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METHODS > UT LEVEL III > Flashcards

UT LEVEL III Flashcards

QA ASNT

1
Q
  1. In an ultrasonic test system where signal amplitudes are displayed, an advantage of a frequency independent attenuator over a continuously variable gain control is that the:
    a. pulse shape distortion is less.
    b. signal amplitude measured using the attenuator
    is independent of frequency.
    c. dynamic range of the system is decreased.
    d. effect of amplification threshold is avoided. A86
A

b. signal amplitude measured using the attenuator

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2
Q

2.An amplifier in which received echo pulses must exceed a certain threshold voltage before they can be indicated might be used to:
a. suppress amplifier noise, unimportant scatter echoes, or small discontinuity echoes that are ono consequence.
b. provide a display with nearly ideal vertical linearity characteristics.
c. compensate for the unavoidable effects of materattenuation losses.
d. provide distance-amplitude correction automatically.

A

a. suppress amplifier noise, unimportant scatter echoes, or small discontinuity echoes that are ono consequence.

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3
Q
  1. The output voltage from a saturated amplifier is:
    a. 180° out of phase from the input voltage.
    b. lower than the input voltage.
    c. nonlinear with respect to the input voltage.
    d. below saturation.
    G.176, 182
A

c. nonlinear with respect to the input voltage.

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4
Q
  1. The transmitted pulse at the output of the pulser usually has a voltage of 100 to 1000 V, whereas the
    voltages of the echoes at the input of the amplifier are on the order of:
    a. 0.001-1 V
    b. 1-5 V
    c. 10 V
    d. 50 V
    G.174-176
A

a. 0.001-1 V

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5
Q
  1. The intended purpose of the adjustable calibrated attenuator of an ultrasonic instrument is to:
    a. control transducer damping.
    b. increase the dynamic range of the instrument.
    c. broaden the frequency range.
    d. attenuate the voltage applied to the transducer.
    A.86
A

b. increase the dynamic range of the instrument.

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following might result in increased transmission of ultrasound within a coarse-grained
    material?
    a. Perform the examination with a smaller diameter transducer.
    b. Perform the examination after a grain-refining heat treatment.
    c. Change from a contact examination to an immersion examination.
    d. Change from a longitudinal to a transverse wave.
    B.129
A

b. Perform the examination after a grain-refining heat treatment.

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7
Q
  1. The term that is used to determine the relative transmittance and reflectance of ultrasonic energy at
    an interface is called:
    a. acoustic attenuation.
    b. interface refraction.
    c. acoustic impedance ratio.
    d. acoustic frequency.
    B.16
A

c. acoustic impedance ratio.

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8
Q
  1. In a forging, discontinuities associated with nonmetallic inclusions can most accurately be described as being:
    a. oriented parallel to the major axis.
    b. parallel to the minor axis.
    c. aligned with forging flow lines.
    d. oriented at approximately 45° to the forging direction.
    G.340
A

c. aligned with forging flow lines.

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9
Q
  1. The preferred method of ultrasonically inspecting a complex-shaped forging:
    a. is an automated immersion test of the finished forging using an instrument containing a calibrated attenuator in conjunction with a C-scan recorder.
    b. combines thorough inspection of the billet prior to forging with a careful inspection of the finished part in all areas where the shape permits.
    c. is a manual contact test of the finished part.
    d. is an automated immersion test of the billet prior to forging.
    F.504
A

b. combines thorough inspection of the billet prior to forging with a careful inspection of the finished part in all areas where the shape permits.

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10
Q
  1. When maximum sensitivity is required from a transducer:
    a. a straight beam unit should be used.
    b. large-diameter crystals are required.
    c. the piezoelectric element should be driven at its fundamental resonant frequency.
    d. the bandwidth of the transducer should be as large as possible.
    A.61-62
A

c. the piezoelectric element should be driven at its fundamental resonant frequency.

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11
Q
  1. The sensitivity of an ultrasonic test system:
    a. depends on the transducer, pulser, and amplifier used.
    b. decreases as the frequency is increased.
    c. increases as the resolution increases.
    d. is not related to mechanical damping or the transducer.
    B.46-47, 56
A

a. depends on the transducer, pulser, and amplifier used.

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12
Q
  1. The ability of a test system to separate the back surface echo and the echo from a small discontinuity just above this back surface:
    a. depends primarily upon the pulse length generated from the instrument.
    b. is not related to the surface roughness of the part under inspection.
    c. is primarily related to the thickness of the part under inspection.
    d. is usually improved by using a larger diameter transducer.
    A.183
A

a. depends primarily upon the pulse length generated from the instrument.

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13
Q
  1. Transducer sensitivity is most often determined by:
    a. calculations based on frequency and thickness of the piezoelectric element.
    b. the amplitude of the response from an artificial discontinuity.
    c. comparing it to a similar transducer made by the same manufacturer.
    d. determining the ringing time of the transducer.
    B.102-104, 106
A

b. the amplitude of the response from an artificial discontinuity.

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14
Q
  1. Side-drilled holes are frequently used as reference reflectors for:
    a. distance-amplitude calibration for shear waves.
    b. area-amplitude calibration.
    c. thickness calibration of plate.
    d. determining near-surface solutions.
    A.194-198
A

a. distance-amplitude calibration for shear waves.

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15
Q
  1. Notches provide good reference discontinuities when a UT examination is conducted to primarily detect discontinuities such as:
    a. porosity in rolled plate.
    b. inadequate penetration at the root of a weld.
    c. weld porosity.
    d. internal inclusions.
    A.197-198
A

b. inadequate penetration at the root of a weld.

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16
Q
  1. The difference between a compression and shear wave is:
    a. quantitative measure.
    b. relative particle vibration direction.
    c. qualitative measure.
    d. amplitude.
    B.10-12; G.7
A

b. relative particle vibration direction.

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17
Q
  1. The particle motion for rayleigh waves is usually described as:
    a. sinusoidal.
    b. circular.
    c. elliptical.
    d. shear.
    A.45; B.66; C.1-2
A

c. elliptical.

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18
Q
  1. Based upon wave theory and ignoring attenuation losses, the echo amplitude of a finite reflector is:
    a. directly proportional to the distance to the reflector.
    b. inversely proportional to the distance to the reflector.
    c. directly proportional to the square of the diameter of the circular reflector.
    d. inversely proportional to the square of the diameter of the circular reflector.
    G.97
A

c. directly proportional to the square of the diameter of the circular reflector.

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19
Q
  1. The rate generator in B-scan equipment will invariably be directly connected to the:
    a. display intensity circuit.
    b. pulser circuit.
    c. RF amplifier circuit.
    d. horizontal sweep circuit.
    B.3, 79-82
A

b. pulser circuit.

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20
Q
  1. In A-scan equipment, the RF pulser output voltage is normally in the range of:
    a. 1-10 V.
    b. 10-100 V.
    c. 100-1000 V.
    d. 1000-3000 V.
    B.79
A

c. 100-1000 V.

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21
Q
  1. When contact testing, an increase in tightness of a shrink fit to a hollow shaft will cause the ratio of the back reflection to the metal-to-metal interface reflection to:
    a. increase.
    b. decrease.
    c. remain unchanged.
    d. not be predicted as the response is material-dependent.
    G.475
A

a. increase.

22
Q
  1. The frequency that can best distinguish the difference between a large planar discontinuity and four stacked (multiple-layered) laminations in rolled plate is:
    a. 0.5 MHz
    b. 1 MHz
    c. 2.25 MHz
    d. 5 MHz
    B.85
A

d. 5 MHz

23
Q
  1. During immersion examination, when evaluating the response from a contoured surface of a part, irrelevant indications due to the contour are most likely to appear as:
    a. sharp, spiked signal indications.
    b. irregular signal indications.
    c. broad-based signal indications.
    d. grass or hash.
    A.278
A

c. broad-based signal indications.

24
Q
  1. The pulse applied to the electrodes of the ultrasonic transducer is:
    a. electrical.
    b. mechanical.
    c. electromechanical.
    d. piezoelectrical.
    A.78
A

a. electrical.

25
Q
  1. In calibrating an ultrasonic test instrument using the responses from each of the area-amplitude type reference blocks, the determination of the:
    a. vertical range is obtained.
    b. pulse range is obtained.
    c. resolving range is obtained.
    d. horizontal range is obtained.
    A.195-196
A

a. vertical range is obtained.

26
Q
  1. Test sensitivity corrections for metal distance and discontinuity area responses are accomplished by
    using:
    a. an area-amplitude set of blocks.
    b. a distance-amplitude and an area amplitude set of blocks.
    c. a distance-amplitude set of blocks.
    d. steel balls of varying diameter.
    A.195-196
A

b. a distance-amplitude and an area amplitude set of blocks.

27
Q
  1. The time from the start of the ultrasonic pulse until the reverberations completely decay limits the maximum usable:
    a. pulse time-discontinuity rate.
    b. pulser/receiver rate.
    c. pulse repetition rate.
    d. modified pulse-time rate.
    A.71-76
A

c. pulse repetition rate.

28
Q
  1. Rough surfaces can cause undesirable effects, which are noticeable when parts are tested ultrasonically, including:
    a. annular maxima rings.
    b. an increase in the width of front face echo and consequent loss of resolving power.
    c. acoustical mismatch.
    d. asymmetrical modes.
    A.224; C.41-42
A

b. an increase in the width of front face echo and consequent loss of resolving power.

29
Q
  1. Rough surfaces cause the echo amplitude from discontinuities within the part to:
    a. increase.
    b. decrease.
    c. not change.
    d. change frequency.
    A.202
A

b. decrease.

30
Q
  1. The resonant frequency of a 2 cm (0.79 in.) thick plate of naval brass (V = 4.43 × 10x5 cm/s) is:
    a. 0.903 MHz.
    b. 0.443 MHz.
    c. 0.222 MHz.
    d. 0.111 MHz.

G.128, 233

A

d. 0.111 MHz.

31
Q
  1. Resonance testing equipment generally uses:
    a. pulsed longitudinal waves.
    b. continuous longitudinal waves.
    c. pulsed shear waves.
    d. continuous shear waves.
    A.478, 505
A

b. continuous longitudinal waves.

32
Q
  1. To eliminate the decrease of sensitivity close to a wall that is parallel to the beam direction, the transducer used should be:
    a. as small as possible.
    b. of as low frequency as possible.
    c. large and with a frequency as small as possible.
    d. large and with a frequency as high as possible.
    A.15
A

d. large and with a frequency as high as possible.

33
Q
  1. Which of the following transducer materials makes the best transmitter?
    a. Quartz.
    b. Lithium sulfate.
    c. Barium titanate.
    d. Lead titanate.
    B.46; F.255
A

c. Barium titanate.

34
Q
  1. Of the transducer materials listed below, the most efficient receiver is:
    a. quartz.
    b. lithium sulfate.
    c. barium titanate.
    d. lead metaniobate.
    B.46; F.255
A

b. lithium sulfate.

35
Q
  1. The concentration of energy in the far field of a transducer beam is:
    a. greatest at the outer edges of the beam.
    b. greatest at the center of the beam.
    c. the same at the outer edges as in the center of the beam.
    d. directly proportional to beam width.
    A.99, 211
A

b. greatest at the center of the beam.

36
Q
  1. An extensive application of shear waves in ultrasonic testing is the inspection of:
    a. welds.
    b. plate.
    c. pipe and tubing.
    d. castings.
    A.219
A

a. welds.

37
Q
  1. In angle beam shear wave testing, skip distance will __________ as the thickness of the test specimen is increased.
    a. decrease
    b. not change
    c. increase
    d. decrease by half with double thickness
    G.299-303
A

c. increase

38
Q
  1. The thickness range of UT resonance thickness gages can be increased by:
    a. using large transducers.
    b. operating at the fundamental frequency.
    c. operating at a harmonic frequency.
    d. increasing the voltage.
    A.185-186
A

c. operating at a harmonic frequency.

39
Q
  1. The ability of transducers to detect echoes from small discontinuities is a definition for:
    a. resolution.
    b. sensitivity.
    c. definition.
    d. gain.
    A.564
A

b. sensitivity.

40
Q
  1. The length of the near field for a 2.5 cm (1 in.) diameter, 5MHz transducer placed in oil (V = 1.4 × 10x5cm/s) is approximately:
    a. 0.028 cm (0.01 in.).
    b. 6.25 cm (2.5 in.).
    c. 22.3 cm (8.8 in.).
    d. 55.8 cm (22 in.).
    A.210
A

d. 55.8 cm (22 in.).

41
Q
  1. From the equation for the length of the near field, it can be determined that the near field can be minimized by:
    a. decreasing water travel distance.
    b. increasing transducer diameter.
    c. decreasing the size of reference targets.
    d. decreasing test frequency.
    A.210
A

d. decreasing test frequency.

42
Q
  1. In a water (VL=1.5 × 10x5cm/s) immersion test, ultrasonic energy is transmitted into steel (VT= 3.2 ×
    10X5 cm/s) at an incident angle of 14°. What is the refracted shear wave within the material?

a. 13°
b. 35°
c. 31°
d. 53°
A.52-53

A

c. 31°

43
Q
  1. The acoustic impedance for brass (V = 4.43 ×10X5cm/s, p = 8.42 gm/cm3 ) is:
    a. 0.53 × 10x5 gm/cm2s
    b. 1.9 × 10x5 gm/cm2s
    c. 9.4 × 10x5 gm/cm2s
    d. 37 × 10x5 gm/cm2s
    A.556
A

d. 37 × 10x5 gm/cm2s

44
Q
  1. The principal attributes that determine the differences in ultrasonic velocities among materials are:
    a. frequency and wavelength.
    b. thickness and travel time.
    c. elasticity and density.
    d. chemistry and permeability.
    B.10
A

c. elasticity and density.

45
Q
  1. What would be the wavelength of the energy in lead (V = 2.1 × 10x5 cm/s) if it is tested with a 25 MHz
    transducer?

a. 119 cm (47 in.)
b. 0.525 cm (0.21 in.)
c. 0.0119 cm (0.005 in.)
d. 0.0084 cm (0.003 in.)
A.37

A

d. 0.0084 cm (0.003 in.)

46
Q
  1. What is the transducer half-angle beam spread of a 1.25 cm diameter, 2.25 MHz transducer in water
    (V = 1.5 × 10x5cm/s)?
    a. 2.5°
    b. 3.75°
    c. 37.5°
    d. 40.5°

A.211

A

b. 3.75°

47
Q
  1. Wavelength may be defined as:
    a. frequency divided by velocity.
    b. the distance along a wavetrain from peak to trough.
    c. the distance from one point to the next identical point along the waveform.
    d. the distance along a wavetrain from an area of high particle motion to one of low particle motion.
    A.567; C.1
A

c. the distance from one point to the next identical point along the waveform.

48
Q
  1. Velocity measurements in a material revealed that the velocity decreased as frequency increased. This material is called:
    a. dissipated.
    b. discontinuous.
    c. dispersive.
    d. degenerative.
    C.2; G.14
A

c. dispersive.

49
Q
  1. The sound beam emanating from a continuous wave sound source has two zones. These are called the:
    a. fresnel and fraunhofer zones.
    b. fresnel and near fields.
    c. fraunhofer and far fields.
    d. focused and unfocused zones.
    C.15; F.239
A

a. fresnel and fraunhofer zones.

50
Q
  1. The difference between through transmission and pitch-catch techniques is that:
    a. the transducers in through-transmission face each other, while in pitch-catch the transducers are often side by side in the same housing.
    b. the transducers in through transmission are side by side, while in pitch-catch the transducers are facing each other.
    c. the transducers in through transmission are always angle beam.
    d. in through-transmission the depth of the discontinuity is easily determined.
    A.230; C.25
A

a. the transducers in through-transmission face each other, while in pitch-catch the transducers are often side by side in the same housing.

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