis

A

destruction of enteric neurons due to chronic hyperglycemia leading to impaired peristalsis

646
Q

how do heparin and enoxaparin work and how do they differ?

A

they bind to antithrombin III to activate it so it can go bind to factor 10a and stop it from converting prothrombin into thrombin (preventing coagulation)

heparin is a high molecular weight so it can also bind to factor 10a and facilitate binding

647
Q

anicteric

A

no jaundice accompanied. this is usually seen in a pt who had hepA as a child and grows up with IgG titer but no active symptoms

648
Q

trabecular thinning with fewer interconnections of bone is seen in what disorder?

A

osteoporosis

649
Q

subperiosteal resorption with cortical thinning of bone is seen in what disorder?

A

hyperparathyroidism leading to osteoporosis but since the cause is different its pathogenesis differs as well

650
Q

what bone structure is seen in someone who has osteopetrosis?

A

“marble bone disease”

-spongiosa filling medullary canals with no mature trabeculae

651
Q

how does bone look in vitamin D deficiencty

A

osteoid matrix accumulation around trabeculae

652
Q

lamellar bone structure with mosaic pattern is associated with what disease?

A

pagets disease of bone

653
Q

hamartoma

A

common benign tumor made of cartilage, fibrous/fatty tissue

-most common benign tumor of lung

654
Q

what can you use to check if someone has osteitis deformans (paget disase of bone)

A

increased alk phos

-increased osteoclasts followed by increased osteoblasts

655
Q

tick-bite that leads to mulberry shaped intracytoplasmic inclusions in monocytes

A

Ehrlichiosis (Ehrlichia chaffeensis)

-transmitted by the Ixodes tick (same as lyme disease tick) or the lonestar tick

656
Q

dancing eyes and dancing feet tumor in children with elevated catecholamine metabolites

A

neuroblastoma (normotensive)

N-myc oncogene = poor prognosis

657
Q

what two substances promote angiogenesis

A

VEGF and FGF2

658
Q

what type of cancers are usually associated with glandular cells

A

adenocarcinoma

659
Q

facial edema/plethora and venous distension in neck veins and upper abdomen

A

superior vena cava syndrome (most common causes are lung cancer and non-hodgkin lymphoma) –> some mediastinal mass is most common but another reason could be due to superior sulcus tumor (less common)

660
Q

biceps and brachioradialis reflex

A

C5-C6

661
Q

what does a bruit mean

A

that you have turbulent blood flow and possible stenosis of whatever blood vessel youre listening to

662
Q

vitiligo

A

partial or complete loss of epidermal melanocytes

663
Q

risperidone

A

2nd gen. atypical antipsychotic

  • used for schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
  • can cause hyperprolactinemia (amenorrhea, galactorrhea, gynecomastia)
664
Q

painless unilateral visual disturbances with a flame like hemorrhage in the eye… underlying cause?

A

hypertension (hypertensive renal hemorrhage)

665
Q

two main causes of acute pancreatitis and if those are negative whats the next test you should run and why

A
  1. gall stones
  2. alcoholism (macrocytosis and AST:ALT ratio > 2 are indirect indicators of chronic alcohol consumption)

test for triglycerides cause if they are over 1000 they can cause direct injury to pancreatic acinar cells

666
Q

painless blood int he urine and and peeing out malignant cells with no kidney abnormalities

A

urothelial transitional cell bladder cancer
major risk factors: cigarette smoking, occupational exposure to rubber plastics, aromatic amine-dyes, textiles, and leather
-cyclophosphamide therapy also increases risk

667
Q

causes of primary vs secondary spontaneous pneumothorax

A

primary –> apical subpleural blebs (in tall thin men)

secondary –> diseased lung (bullae in emphysema, infections), mechanical ventilation with use of high pressures leading to barotrauma

668
Q

rising fever, abdominal pain, rose spots on trunk and abdomen, hepatosplenomegaly

-possible intestinal bleeding and perforation

A

salmonella typhi (typhoid fever)

669
Q

what causes hydatid cysts “eggshell calcification” in the liver and what can happen to it?

A

echinococcus granulosis via ingestion of eggs in food contaminated with dog feces and the cyst can rupture and cause anaphylaxis

670
Q

spike and dome appearance on EM in kidney

A

membranous nephropathy

671
Q

what medication can you give to CF pts with phe508 deletion?

A

lumacaftor (corrects misfolded proteins and improves their transport to cell surface)

ivacaftor (opens Cl- channels to improve chloride transport)

672
Q

whats the most common mechanism of sudden cardiac death in a pt within the first 48hrs of a MI?

A

v. fib

673
Q

inflammation of what causes acne vulgaris

A

pilosebaceous follicles

674
Q

compare and contrast psoriasis to atopic dermatitis in an adult

A

psoriasis –> scaly (on back of arm/elbow), erythematous plaques, neutrophilic infiltration, positive auzputzs sign, dilated blood vessels

atopic dermatitis (eczema) –> itchy dry skin (on flexure surfaces), eosinophilic infiltration

both have hyperkeratosis

675
Q

pt presents with increased neutrophils and what seems like a cold or something bacterial but only alk phos is slightly elevated

A

leukemoid reaction

-expect to see PMN with Dohle bodies (basophilic granules in the PMNs)

676
Q

list the class 1A antiarrhythmics

A

quinidine, procainamide, and disopyramide

677
Q

cardiac ischemia, when does that part of the heart stop beating and when does the damage become irreversible

A

stops beating after 1min

becomes irreversible after 30mins

678
Q

painless obstructive jaundice (elevated bilirubin, dark urine, pale stool)

A

PANCREATIC ADENOCARCINOMA

  • smoking is the most important risk factor
  • other risk factors include advanced age, chronic pancreatitis, and genetic predisposition (Peutz-Jeghers syndrome)
679
Q

hemeangioma on the butt of an infant that is slowly growing in size

A

strawberry (capillary) hemeangioma

680
Q

absence of CD55 on red blood cells

A

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

  • compliment mediated hemolysis due to mutated PIGA (helps synthesize GPI)
  • hemolytic anemia (hemoglobinuria), pancytopenia, and thrombosis at atypical sites
  • chronic hemolysis can cause iron deposition in the kidney (hemosiderosis)
681
Q

what is the pathogenesis of the problem when a child has nonbilious vomiting

A

pyloric stenosis which is due to smooth muscle cell hypertrophy

682
Q

infant doesnt develop social smile and fails to track objects

A

infantile cataracts due to galactokinase deficiency

683
Q

leucovorin

A

aka. folinic acid
- can reverse toxicity of methotrexate in non-cancerous cells in gastric mucosa and bone marrow
- serves as reduced form of folic acid that does not require dihydrofolate reductase

684
Q

whats a secondary cause someone would develop pulmonary hypertension

A

prolonged untreated obstructive sleep apnea