Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards Review > USMLE Other > Flashcards

USMLE Other Flashcards

1
Q

Acute angle closure glaucoma / Symptoms and presentations

A

pain, diminished visual acuity, seeing halos around lights, a red eye, headache, and a dilated pupil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Alcoholic hepatitis

Maddrey’s Discriminant function score:

Treatment / how long?

A

modified Maddrey’s discriminant function score > 32 or hepatic encephalopathy should be considered for treatment with prednisolone 40 mg daily for four weeks followed by a taper.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Alzheimer disease

A

Effects in daily living and instrumental activities of daily living; other language difficulties; or personality changes. MMSE scores of 19 to 24 suggest mild dementia, and scores of 10 to 19 suggest moderate dementia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When to order ankle radiographs

A

Ankle radiographs should be obtained only

  • When patients are unable to bear weight
  • Who have bony tenderness to palpation at the posterior edge of either the lateral or medial malleoli.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Anti Depressant therapy / Therapy time periods

Remission

post remission therapy

A

The goal of treatment / remission within 6 to 12 weeks / continue treatment for 4 to 9 months thereafter.

Patients assessed 2-4 weeks after starting therapy for adherence and again at 6-8 weeks for response to therapy. Using a formal tool for severity assessment (such as the PHQ-9) helps quantify the nature of the response; patients are considered to have at least a partial response if a 50% or greater decrease in symptom score has occurred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).

A
  • Otolith repositioning, commonly known as the Epley maneuver
  • Tinnitus, ear pain, and hearing loss are absent, and nausea that is sufficiently severe or prolonged to cause vomiting is rare.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Causes of rhinitis

  1. Non allergic
  2. Allergic
  3. Occupational
  4. Rhinitis medicamentosa
  5. Pregnancy
  6. Systemic Dz
  7. Medications
A
  1. Vasomotor and Gustatory
  2. Seasonal, perennia
  3. Animal handles, food processors
  4. Cocaine, regular nasal decongestants
  5. Unclear
  6. Hypothyroid, Wegeners, sarcoid
  7. Oral Contraceptives, sildenafil, Clonidine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Central retinal artery occlusion / CRAO / Symptoms & presentation

A

visual acuity is markedly diminished in the affected eye to either finger counting or light perception. There is an afferent pupillary defect. On funduscopic examination, the retina appears pale, either segmentally or completely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Central vertigo

A
  • Vertical nystagmus occurs immediately with the Dix-Hallpike maneuver.
  • MRI with angiography of the brain.
  • Prolonged (>1 min), and nonfatigable
  • Due to ischemia or infarct in the brainstem or cerebellum.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Child-Turcotte-Pugh class and postoperative mortality

A

Patients with CTP class / scores have postoperative mortality

A (0-6 points) 10%

class B (7-9 points) 30%

class C (≥10 points) 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dantrolene

A

Hyperthermia associate with neutroleptic syndrome

Tx: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome - Lorazepam and IVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Nonasthmatic eosinophilic bronchitis

A

patients with chronic, nonproductive cough without an apparent cause, including asthma; sputum examination for eosinophils is useful in establishing the diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia

Associated with what dz?

A
  • Hep C
  • palpable purpura
  • Arthalgias
  • Renal Dz (MPGN)
  • purpuric skin lesions in LE progress to necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fenofibrate

A
  • Reducing serum triglyceride levels, with observed decreases of 20% to 50%.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

GAD Tx?

A

CBT or SSRI/SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Herbal meds

  • Ginko Biloba
  • Ginseng
  • Saw Palmetto
  • Black cohosh

What are they used for ?

What is thier side effect?

A
  • Ginko Biloba : Memory enhan
  • Ginseng: mental performance
  • Saw Palmetto: BPH
  • Black Cohosh: Post manopausal

All increase chance of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Got Foot problems

  1. Charcot Joint
  2. Matatarsal stress fracture
  3. Morton’s neuroma
  4. Plantar fasciitis
A
  1. Progressive degenerative joint ds due to peripheral neuropathy / swelling, erythema and loss of sensation new the involved joint.
  2. In runners due to repetitive stress injury / after two weeks visible on Xray focal point tnederness near the metatarsal shaft.
  3. Interdigit nerve compression resulting in enlargement of planatal digital nerve - burning sensation and numbness usually between 3 and 4 metatarsals
  4. heel pain usually early mornings involves the plantar areas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Guttate psoriasis

A
  • Varieant of psoriasis that occurs 2-3 weeks after a streptococcal infection
  • Sole palms usually spared
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Heavy menstrual bleeding - Treament outpatient

Severe/acute bleed

A
  • Oral medroxyprogesterone acetate
  • patient were orthostatic or dizzy from blood loss, intravenous estrogen would be appropriate. Parenteral conjugated estrogens are approximately 70% effective in stopping the bleeding entirely. Pulmonary embolism and venous thrombosis are complications of intravenous estrogen therapy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hereditary Angioedema

  • Clinical Features
  • Screening
  • Tx
A

Clinical Features

  • Angioedema without any urticaria or pruritus > 12 hrs

Screening (1 week after ffp treatment)

  • C4 levels (C1 substrate)
  • C1 inhibitor antigenic levels
  • C1 inhib. functional levels

Tx:

  • 1st line:
    • C1 inhibitor / icatibant (bradykinin) / Ecallantide
  • FFP

Prophylaxis

  • Angdrogens (Danazol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

human papillomavirus vaccine

A
  • Females between the ages of 11 and 26 years
  • Males between the ages of 11 and 21 years.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hyperlipidemia in pregnancy

A
  • Colesevelam / Bile acid sequestrants are the best option
  • STatins / Ezetimibe catagory X
  • Gemfibrozil category C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

IgG4 Related systemic dz

should be suspected in pt with the follwoing?

A
  • Idiopathic pancreatitis
  • Sclerosing cholangitis
  • B/L salvary or lacrimal gland Enlargment

Dx

  • IgG4 +ve plasma cells
  • Peripheral eosinophilia

Tx

  • Steriods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Licorice

A
  • Stomach ulcers
  • Hyperkalemia/HtN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Likelihood Ratio

Positive

Negative

A

LR + = Sensitivity / (1-specificity)

LR - = (1-Sensitivity)/ Specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Malitonin

A

Used when corssing 4 time zones for sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Manage advanced cancer pain

1-3 Mild

4-6 Moderate

7-10 Severe

A

The World Health Organization analgesic ladder

  • ASA, acetaminophen, or NSAIDs mild pain (1-3).
  • oxycodone and acetaminophen (combo pills) Moderate pain (pain score 4-6) / daily cumulative acetaminophen dose (
  • Severe pain (pain score 7-10) is mainly treated with opioids.

Adjunctive therapies (antidepressants, anticonvulsants, corticosteroids, muscle relaxants) can be used at all levels of the analgesic ladder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Indications for specialized RBCs Treatments

  • W Ashed
  • I RRADIATED
  • L EUKOREDUCED
A

Irradiated: Immune / BMT

  • BMT reciepients
  • Acquired or congenital cellular immunodef
  • blood donated by first or second degree relative

LeukoreduCed:

  • Chronically transfused pt
  • CMV seronegative at risk
  • potenstial transplant pt

WAshed

  • IgA def
  • Complement dependent autoimmune hemolytic
  • Allergic reaction to RBC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Manage chronic fatigue syndrome

A
  • Graded exercise programs
  • Cognitive-behavioral therapy
  • 6 months - least four of the following symptoms:
    • subjective memory impairment
    • sore throat
    • tender lymph nodes
    • muscle or joint pain
    • headache
    • unrefreshing sleep
    • postexertional malaise lasting longer than 24 hours.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Medications for Bulimia vs Anorexia

A

Bulimia : SSRI

Anorexia: Olanzapine

Bupropion is CI in eating disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Medications for Rhinorrhea vs Chronic Sinusitis

A

Ipratropium nasal spray for rhinorrhea

Chronic Sinusitis > 12 weeks NS Nasal spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Metabolic syndrome:

Waist size

Dyslipidemia TAG

Dyslipidemia HDL

Blood pressure

Fasting glucose

A

At Least 3 of the following:

  • Central obesity: waist circumference ≥ 102 cm or 40 inches (male), ≥ 88 cm or 35 inches(female)
  • Dyslipidemia: TG ≥ 1.7 mmol/L (150 mg/dl)
  • Dyslipidemia: HDL-C < 40 mg/dL (male), < 50 mg/dL (female)
  • Blood pressure ≥ 130/85 mmHg
  • Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 6.1 mmol/L (110 mg/dl)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Mild cognitive impairment

A

have a single or few areas of cognitive impairment, and the Mini-Mental State Examination score is typically 24 or 25.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Modafinil (used for)

A

Causes wakfulness in pt with OSA and excessive daytime sleepiness

35
Q

Nicotinic acid

A
  • Reduce serum triglyceride level by 20% to 50%
  • Decrease LDL cholesterol level by 5% to 25%
  • Increase the HDL cholesterol level by 15% to 35%.
36
Q

Nonhormonal therapy for hot flushes

post Manopausal

A
  • Venlafaxine
  • Paroxetine / fluoxetine or citalopram.
  • Gabapentin and clonidine
37
Q

OCD tx

A

CBT or SSRI/SNRI or both

38
Q

Optic Neuritis

A
  • associated with pain on eye movement
  • Multiple Sclerosis
39
Q

Hepatitis B vaccine is indicated

A
  • Children and adolescents through age 18 years
  • HIV+ve
  • Recent sexually transmitted infections
  • Sexually active but not monogamous
  • Workers with occupational exposure to blood
  • Illicit drug users
  • DM who are younger than 60 years
  • Persons with advanced chronic kidney disease who are approaching hemodialysis
40
Q

When to expect Osteoarthritis

A
  • Osteoarthritis of the knee can be diagnosed if knee pain is accompanied by at least three of the following features: Age greater than 50 years
  • Stiffness lasting less than 30 minutes
  • Crepitus, bony tenderness
  • Bony enlargement
  • No palpable warmth.
41
Q

Panic DO tx

A

CBT or SSRI/SNRI or both

Short term Benzo for severe distress < 2 weeks

42
Q

Optic Neuropathy / Meds causing

A

Ethambutol

Sildenafil

Linezolid

Bevacizumab

Infliximab

Amiodarone

43
Q

Patellofemoral pain syndrome

What age to expect and physical exam

A

most common cause of knee pain in patients younger than 45 years.

more common in women than in men and is characterized by anterior knee pain that is made worse with prolonged sitting and with going up and down stairs. The pain is reproduced by applying pressure to the patella with the knee in extension and moving the patella both medially and laterally (patellofemoral compression test).

44
Q

Pemphigus Vulgaris

Pathology?

A
  • Autoimmune vesiculobullous dz / blisters form due to loss of cohesion between epidermal cells
  • Flaccid bulae that rupture easily
  • Nikolsky sign
  • Autoantibodies to Desmoglein
45
Q

Clinical Predictors of increased preoperative cardiovascular risk

  • Active Cardica conditions
  • Clinical risk factors
A

Active Cardiac Conditions

  • Unstable agina / recent MI
  • Decompensated CHF
  • Arrythmia (SVT > 100, VTach, Brady)
  • Severe valvular Dz (AS, MS)

Clinical Risk factors

  • Ischemic CAD
  • Compensated CHF
  • CVA
  • DM
  • Renal insufficiency
46
Q

Risk of perioperative pulmonary complications

A
  • Chronic lung disease
  • Older age
  • Use of spinal or general anesthesia
  • Surgery around the diaphragm

PFT’s do not assess the risk

47
Q

Central retinal vein occlusion

Symptoms and presentations

A
  • Painless blurry vision due to reduced venous outflow
  • Vascular edema in the eye
  • Optic disc swelling, dilated and tortuous veins, flame-shaped retinal hemorrhages, and cotton-wool spots (“blood and thunder”).
48
Q

pes anserine bursitis

A

Pain is typically located along the anteromedial aspect of proximal tibia distal to the joint line of the knee. Pain is worse with climbing steps and frequently worsens at night

49
Q

Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccination

A

Immunocompetent patients

  • Chronic CVD (including hypertension)
  • Asthma and COPD
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Chronic liver disease (including cirrhosis)
  • Alcoholism
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Cerebrospinal fluid leak
  • Cochlear implant
  • Single vaccination; single booster at age 65 y or 5 y after initial vaccination, whichever is later

Immunocompromised patientsc

  • HIV infection
  • Chronic kidney disease or nephrotic syndrome
  • Malignancy (leukemia, lymphoma, generalized malignancy)
  • Use of immunosuppressive treatment (corticosteroids, antirejection medication, radiation therapy)
  • Multiple myeloma
  • Congenital or acquired immunodeficiency
  • Two doses separated by 5 y

Patients with aspleniac

  • Functional asplenia (sickle cell disease, other hemoglobinopathies)
  • Anatomic asplenia (congenital, surgical, others)
  • Two doses separated by 5 y
50
Q

Vaccinations

  • Pneumoncoccal
  • HPV
  • MMR
  • Meningococcal
  • Hep A
  • Hep B
A

Pneumococcal disease

  • Inactivated
  • Adults ≥65 y; adults 19-64 y with risk factors (see Table 8 )

Human papillomavirus

  • Inactivated
  • Females 11-26 y; males 11-21 y (permitted 21-26 y)

Measles, mumps, rubella

  • Live, attenuated
  • Adults born after 1957 without documented vaccination or immunity. One dose usually sufficient; second dose indicated in HCWs, international travelers, college students, and post-exposure.

Meningococcal disease

  • Inactivated
  • Adolescents; persons living in dormitories; persons with HIV or asplenia

Hepatitis A

  • Inactivated
  • Travelers to endemic areas, men who have sex with men, users of illicit drugs, persons with chronic liver disease.

Hepatitis B

  • Inactivated
  • Adults with increased risk of transmission, morbidity, or exposure (see Table 9 )
51
Q

Pravastatin

A

Pravastatin is one of the preferred statins in patients who are being treated with multiple medications.

Female sex, small body frame, hypothyroidism, statin dosage, and treatment with multiple medications also influence the likelihood of developing statin-related myopathy.

52
Q

Pregnancy Vaccination

  1. Prior to pregnancy (month before)
  2. Routine vaccines during pregnancy
  3. Other vaccinations for special conditions
  4. Postpartum
  5. not recommended during pregnancy
A
  1. Varicella / MMR
  2. Tdap / inactive influenza
  3. Other vaccinations
    1. Hep B /A
    2. Pneumonococcus 2/3 tri
    3. H-influenza for asplenic pt
  4. MMR / varicell / anti-D immune globulin for RhD-
  5. HPV / MMR / Varicella / Small pox / live influenza nasal
53
Q

BACK PAIN

  • Bulging disc
    • with neuro changes
    • without neuro changes
A

If no neurological changes

  • NSAIDS / short acting opiods or tramadol
  • Muscle relaxants
  • TCA if subacute 4-12 weeks or chronic > 12 weeks of back pain
54
Q

Pseudodementia

A

condition in which the cognitive impairment is secondary to depression. Treatment of the depression leads to improvement in cognition. Whereas this patient is frustrated with his condition, he is not depressed.

55
Q

PTSD tx

A

CBT or SSRI/SNRI or both

56
Q

PTSD

A

SSRI or SNRI plus Cognitive behavioral therapy

57
Q

Rhinitis Medicamentosa

A

Over use of OTC nasal decongestants sprays / due to Tachyphylaxis and emotional lift / patients need to use more frequent / causes rebound vasodialation

Tx: Steriod Nasal spray / short term

58
Q

ASC-US

Atypical Squamous Cells of Undetermined Significance

A
  • Repeat pap 6-12 months
  • Colposcopy
  • HPV DNA testing
59
Q

Rotator Cuff tears

Adhesive capsulitis

Rotator cuff impingement.

A

Rotator cuff tears are usually accompanied by weakness and loss of function. Examination findings include supraspinatus weakness, weakness with external rotation, and a positive drop-arm test.

Adhesive capsulitis is caused by thickening of the capsule surrounding the glenohumeral joint. Adhesive capsulitis presents with loss of both passive and active range of motion in multiple planes and patient reports of stiffness- typically slow in onset and is located near the insertion of the deltoid muscle.

pain in her shoulder that began after performing the repetitive overhead motion of painting, and her pain is most pronounced with abduction of her arm. On examination, her pain occurs between 60 and 120 degrees of abduction, which supports the diagnosis of rotator cuff tendinitis. She also has a positive Hawkins test, which has a high sensitivity (92%) but poor specificity (25%) for rotator cuff impingement.

60
Q

Screening

HTN

Lipids

DM

Osteoprosis

AAA

HTV

HEP B

Chlamydia

Gonorrhea

Asymptomatic Bacteriuria

Breast Ca

Cervical Can

Colon Cancer

A

Hypertension : All adults /then Q2 yrs

Lipid disorders : men ≥35 years of age; high CVS risk. Women ≥45 with High CVS risk.

Diabetes mellitus: blood pressure >135/80 mm Hg

Osteoporosis : Women ≥65 years of age; any other woman whose fracture risk

Abdominal aortic aneurysm: One-time screening in all men 65-75 years of age who have ever smoked

HIV infection: All persons at increased risk of HIV infection

Hepatitis B virus infection : All pregnant women at the first prenatal visit

Chlamydial infection : All women ≤24 years of age who are sexually active; all women >24 years of age who are at increased risk of infection.

Gonorrhea :Sexually active women who are at increased risk of infection

Asymptomatic bacteriuria :Pregnant women at 12-16 weeks’ gestation or at the first prenatal visit, whichever comes first.

Syphilis :High-risk persons and pregnant women

Breast cancer : Biennial screening mammography for average-risk women 50-74 years of age; initiation of screening between 40 and 49 years of age should be individualized.

Cervical cancer: Screen with Pap smear: initiate no sooner than 21 years of age; test every 3 years thereafter or, for women aged 30- 65 years who want to lengthen the duration of screening, every 5 years if combined with HPV testing. Screening is not indicated in women following hysterectomy and without previous high-risk Pap smears. Screening may be discontinued at age 65 years in non–high-risk women with no recent abnormal Pap smears.

Colon cancer: All adults 50-75 years of age (see MKSAP 16 Gastroenterology and Hepatology)

61
Q

Sensitivity to

specificity to

A

High sensitivity is to Rule out will have high Negative pridictive value = SnOut

High Specifiscity is to Rule in the Dz will have hight Positive predictive value = SpIN

62
Q

Side effects of commonly used drugs in elderly

  1. Digoxin
  2. Bnazo
  3. Anticholenergics
  4. Opiods
  5. Antipsychotics
  6. Insulin/Sulfonylureas
  7. Flouroquinolones
A
  1. N/V, cognitive impairement and heart block
  2. Falls
  3. Cognitive decline, confusion, hallucination, dizziness
  4. contipation, sedation, confusion
  5. increased mortality / community acquired pneumonia
  6. Hypoglycemia
  7. tendon inflammation and rupture
63
Q

Skin changes that require HIV test

A

Severe psoriasis or severe seborrheic dermatitis

64
Q

Skin conditions related to following dz

  1. DM
  2. HEP C
  3. Iron Malabsorption
  4. Pernicious Anemia / Autoimmune thyroid disease / Type 1
A
  1. Acanthosis Nigricans
  2. Lichen planus / Leukocytoclastic vasculaitis (due to cryo)
  3. Dermatitis herpetiformis
  4. Vitiligo (autoimmune dz)
65
Q

Social Anxiety

A

CBT or SSRI/SNRI for Generalized form

Benzo for infrequent

66
Q

Specific Phobia

A

CBT first line

SSRI/SNRI

Benzo when CBT not available

67
Q

Srotonin Syndrome

  • Common Drugs
  • Symptoms
  • Tx
A

Common Drugs

  • TCA
  • Linezolid
  • 5 HT3
  • Triptans

Symptoms

  • Hyperthermia
  • Agitations/tremor/hyperreflexia/akathisia
  • Dry mucus / rigidity (clonus)
  • Dilated pupils

Tx

  • DC meds
  • Sedation with benzodiazepines
  • Supportive care
  • Cyproheptadine (antidode)
  • Intubation / ICU care
68
Q

Sweet Syndrome

  • Etiology
  • Clinical features
  • Tx
A

Etiology

  • post infection / IBD / pregnancy

Clinical features

  • Painful erythematous leasions / Febrile
  • Netrophilic leukocytosis
  • Neutrophilic infiltrate without vasculitis

Tx

  • Topical and systemic corticosteriods
69
Q

Tx: Acute Stress Disorder

A
  • CBT (cognitive behavioral therapy)
  • Short term Benzo for severe distress
70
Q

tetanus and diphtheria (Td)

A
  • Every 10 years
  • All adults are recommended to receive a single tetanus, diphtheria, and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccination regardless of the interval since their last Td booster
71
Q

Treat a depressive episode of bipolar disorder.

A

In patients with depressive symptoms, it is important to elucidate a history of hypomanic or manic episodes in order to identify bipolar disorder, which is treated with mood stabilizers rather than antidepressants.

72
Q

Treatment for the following

  1. Secondary Syphillis
  2. Psoriasis
  3. Generalized Vitiligo
  4. Seborrheic dermatitis
  5. Tinea Veriscolor infections
A
  • Benzathine pcn
  • Phototherapy and topical steriods
  • Pphototherapy and topical steriods
  • Topical Corticosteriods (2nd )
  • Topical terbinafine
73
Q

Tx rhinitis

A

Intranasal ipratropium: when it is triggered by smells or enviromental triggers such as cold

Oral and nasal decongestants: use about 3 days URI

Intransal corticosteriods better for vasomotor rhinitis / allergies

Leukotriene for allergic rhinitis

74
Q

Types of Surgery

  • High risk
  • Intermediate Risk
  • Low Risk
A

High risk

  • Vascular Surgery
  • Peripheral vascular surgery

Intermedicate risk

  • CEA
  • HEAD & Neck
  • Intraperitoneal/thoracic surgery
  • Orthopedic
  • prostate

Low

  • ambulatory / endoscopic surgery
  • cataract
  • breast surgery
75
Q

Vaccination

  • Influenza
  • Td / Tdap
  • Varicella
  • Herpes Zoster
A

Influenza

  • Live, attenuated or inactivated
  • All adults

Tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis (Td, Tdap)

  • Inactivated
  • All adults. Booster every 10 y. One-time Tdap for all (see text)

Varicella

  • Live, attenuated
  • Persons born after 1980, HCWs, persons with ↑ risk of disseminated varicella without documented vaccination or immunity.

Herpes zoster

  • Live, attenuated
  • Adults ≥60 y
76
Q

Vaccination

Tdap

Influ

Pneumo

A

**Influenza: **yearly

Tdap: Ones as a substitude for Td booster then Td Q10 yrs

Pneumo: 1 or 2 doses for high risk if > 65 once

77
Q

Vertigo of peripheral origin

A
  • Lasts less than 1 minute, has a latency of 2 to 40 seconds, and fatigues with time.
  • The direction of peripheral nystagmus is not vertical but is horizontal with a rotational component.
78
Q

Menopausal hot flushes hormone

therapy AE

A
  • including coronary heart disease, stroke, invasive breast cancer, and venous thromboembolism.
  • Specially > 60 yrs old
79
Q

Number needed to treat

A

Group Z =X %

Group Y =Y %

NNT= 1/ |X-Y|

80
Q

patellofemoral syndrome

A

The pain is peripatellar and exacerbated by overuse (such as running), descending stairs, or prolonged sitting. On examination, pain and apprehension can often be elicited by applying pressure on the patella (the patellofemoral compression test).

81
Q

β-blockers in the perioperative period

A
  • trials showing both benefit and harm.
82
Q
A
83
Q
A

Boards Review (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions