Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

zz - step 4 - uworld > UW14 > Flashcards

UW14 Flashcards

1
Q

New borns of mothers with active Hep B require what vaccinations?

A

Passive Hep B Immune Globulin and active immunization with HBV vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Positive skew

A

Mean > Median > Mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Negative Skew

A

Mode > Median > Mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Polycythemia labs

A

Hct > 52% in Men and >48% women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

causes of relative polycythemia

A

Dehydration or excessive diuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Polycythemia vera

A

Increased in hct and increase in all 3 cell lines (RBC, granulocytes, platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

labs in hypoxia

A

SaO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hirsutism

A

Excessive mae pattern hair growth. Due to inreased androgen production, local increased conversion of Testosterone to DHT or higher sensitivity of hair follicles to DHT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Causes of increased androgen production in women

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing syndrome, Ovarian and adrenal tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

First line treatment for PCOS

A

OCPS ( decrease LH to decrease androgen production)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does calcium from the SR bind to?

A

Troponin (moves tropomyosin out of the way) reveals myosin binding site on actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Replication of HBV

A

Partially dsDNA is repaired and serves as a template for trascription into an intermediate + sense ss RNA which then serves as a template for translation of viral proteins and reverse transcription into DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Replication of ParvoB19

A

ssDNA –> dsDNA –> ssDNA progeny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Replication of HSV

A

dsDNA –> dsDNA –> dsDNA progeny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Replication of polio

A

ssRNA+ –> -RNA template –>+RNA progeny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Replication of HIV

A

ssRNA + –> dsDNA template –> ssRNA progeny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Replication of influenza

A

ss RNA - –> +RNA template –> ssRNA progeny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Motor innervation of the tongue

A

Hypoglossal nerve (CNXII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sensory innervation of tongue

A

Anterior 2/3: Mandibular (V3). Posterior 1/3 (Glossopharyngeal CN9). Tongue Root (Vagus CN10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Taste sensation of tongue

A

Anterior 2/3: Chorda tympani (7). Posterior 1/3: Glossopharyngeal (9) Root: Vagus (10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which type of RNA contain dihydrouracil residues

A

Transfer RNA (D arm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Thymide pseudouridine and cytidine is contained in what type of RNA

A

Transfer RNA (T arm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

tRNA is the only RNA species to contain what nucleoside?

A

Thymidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

tRNAs contain what sequence at their 3’ end?

A

CCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what type of RNA contains a poly A tail and 5’ methylguanosine cap?

A

mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the function of the 3’CCA region of tRNA

A

carries amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

low set ears, overlapping fingers, small mandible, foot deformity

A

Edwards (Trisomy 18)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

cleft lip and palate, polydactylyl, omphalocele

A

Patau (Trisomy 13)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which vitamin D is formed during sun exposure

A

Cholecalciferol (D3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

labs in primary hyperparathyroidism

A

high ca, low phosphate, hypercalceuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Subperiosteal erosins in phalanges, salt and pepper skull and osteolytic lesions in long bones

A

Hyperparathyroidism ( subperiosteal thinning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

bone pain, renal stones, peptic ulcers

A

hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Disorganized lamellar bone structure

A

Paget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Osteoid matrix accumulation around trabeculae

A

Vitamin D deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Persistence of primary spongiosa in medullary cavity with no mature trabeculae

A

Osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)

36
Q

Side effects of TCA

A

Convulsions, Coma, cardiotoxicity. Anti- muscarinic effects. (inhibition of presynaptic neurotransmitter, block Cardic Na channels, block histamine H1 receptors)

37
Q

what are TCAs used for?

A

Major depression, fibromyalgia (amytriptyline), OCD (Clomipramine)

38
Q

First generation H1 blockers

A

Diphenhydramine, dimenhydrinate, chlorpheniramine (en + ine/ate)

39
Q

Second generation H2 Blockers

A

Loratidine, fexofenadine, desloratidine, cetirizine (Ends in “adine”)

40
Q

Flucytosine

A

converted by fungal cytosine deaminase to 5FU for treatment of cryptococcal infections (with amphotericin B)

41
Q

What causes the outflow obstruction in HCM

A

Mitral valve cusp and interventricular septum

42
Q

Intimal streak

A

earliest lesion of atherosclerosis (major cause of AAA)

43
Q

Intimal tear

A

initiates dissecting aortic aneurysm

44
Q

Medial degeneration

A

formation of elastic tissue and separation of elastic and fibromuscular components of the media. (Marfan)

45
Q

Medial inflammation

A

results in arteritis

46
Q

why does colchicine have GI side effects?

A

Impairs microtubules in GI mucosa causing diarrhea, nausea, vomiting and abdminal pain

47
Q

Obesity, high estrogen, high androgens, infertility

A

PCOS

48
Q

acne, hirsutism, male pattern balding, insulin resistance, obesity, dyslipidemia

A

PCOS

49
Q

Clomiphene citrate

A

Selective estrogen modulator. Prevents negative feedback inhibition by estrogen to increase FSH and LH–> ovulation

50
Q

high levels of serum IgE, peripheral eosinophilia, hx of allergic disorders

A

atopic dermatitis

51
Q

Allergic triad

A

allergic rhinitis, asthma, atopic dermatitis

52
Q

Burketts lymphoma is associated with what translocation

A

8:14. c-myc (transcription factor)

53
Q

Follicular lymphoma is associated with which translocation

A

14;18. BCL2 (apotosis inhibitor)

54
Q

CML is associated with which translocation

A

9:22. tyrosine kinase (c-abl)

55
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with what translocation

A

11:14. cyclin D1 (promotes G1 to S)

56
Q

Hyperextensible skin, hypermobile joints, berry aneurysms

A

Ehlers Danlos (defect in lysyl hydroxylase leading to a deficiency in Collagen)

57
Q

hyper elastic joints, tall, long arms

A

Marfans ( defect in fibrillin which normaly forms scaffolding for elastin)

58
Q

which clotting factor has the shortest half life

A

Factor 7

59
Q

why is PT prologed before PTT in liver cirrhosis

A

Factor 7 has the shortest half life

60
Q

What neurotransmitter is decreased in Huntington

A

GABA

61
Q

Side effect of metformin

A

Lactic acidosis

62
Q

Contraindication for metformin

A

Liver dysfunction, congestive heart failure, alcoholism, sepsis ( d/t lactic acidosis)

63
Q

Mothers who are blood type A or B make predominantly what type of antibodies

A

IgM

64
Q

Mothers who are blood type O make predominantly what type of antibodies

A

IgG

65
Q

important complication in Ulcerative colitis

A

Toxic megacolon

66
Q

Tetrahydrobiopterin is a cofactor for the synthesis of what molecules

A

Tyrosine, dopa, serotonin, NO

67
Q

ambiguous genitalia, hypertension, hypokalemia

A

11a OH deficiency

68
Q

female with normal genitalia, hypertension and hypokalemia

A

17a OH deficiency

69
Q

Undervirilized male with hypertension and hypokalemia

A

17a OH deficiency

70
Q

How can testicular cancers cause increased sweating and heat intolerance?

A

increase in hCG can activate TSH receptor (shares similar homology)

71
Q

Tendon xanthomas and xantheasma

A

Hyper-Cholesterolemia

72
Q

Skin xanthoma, recurrent acute pancreatitis

A

Hyper-Triglyceridemia

73
Q

Which familal dyslipidemia has an increased risk of coronary artery disease

A

Familial Hyper-Cholesterolemia (not in hyperTG)

74
Q

Defect in familial chylomicronemia

A

Lipoprotein Lipase or ApoCII (inc. chylomicrons)

75
Q

Defect in Family hypercholesterolemia

A

LDL receptor or ApoB100 (inc. LDL)

76
Q

muscle weakness that improves with use and Hyporeflexia

A

Lambert eaton myasthenic syndrome

77
Q

Gross painless hematuria

A

Urothelial cancer

78
Q

Cryoprecipitate contains which clotting factors

A

8, 13, vWF, fibrinogen

79
Q

Mechanism of Niacin in hyperlipidemia

A

decreases VLDL synthesis

80
Q

Mechanism of statins

A

HMG coA reductase inhibitor ( decrease cholesterol synthesis which leads to increase in LDL uptake)

81
Q

when is a result considered statistically significant

A

corresponding CI must NOT contain the null value (RR=1)

82
Q

subdural hematoma with bilateral retinal hemorrhages in an infant

A

Shaken baby syndrome

83
Q

Charcot Bouchard aneurysms can lead to

A

intraparachymal hemorrhage

84
Q

ulcer in distal duodenum

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

85
Q

PUD ulcers are located

A

lesser curvature

86
Q

Typical duodenal ulcers are located

A

within 3 cm of the pylorus

zz - step 4 - uworld (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions