USMLE Heme Onc Flashcards

1
Q

Acute leukemia

A

Thrombocytopenia

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2
Q

AL amyloidosis dx

A

In patients with suspected AL amyloidosis, the combination of bone marrow biopsy and abdominal fat pad aspiration has a sensitivity of approximately 90%.

classic features of AL amyloidosis, including macroglossia, hepatomegaly, nephrotic syndrome, peripheral neuropathy, and the presence of an IgG lambda M-protein

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3
Q

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

Prognostic factors:

A
  • Age — the young fare better (< 30)
  • Blast count > 30,000 do poorly
  • Cytogenetics — hyperdiploidy is a good finding, whereas a Philadelphia chromosome t(9,22) is a poor prognostic finding
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4
Q

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

Tx

A
  • Supportive care with transfusions
  • Leukophoresis is not usually necessary since the blasts are smaller and less likely to cause sludging
  • Combination chemotherapy
    • Induction chemotherapy using multi-drug regimens
    • Consolidation chemotherapy with multi-drug regimens for multiple cycles
    • Maintenance (different from Myeloid)
    • CNS prophylasxis intrathecal / radiation
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5
Q

Alpha Thalassemia

A
    • aaa- -a-a- -a— —
  • (Hgb H) (Hgb Barts)
  • Should have a low MCV
  • Should have an elevated reticulocyte count if anemic
  • Normal electrophoresis
  • Diagnosis can be made by a chain gene analysis
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6
Q

AML M3

  • Cytogenetics = t(15,17)
  • Tx:
A

**_AML /// M3 /// DIC _ **

  • Translocation involving the retinoic acid receptor gene
  • Good prognosis category
  • Prominent Auer rods
  • Commonly associated with DIC
    • Tx: All Trans Retinoic Acid (ATRA) + chemotherapy with at least an anthracycline
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7
Q

AML Treatment

  • Induction
  • Consolidation Chemo
A
  • Supportive care with transfusions
  • Leukophoresis if blast count > 100,000 or for symptoms of hyperviscosity
  • Combination chemotherapy
  • Bone marrow transplant
  • Induction chemotherapy — designed to take a patient to aplasia with recovery of “normal” hematopoiesis and a remission state
  • Consolidation chemotherapy — designed to reinforce the remission obtained; usually multiple cycles given
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8
Q

Anal cancer treatment?

A
  • Anal cancer is treated initially with combined radiation therapy and chemotherapy.
  • Mitomycin plus 5-fluorouracil is the standard chemotherapy regimen used in conjunction with radiation therapy in the treatment of anal cancer.
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9
Q

Anemia Of Inflamation

A
  • Iron Low
  • TIBC Low
  • % sat Low/Normal
  • Ferritin High ( > 100)

Usually normochromic normocytic RBCs - Decreased reticulocyte count

Gold standard - Bone Bx

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10
Q

Anemia Of Inflamation Tx

A

Exogenous erythropoietin • Transfusion support • Optimize associated medical illness

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11
Q

Antiphospholipid antibody

PT / PTT effect

A

PTT prolonged

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12
Q

Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome

A

Prolonged PTT (kinda odd eventhough its a hypercoagulable dz)

  • Treatment options
    • Anticoagulation
      • Warfarin
      • Heparin/LMWH
    • ASA
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13
Q

Antithrombin III Deficiency

Tx:

A
  • It Inactivates activated IX, X, XI, XII
  • Should always measure p_rior to the institution of heparin therapy but may be decreased secondary to thrombosis_
    • Tx: Heparin (resistant) / Warfarin long term / AT III recombinant for surgery
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14
Q

(activated Protein C)

APC Resistance

Tx:

A
  • Mutation in Factor V, resulting in resistance to activated protein C
  • Most common inherited hypercoagulable defect
  • Found in up to 25% of patients with recurrent thrombosis
  • Additive to other risk factors (OCRs, pregnancy,other defects)
    • Tx: Warfarin / hparin / LMWH
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15
Q

Aplastic Anemia / causes

A
  • Drugs
    • Sulfa drugs
    • Chloramphenicol
    • Radiation
    • Benzenes
    • Gold
  • PNH
  • Viral infection

DX with bone marrow

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16
Q

Aplastic Anemia Tx:

A

Immunosuppression with ATG [Anti-thymocyte globulin] /cyclosporine

  • Older patients
  • Younger patients with no marrow donor

Bone marrow transplant

  • Younger patients with a donor
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17
Q

Treat a postmenopausal patient with newly diagnosed breast cancer with well-differentiated, estrogen receptor-positive/progesterone receptor-positive, HER2-negative breast cancer.

A

Aromatase inhibitors are the standard of care for postmenopausal women with these tumors.

Postmenopausal women with hormone receptor–positive breast cancer should take a 5-year course of an aromatase inhibitor as primary treatment or for an additional** 5 years after completing a **5-year course of tamoxifen therapy. In women who are initially treated with tamoxifen, an aromatase inhibitor may be started following 2 to 3 years of tamoxifen therapy to complete a total of 5 years of hormonal therapy.

Trastuzumab is indicated for tumors that overexpress HER2

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18
Q

Asymptomatic follicular lymphoma

A

Regardless of the stage at presentation, patients with asymptomatic follicular lymphoma can be followed without therapeutic intervention until they experience symptoms.

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19
Q
A

Auer Cells / AML

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20
Q

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

A
  • Macrocytic due to hight retic count / higher LDH / Higher Bilirubin indirect
  • Direct Coombs Test
    • Demonstrates antibody on the RBC surface / Mix patient’s blood with anti-IgG or C3 antibodies
  • Indirect Coombs
    • Test Demonstrates antibody in the serum
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21
Q
  1. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  2. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase def
  3. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
  4. Pyruvate kinase def
  5. Microagiopathic hemolytic anemia
A

AIHA - warm antibody / spherocytes and direct coombs test

PNH: Associated with pancytopenia, hemolytic anemia and thrombosis

PK def: differs from G6PD def in that erythrocytes from PK patients are not subject to hemolysis following oxidative stress and no characteristic morphologic red cell abnormalities on peripheral smear.

Microangiopathic HA have schistocytes on peripheral blood smear and low plt

G6PD def:

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22
Q

B12/Folate Deficiencies

A
  • Macrocytic
  • Elevated RDW
  • Decreased WBC and platelet counts
  • Hypersegmentation
  • Decreased reticulocyte count
  • *MMA** level is high in B12 Def
  • *Homocysteine** is High in both
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23
Q

Best strategy to prevent further CVS complications in SCD

A

Chronic simple transfusion therapy has been shown to be more effective then hydroxyurea

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24
Q

Beta Thalassemia

A
  • Decreased production of the 3 globin chain
  • Should have a low MCV
  • Should have an elevated reticulocyte count
  • Should see elevated levels of Hgb A2 on hemoglobin electrophoresis
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25
Q

Bite Cells

Shistocytes (helmet cells)

Spherocytes

Target cells

Tear drop cells

Basophillic stippling

Howe Jolly

A

Due to phagocytes / thalassemia / G6PD def

RBC fragemnt / DIC, TTP or HUS Tramatic hemolysis

Shperoidal RBC no central palar / Autoimmune / hereditary Spherocytosis

Target cells bulls eye / thalassemia, RbC dz, postsplenectomy or liver dz

Tear drop / Meylofibrosis, major thalasemia

Basophillic stippling / blue grannules / thalassemia and iron def, ETOH abuse , lead

Howel Jolly bodies / rbc nuclear remnant / asplenia** or **splenic hypofunctions

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26
Q

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

A
  • Primarily occurs in children
  • Lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly occur in 50%
    • An anterior mediastinal mass is common with the T-cell subtypes**(young male with mediastinal mass)
    • CNS disease is common**
  • Classification made using stains, flow cytometry, and cytogenetics
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27
Q

AE AE AE AE /// Toxicity

  1. Bleomycin
  2. Anthracyclines /Trastuzumab
  3. Methotrexate
  4. Cisplatin
  5. Cyclophosphamide
  6. 5 FU
A
  1. Pulmonary fibrosis
  2. Cardiomyopathy
  3. Liver toxicity /pneumonitis
  4. nephrotociity / ototoxicity
  5. hemorrhagic cystitis / bladd canc
  6. Sever diarrhea
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28
Q

Bleeding treatments in renal failure (uremic)

DDAVP

  • Conjugated estrogen (second line)
  • Cryoprecipitate
A
  1. Increase release of Factor VIII/VW factor polymers from endothelial storage site
  2. Possible increase platelet reactivity
  3. Enhance platelet aggregation
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29
Q

Bone metastases

A

Most common would include:

  • Prostate
  • Breast
  • Lung
  • Renal cell
  • Myeloma (Lytic always)

Diagnosis should be made with:

  • Bone scan (shows blastic only)
  • Metastatic bone survey
    • needed to see the lytic lesions

Treatment should include:

  • Radiation therapy for pain control
  • Evaluation for need for prophylactic rod placement
  • Consideration of bisphosphonate therapy for breast cancer and myeloma
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30
Q

Brain Metastases

A

Most common tumors associated are:

  • Lung
  • Breast
  • Melanoma
  • Renal cell carcinoma

Treatment includes:

  • Immediate large doses of steroids usually IV dexame thasone
  • If the lesion is single, resection or stereotactic treatment may be tried
  • For multiple lesions, and after any resection, whole-brain radiation therapy should be given
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31
Q

Breast Cancer Risk
• BRCA1

A
  • Chromosome 17: AD
  • Lifetime risk of developing breast cancer is 50% to 85%
  • Also increases the lifetime risk of developing ovarian cancer to 33%
  • Associated with an increase in the risk of breast and prostate cancer in men
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32
Q

Breast Cancer
• Prevention

A
  • The use of tamoxifen reduces the risk of developing breast cancer in patients with increased risk
  • In High risk patients
    • Previous cancer
    • Strong family history
    • BRCA1-or BRCA2-positive
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33
Q

Breast Cancer

BRCA2

A
  • Chromosome 13: AD
  • Similar risk for breast cancer 50-85%
  • Somewhat smaller risk for ovarian cancer (10-20%)
  • Associated with increased incidence of breast cancer in men
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34
Q

Breast Mass:

Solid vs. cystic??

What is next?

A

• Solid vs. cystic??

  • Can determine using ultrasound
  • If cystic, can aspirate; if bloody fluid or recurs, then should biopsy
  • If solid**, should do **FNA or core biopsy

• _Palpable mas_s without abnormality on mammogram

  • Should biopsy
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35
Q

Breast Cancer Treatment

A
  • < 1-cm tumor, node negative — NO ADDITIONAL TREATMENT
  • >1 cm tumor or (anysize tumore +node positive) —ADJUVANT TREATMENT
  • Premenopausal
    • chemo therapy
    • +/- hormones (If ER/PR +ve then 5 yrs hormone/ Tamoxifen therapy)
  • Postmenopausal
    • hormones (aromatase inhibitors) +/- chemo
    • chemo +/- hormones
  • TRASTUZUMAB** if **HER2/neu and node+

do not use Aromatase Inhibitors in premenopausal women.

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36
Q

CA 125 / how useful is it?

A
  • 80% with ovarian cancer

also with +ve

  • Cervix, breast, Endometrial, Lung, Colon

This is more like a monitoring factor while getting treatment.

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37
Q
  1. Cancer Incidence
  2. Cancer Death
  • Male
  • Female
A

Cancer Incidence

  • Males : Prostate > Lung > Colorectal
  • Females : Breast > Lung > Colorectal

Cancer Death

  • Males : Lung > Prostate > Colorectal
  • Females : Lung > Breast > Colorectal
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38
Q

Carcinoma in Situ -Lobar

A

Lobular

  • Nonpalpable with no reliable mammographic changes
  • Marker for cancer development in either breast
  • Frequently is multifocal and bilateral

Treatment** varies from **observation only to tamoxifen to bilateral mastectomy

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39
Q

Carcinoma In Situ - Ductal

A

Ductal (DCIS)

  • Benign
  • More common than lobular
  • See microcalcifications on mammogram
  • High-grade has higher risk of evolving into invasive disease

Treatment is mastectomy vs. breast conservation surgery +/- XRT followed by tamoxifen

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40
Q
A

Starry Skies Burkitts

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41
Q

Cervical Cancer
• Treatment

  • CIN I:
  • CIN II:
  • CIN III:
A
  • CIN I: observation vs. cryotherapy
  • CIN II: ablation or excision
  • CIN III: ablation or excision
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42
Q

Causes of EPO resistance

A
  • Iron def
  • B12 or folate def
  • Inadequate HD
  • Infection
  • Extensive hyperparathyroid bone dz
  • Occult malignancy
  • Medication (ACEi ARB)
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43
Q

Cervical cancer screening

  1. HIV/SLE/Transplant
  2. AGE< 21
  3. 21-29
  4. 30-65
  5. >65
A
  1. onset of sex Q6M X2 then yearly
  2. No screening
  3. Cytology Q3Y
  4. Cytology Q3Y or Cytology with HPV Q5Y
  5. No screening if -ve (3 paps or 2 HPV)
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44
Q

CLL

• Commonly associated with second malignancies

A
  • Lung cancer
  • Head and neck cancer
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45
Q

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

Tx:

Indication

A

Treatment:

  • Chlorambucil
  • Fludarabine
  • Combination chemotherapy
  • Alemtuzumab
  • Rituximab/ofatumumab

Indications for treatment include

  • Symptomatic disease
  • Rapid doubling of the WBC count < 1 yr
  • Anemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
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46
Q

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

Staging

A

RAI staging system Survival:

  • 0 Lymphocytosis >10yrs
  • I. Lymphadenopathy 9 yrs
  • II Splenomegaly 6-7 yrs
  • III Anemia 2-3 yrs
  • IV Thrombocytopenia 2-3 yrs
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47
Q

Clues on peripheral smear:

  • Blasts =
  • Auer rods =
  • Mature cells =
  • Mature lymphocytes =
  • Maturing myeloid cells =
A
  • Blasts = acute leukemia
  • Auer rods = myeloid blasts
  • Mature cells = chronic leukemia
  • Mature lymphocytes = CLL
  • Maturing myeloid cells = CML
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48
Q

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia [ALWAYS on Boards]

Work up

A
  • A bone marrow aspirate and biopsy
  • Flow cytometry on peripheral blood
  • Cytogenetics on bone marrow
  • Flow cytometry, which is usually diagnostic
    • Typically a B-cell disorder with an abnormal pattern
    • CD19, CD20, CD23 Positive (BCell usually +ve for CD 19/20/23)
    • CD5 Positive as well
    • Light chain restricted
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49
Q

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

A
  • Typical laboratory presentation
  • High WBC count / “Myelocyte spike
  • Eosinophilia and basophilia

Labs :

  • Low LAP (leukocyte alkaline phosphatase) (not done now a days)
  • Marrow that is hypercellular
  • Characteristic chromosomal abnormality / t(9,22)

Few side effects primarily fluid retention

  • Imatinib (Gleevak)
  • Nilotinib
  • Dasatinib

Bone marrow transplantation

  • Still therapy of choice for young patients with a matched available donor / Only curative therapy known to date
  • Best when performed early in the disease
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50
Q

CML Accelerated phase:

A
  • Increasingly difficult to control counts
  • Increasing eosinophilia and basophilia
  • Accumulation of additional cytogenetic abnormalities
  • Treatment becomes more difficult

CML can becom AML or ALL

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51
Q

CML Chronic phase:

A
  • Usually relatively asymptomatic
  • Easily controlled counts
  • Disease duration
    • 2 years untreated
    • 3-4 years with hydroxyurea
    • 4-5 years with interferon
    • Unknown with imatinib **** tyrosin kinase inhibitors
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52
Q

Colon Cancer / staging / treatment / post survalance

A
  • All men and women, beginning at age 50 years, should undergo screening colonoscopy.
  • STAGE I (T1-2 N0) STAGE II (T3-4 N0) Stage III (N1 N2) no M — VI M+ve
  • FOLFOX chemotherapy
  • All patients with stage III colon cancer, regardless of age, should receive postoperative adjuvant chemotherapy unless contraindicated because of medical or psychiatric disorders.
  • Patients with rectal cancers that are not full-thickness lesions and do not have obvious lymph node involvement typically are managed with primary surgical resection.
  • Postoperative surveillance for stage III colon cancer includes physical examination and carcinoembryonic antigen monitoring every 3 to 6 months; chest/abdomen/pelvic CT scanning annually for 3 to 5 years; and colonoscopy 1 year after resection and then repeated at 3- to 5-year intervals.
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53
Q
  • Cushing Syndrome
  • Diagnosis is made by:
  • Treatment options include:
A

Cushing Syndrome

  • Small cell carcinoma, carcinoid tumors, and in association with MEN I syndrome / Ectopic ACTH
  • Seen with hypokalemic alkalosis
  • weakness, hypertension, & hyperglycemia
  • buffalo hump, moon faces, hyperpigmentation, hirsutism

Diagnosis is made by:

  • Elevated ACTH
  • Cortisol levels that do not suppress with dexamethasone

Treatment options include:

  • Treatment of the primary tumor
  • Inhibitors of steroid synthesis such as ketoconazole or aminoglutethimide
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54
Q

Dermatomyositis

Dz

Dx

Tx

A
  • Visceral adenocarcinomas such as stomach, breast, lung, and ovary assiciated dz
  • Polymyositis associated with skin changes
    • Proximal painless muscle weakness
    • Violaceous rash on exposed parts, especially the eyelids
    • Dysphagia is common

Diagnosis:

  • Elevated CPK, aldolase, LDH, and ESR
  • Abnormal EMG
  • Muscle bx necrosis of muscle fibers and an inflammatory reaction

Treatments include:

  • Steroids
  • Treatment of the underlying malignancy
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55
Q

DIC Smear

A
  • P prolonged
  • PTT prolonged
  • PLT Low
  • Fibrinogen Low
  • D-Dimer +ve
  • Protamine +ve

On Smear

  • Schistocytes
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Retic ount Eelevation
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56
Q

Diagnose polycythemia vera

A

Identification of the JAK2 V617F mutation in patients with a hemoglobin level greater than 18.5 g/dL (185 g/L) in men or greater than 16.5 g/dL (165 g/L) in women, with concomitant leukocytosis, thrombocytosis, and hepatosplenomegaly, is diagnostic of polycythemia vera.

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57
Q

DIC tx

vWD tx

acquired hemophilia Tx

A

DIC tx resh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate

vWD tx _Desmopressin /vW factor if avaialbe _

acquired hemophilia Tx Recombinant activated factor VIIa

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58
Q

DIC treatment

A
  • Treat underlying disorder
  • Support with appropriate products
    • Cryoprecipitate
    • FFP
    • Platelets
    • pRBCs
    • Heparin therapy - rarely needed
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59
Q

Eaton-Lambert Syndrome

A
  • Small cell lung cancer
  • Variant of myasthenia gravis

Initial symptom: Weakness of the proximal muscles

  • Autoimmune in nature, secondary to autoantibodies that result in **impaired release of acetylcholine **

Diagnosis

  • abnormal EMG with improvement in strength upon repetitive stimulation
  • EMG is usually unaffected by addition of edrophonium chloride

Treatment:

  • Treatment of malignancy
  • Guanidine
  • Plasma exchange
  • IVIG
  • Immunosuppression
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60
Q

Elevated PT and PTT

A

1:1 inhibitor mixing

if corrects look for factor def

if does not correct late for coagulation factor inhibitors

WET - Warfarin Extrinsic PT (27 910) Vit K

HITT - Heparin Intrinsic PTT 89

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61
Q

Diabetic amyotrophy

A

Asymmetric focal lower Ext pain associated with muscle atrophy, areflexia, atunomic dysfunction and unintentional weight loss

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62
Q

Essential Thrombocytosis - Dx Need rule out:

A
  • Thrombocytosis sustained over 6 months that is unexplained
  • May be associated with splenomegaly but not usually massive
  • No clear diagnostic tests exist
  • Although in about 50% JAK-2 is abnormal
    • R/O IDA / Malignancy / Ifection / Malignancy

Treatment options include:

  • Observation
  • Hydroxyurea and busulfan
  • Interferon-a
  • Anagrelide
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63
Q

EXTRINSIC Factors

A

7

VII

WET Warfarin Extrinsic PT

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64
Q

Factor VIII Inhibitors

A
  • IgG antibodies
  • Detected when the 1:1 mix does not correct
  • Treat with activated IX** product, porcine VIII, Factor Vila (NovoSeven®), or **immunosuppression
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65
Q

first-line agent in constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome

A

Lubiprostone is not a first-line agent in constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome, but it is appropriate for patients whose symptoms persist despite the use of fiber and standard laxatives.

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66
Q

Treat a patient with advanced symptomatic follicular lymphoma.

A

Rituximab (2 yrs), combination chemotherapy, and prednisone followed by rituximab maintenance therapy

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67
Q

Germ cell

Treatment

A
  • Fewer than 5%
  • Usually large tumors
  • May secrete aFP or bHCG
  • Presents with early-stage disease

_Treated with surgery, followed by _

  • chemotherapy with agents that include
    • BEP (bleomycin, etoposide, and cisplatin)
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68
Q

Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

A

Should be considered in patients presenting with diarrhea, bloating, or weight loss; vitamin B12 deficiency or an elevated serum folate level can be laboratory clues to the diagnosis.

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69
Q

Gleason Score

A

• Gives a grade to both the predominant and secondary growth pattern, and adds the scores
• Total will be 2-10, with higher grade correlated with higher incidence of spread and mortality
• 7 or > Gleason score is high-risk disease

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70
Q

Hairy Cell Leukemia

(B-Cell)

A
  • B cell in phenotype Usual presentation is:
  • TRIAD
    • Pancytopenia
    • Large splenomegaly
    • Inaspirable bone marrow
  • Bone marrow with hypercellularity and increased reticulin fibrosis “dry tap”
  • TRAP stain positivity
    • Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase stain

A single cycle of parenteral cladribine is curative in more than 80% of patients with hairy cell leukemia.

Also : “dry tap” and a biopsy shows diffuse infiltration with small lymphocytes with hair-like projections expressing CD20 but not CD5.

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71
Q

Hb AS

A
  • Unable to fully concentrate urine
  • Sickle Cell Trait
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72
Q

Hemoglobin SS

A
  • Pain crisis
  • Nonhealing leg ulcers
  • AVN
  • Aplastic crisis from parvovirus B19
  • Functional asplenia
  • Develop microinfarcts of organs, such as brain — CVA
  • Develop priapism and also retinal detachment
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73
Q

Hemophilia A Tx:

A

Factor VIII Def

  • Synthesized in the liver
  • Need 25% activity for normal hemostasis
    • Severe disease < 1% activity
    • Moderate disease 1-5% activity
    • Mild disease > 5% activity
  • Tx:
    • Mild DAAVP /
    • for mild or moderate > [Factore VIII or Cryopercipitate
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74
Q

Hemophilia B Tx:

A

Factor IX deficiency / Synthesized in the liver

  • Requires vitamin K as a cofactor for modification

Tx:

  • FFP
  • Factor IX concentrates — monoclonal and recombinant are available
  • Twice the volume of distribution to consider when calculating replacement doses
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75
Q

Hereditary Hemochromatosis

Dx About the Dz

A
  • Transferrin saturation (best test for Dx) > 45% women and > 50% men
  • Ferritin > 1,000 (in women it will take longer to accumulate 1000 due to bleed)
  • Liver biopsy (Gold standard)

About the Dz

  • Autosomal and recessive inheritance
  • Frequent in Caucasians
  • Mutation in C282Y or H63D genes
  • Modulates absorption of iron via HFE protein (increase absorption)
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76
Q

bladder cancer is treated: (High-risk, early-stage )

A

High-risk, early-stage bladder cancer is treated with intravesicular medication, typically bacillus Calmette-Guérin immunotherapy.

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77
Q

HIT Tx:

A
  • Discontinuation of heparin or LMWH
  • Substitution of lepirudin(Renal) or argatroban (Liver)
  • Initiate warfarin only after platelet count has recovered and anticoagulation with alternate agent is established
78
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma

Complications post treatment

A
  • Hypothyroidism (post radiation)
  • Infertility (MOPP)
  • Secondary malignancy, including
    • MDS/AML
    • Solid tumors such as breast and lung
    • Must screen early
79
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma Dx

A
  • Diagnosis made by finding Reed-Sternberg cells
  • WHO defines classical Hodgkin’s and NLPHL
80
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma

SX:

A
  • Bimodal age distribution (young and old)
  • Often see the “B” symptoms
    • Fever
    • Night sweats
    • Weight loss
  • Pruritus is common
  • Unusual complaint of pain with alcohol ingestion
81
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma

Tx

A
  • Treatment involves either:
    • Combination chemotherapy
      • ABVD or MOPP
    • Radiation therapy
    • Combined modality therapy with both
82
Q

Hypercalcemia :

Tx: Medications:

A

Steroids

  • Primarily MM, also lymphoma and occa. in breast cancer / tumor is responsive
  • Blocks Osteoclast activating factors + May also increase calcium excretion

Mithramycin

  • Reduces the # and activity of osteoclasts - given in IV form
  • A/E thrombocytopenia, liver tox. & coagulopathy

Calcitonin (quick)

  • Inhibits bone reabsorption by binding
    to osteoclasts
  • Tachyphylaxis

Bisphosphonates (Mainstay of tx)

  • Concentrated in high turnover area inhibits osteoclasts
  • Pamidronate has proven efficacy in all types of high Ca w low skeletal events
    in both breast cancer & MM
  • Zoledronic acid also approved for
    malignant hypercalcemia
  • Toxicity is primarily renal insufficiency
83
Q

Hypercalcemia

  • Occurs frequently with
  • Symptoms resulting from hypercalcemia:
  • Life expectancy
A
  • Occurs frequently with
    • squamous cell carcinomas,
    • breast cancer
    • renal cell carcinoma
    • Multiple myeloma
  • Symptoms resulting from hypercalcemia:
    • Fatigue, constipation, Polyuria, polydipsia
    • Mental status changes, Renal dysfunction
    • Shortened QT, PR prolongation, Brady
    • hyporeflexia
  • Life expectancy < 6 months
84
Q

Hypercoagulable states (Genetics)

A
  • Antithrombin III Deficiency
  • Protein C Deficiency
  • Protein S Deficiency
  • Protein C/S Deficiencies
  • Mutation in Factor V laden
  • Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome
85
Q

Hypersegmented

A

6 lobes or many 5 lobes

86
Q

CSF Analysis

  • Normal
  • Bacterial meningitis
  • TB meningitis
  • Viral Meningitis
  • Guilain Barre
A
  • WBC / Gluc / Protien
  • Normal 0-5 / 45-80 / 18-58
  • Bacterial m.>1000/ 400
  • TB m. 5-1000 / < 10 / >400
  • Viral M. 100-1000 / 45-80 /
  • Guilain B. 0-5 / 45-80 /45-1000
87
Q
  • Imatinib
  • Induction chemotherapy
  • Leukapheresis
  • Rituximab
A
  • Imatinib : BCR-ABL inhibitor used for the treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia. It is used to treat Philadelphia chromosome-positive ALL
  • Induction chemotherapy for ALL : aunorubicin, vincristine, L-asparaginase, and prednisone.
  • Leukapheresis : hyperleukocytosis,
  • Rituximab: Leukemia / RA / MM
88
Q

INR toxicity

A

Any with bleed Hold warfarin / IV K 10 mg, FFP, Recombinant factor VIIa or prothrombin comples concentrate.

< 5 no bleed whold warfarin

< 10 hold warfarin give oral K if think bleed is possible

> 10 hold warfarin and give K2.5-5 mg oral K

89
Q

detection of insulinomas

A

Endoscopic ultrasound has an approximately 90% detection rate for insulinomas.

90
Q

INTRINSIC factors

A

8 9 11 12 -

XII XI IX VIII

HITT

91
Q

Manage a patient with early-stage invasive ductal carcinoma

A
  • Breast conservation therapy, which consists of excision of the primary tumor and radiation therapy, is equivalent to mastectomy in long-term survival.
  • Mastectomy is indicated for patients who are not eligible for breast conservation (those in whom complete excision is not technically possible with lumpectomy alone or those in whom radiation is contraindicated).
92
Q

Iron deficiney Anemia / What to look for?

A
  • Microcytosis and hypochromia
  • Elevated RDW
  • Decreased reticulocyte count
  • Elevated platelet count
  • Remember Soluble Transferin receptor is elevated as well
93
Q

Iron deficiney Anemia Gold Standard

A
  • Iron Low
  • TIBC High
  • % sat Low
  • Ferritin Low
    • Bone Bx most definite Dx
94
Q

ITP

A
  • Viral illnesses such as HCV, HIV
  • No diagnostic test
  • Primary is a diagnosis of exclusion
  • Rule out SLE
  • Evaluate drug history

In children self limite in adults chronic

95
Q

ITP associated with?

A

SLE

96
Q

ITP Tx:

A
  • Platelets > 30,000 — observation
  • Platelets < 30,000 — treatment
    • Steroids / IVIG / Splenectomy (will fix 80%)
    • Optional therapies for patients failing steroids and splenectomy
    • Rituximab *** /
    • Thrombopoietin TPO receptor agonists ***
97
Q

JAK 2

A

polycythemia vera or essential thrombocythemi

98
Q

Lenalidomide in combination with high-dose dexamethasone.

A

Associated with an increased risk for venous thromboembolism in patients with multiple myeloma.

99
Q

1:1 Mixing

A

Would fully resolve if it was Factor def

Inhibitor / aquired inhibitors whould take longer then normal but less then no-mix

Factor XI def could lead to prolonged mixing study

100
Q
A

macroovalucyt-b12folate

101
Q

Leukostatsis

A

Extremely hight WBC ~100000

Induction of chemo # 1 if not pregnent

Hydroxyurea # 2 if not pregnent and not symptomatic

Leukapheresis is # 2 if pregnenet

102
Q

microscopic colitis

A
  • Histologic changes limited to the colon, unless it occurs in the setting of celiac disease.
  • Colonic disease, features of fat malabsorption and vitamin deficiencies should not be seen.
103
Q

Manage short-bowel syndrome

A

patient should receive a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole. In patients who have undergone massive resection of the small intestine and are left with short-bowel syndrome, there is a tremendous surge of gastric acid in the postoperative period. The increased acid can inactivate pancreatic lipase, leading to significant diarrhea and possible ulceration in the remaining bowel. Therefore, all patients who have undergone significant bowel resection should receive acid suppression therapy in the postoperative period with a PPI.

Although increasing the loperamide may help with diarrhea control, it will not target the underlying pathophysiology of the increased acid production and will not prevent small-bowel ulceration.

104
Q

Manage stage III colon cancer.

FOLFOX

A

An adjuvant chemotherapy regimen of 5-fluorouracil, leucovorin, and oxaliplatin (FOLFOX) has been shown to improve disease-free survival in patients with stage III colon cancer.

105
Q

mantle cell lymphoma

A

Bone marrow biopsy reveals diffuse infiltration with small monoclonal lymphoid cells. Immunohistochemistry discloses overexpression of cyclin D1, and cytogenetic analysis shows a t(11;14) translocation.

106
Q

Manage a patient with a history of infective endocarditis before a dental procedure.

A

The indications for infective endocarditis antimicrobial prophylaxis for patients who will undergo a dental procedure involving manipulation of gingival tissue or the periapical region of teeth or perforation of the oral mucosa are

(1) the presence of a prosthetic cardiac valve
(2) a history of infective endocarditis
(3) unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease
(4) congenital heart disease repair with prosthetic material or device for the first 6 months after intervention
(5) presence of palliative shunts and conduits
(6) cardiac valvulopathy in cardiac transplant recipients.

107
Q

A. 1:1 mix of patient and normal plasma

B. Bleeding time/PFA 100

C. Antiplatelet antibodies

D. Factor VII level

pick one for each : vWD / Factor deficiency / Hemophillia

A

A. Factor deficiency with 1:1 mix currects Inhibitors do not correct with 1:1 mixing [first test for abnormal PT PTT]

B. vWD

C.

D. Hemophillia

108
Q

MDS (myelodysplastic syndrome)

A
  • asymptomatic
  • cytopenia (megaloblastic anemia with lower reticulocyte response)
  • thrombocytopenia and neutropenia later
  • hypercellular marro with single or multi lineage dysplasia
  • Rule out folate / B12 (hyperlobulated neutorphil)
109
Q

Manage early-stage melanoma / 1 mm is the key / sentinal LN resection if bigger then this

A

Tumors thicker than 1 mm require a 2-cm margin of resection, and tumors with clinically positive nodes require lymph node dissection.

110
Q

Metastic bone dz

  1. Alendronate
  2. Denosumab
  3. zoledronic acid
  4. pamidronate
A
    1. Alendronate
    1. Denosumab
    1. zoledronic acid
    1. pamidronate
  1. not for metastic bone dz
  2. good but not for MM
  3. all good
  4. all good
111
Q

MGUS therapy

A

MGUS
• No therapy is indicated, but these patients should be followed at least yearly for progression of their
disease

112
Q

MGUS

A
  • < 10 % monoclonal plasma cellsin BM
  • non IgM - IgG, IgD or IgA / can progress to MM / Less frequent AL amyloid
  • IgM Can progress to Waldenstrom macrogammagolbulinemia
  • less frequent
113
Q

MM

A
  • CRAB

Calcium / Renal fail / Anemia / Bone lytic

  • non IgM monoclonal > 3 g/dL
  • > 10 plasma cells on BM
  • Elevated B2 microglogulin
114
Q

MM

A
  • 95% will have an abnormal protein on SPEP or UPEP
  • The M spike** is most commonly **IgG followed by IgA, light chain disease, and IgD < 5% will be non-secretory with no evidence of protein secretion
115
Q

_MM _Clues include:

A
  • A low anion gap
  • Rouleaux on peripheral smear (when protien levels are high makes the RBC sticky)
  • An elevated globulin fraction (Total Protien - Albumin ~ 3.5)
  • Remember that the bone lesions seen with myeloma are purely lytic lesions
  • They should be assessed with metastatic bone survey, NOT bone scan

TX

  • Melphalan and prednisone
  • Combined chemotherapy regimens
  • Thalidomide/lenalidomide
116
Q

Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

A

Dx:

  • bone marrow evaluation revealing dysplastic maturation of 1 to 3 cell lines
  • hypercellular bone marrow with evidence of dysplasia Prognosis depends on _Percentage of blasts _
  • Cytogenetics Smear Dimorphic RBC / Macrocytic RBC Decreased reticulocyte count
  • Ringed sideroblasts **** iron deposits
117
Q

Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS) Tx

A
  • Supportive care
  • B6, B12, and folate
  • Growth factors
    • epo
    • neupogen
  • Chemotherapy
  • Bone marrow transplant
118
Q

Idiopathic Myelofibrosis

Smear?

A
  • Older patients
  • Clonal disorder with cytopenias
  • Marrow fibrosis
  • Extramedullary hematopoiesis** (make blood in spleen and liver / **massive spleenomegaly)
  • Smear:
    • Tear drop RBC / (nucleated )nRBCs / Left-shifted WBC series
119
Q

Myelofibrosis /Treatment options include

A
  • Supportive care
  • Growth factors PRN
  • Hydroxyurea or busulfan / to help to shrink the splee
  • Splenectomy / may the only source of thier RBCs production be careful
  • Bone marrow transplant
120
Q

Myeloproliferative Disorders

  • Older patient
  • Clonal disorders
  • Hypercellular BM
  • Splenomegaly
A
  • Polycythemia vera
  • Essential thrombocytosis
  • Myelofibrosis
  • Chronic myeloid leukemia
121
Q
  1. Dementia with lewy bodies
  2. Idiopathic parkinsons dz
  3. multiple system atrophy
  4. progressive supranuclear palsy
  5. sporadic spongiform encephalopathy
A

Dementia with lewy bodies

  • Dysautonomics not seen as much as MSA
  • rapidly progressive dementia / visual hallucination fluctuating cognition, REM sleep d/o, parkinsonism

Idiopathic parkinsons dz

  • Slowly progressed / REM behaviour d/o, dyautonomia > 10 yrs, resting tremor /rigidity etc.

multiple system atrophy

  • xsynucleonopathy, radip progression, prominent dysautonomia (urinary incontinenec, ortho hypotension), ataxia w falls, parkinsonism

progressive supranuclear palsy

  • rapid progression, impared vertical saccades, parkinsonism, absent of gait problems or tremors

sporadic spongiform encephalopathy

  • Creutzfeldt Jakob Dz / repid progression, slurred speech, ataxia, myoclonus, hallucinations
122
Q

Neuropsych symptoms as agitation and aggression hallucination in patients with dementia ! what to do.

A

Behavioral and eviromental therapy is the key

Cholinesterase inhibitors : improves cognitionin dementia not behaviour

Low dose Lorazepam: good for Alzheimer’s aggitation only need to be brief

Atypical neuroleptics - not approved for hallucinations in dementia

123
Q

Non hodgkin lymphoma

  • Relapse chances
  • Secondary Malignancies?
  • Other Dz associated with post tx?
A
  • After 5 yrs of screening the relapse chance is very low.
  • Breast mammogram 10 yrs post RTx/ lung / skin exam yearly
  • Cariology referal needed / primary prevention needed (control HTN, smoking, obese, LDL)
  • Endocrine (thryoid exam function / reproductive endocrinology
  • Neuro psych - (depression PTSD)
124
Q

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

  • Low Grade
A
  • Indolent course
  • Older patients
  • Fewer “B” symptoms
  • Higher stage at presentation
  • Predominantly follicular lymphomas
  • Sensitive to chemotherapy but not curablelesions
  • Long median survival: 7-10 years
  • May upgrade to more aggressive disease
125
Q

NHL:
Treatment strategies:

A
  • *• Low-grade lesions**
  • “Watch and wait” with treatment reserved for symptomatic disease
  • Treat until symptoms resolved, then observation again
  • Treatment should be more aggressive if younger patient
  • *• Intermediate and high-grade lesions**
  • Treat at time of diagnosis
  • Use combination chemotherapy +/- radiation therapy
  • Standard of care is CHOP plus monoclonal antibody therapy with rituximab
126
Q

Non small cell lung cancer

Treatment

A

Treatment options

Cytotoxics (platinum compounts)

Targeted agents(EGFR inhibitors, ALK fusion inhibitors, monoclonal antibodies)

127
Q

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma Burkitt Lymphoma = L3 ALL

A

Endemic Epidemic

African variety U.S.

Jaw mass Abdominal mass

EBV+++ EBV+/-

  • Very rapid growth pattern/aggressive
  • Looks like “starry sky” under low power
  • Associated with a t(8,14)
    • Involves c-myc proto-oncogene
    • Moves to immunoglobulin gene loci
  • Involves CNS and marrow frequently
128
Q

Ovarian Cancer

• Staging should include:

A
  • CA-125 level
  • Chest x-ray
  • Abdominal CT scan
  • Abdominal ultrasound
  • +/- Upper Gl series and barium enema
129
Q

Ovarian Cancer

Risk factor

Screening

A

Family history

  • Most significant risk factor
  • Up to 10% may be genetically based
  • Breast-ovarian syndrome
  • BRCA1 — 40% risk
  • BRCA2— 10-20% risk
  • Lynch II syndrome
    • 12% risk

Screening at this time is restricted to BRCA1 or BRCA2

  • Pelvic exam
  • Transvaginal ultrasound
  • CA-125
  • NOT REALLY EFFECTIVE
130
Q

Ovarian Cancer / Treatment options

A

Primary surgical resection

  • The amount of remaining disease has a direct correlation to long-term survival

Chemotherapy

  • Combinations of paclitaxel and cisplatin are standard of care

Radiation therapy

  • Not used often (Cervical cancer Rad is useful)
131
Q

Ovarian cancer relapse / how to follow up with them.

A
  • Ovarian cancer relapse rates are high (>70%) in patients with stage III and IV disease, and treatment for relapse can prolong survival; therefore, once-yearly follow-up is not frequent enough.
  • History, physical examination, pelvic examination, and CA-125 measurement every 4 months
132
Q

Pain management

Mild

Moderate

Severe

A

Mild OTC stuff

Moderate : Codein / tramadol / hydrocodone

Sever : Morphine / hydromorphine

could also consider patch /oxycodone with short acitng morphins

133
Q

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria / Dx

A

Gold is Flow cytometry

missing DAF CD 55 & HRF CD59

  • What to see in blood :
    • low hemoglobin / haptoglobin
    • raised LDH / retic / bili
  • Associated with risk for thrombosis (abd thrombos / Budd–Chiari in patients) / blood in urine
  • RBCs more susceptible to complement degradation secondary to the absence of Decay accelerating factor (DAF)
  • Homologous restriction factor (HRF)
134
Q

Pelger-HuetCells-Myelodysplasia

A

Pelger-HuetCells-Myelodysplasia

135
Q

Pernicious anemia

A

Autoimmune in nature with associated

  • antiparietal cell antibodies
  • or intrinsic factor antibodies

Look for Antibodies for diagnosis but do not have to be +ve

136
Q

Pilocarpin

cevimeline

A

target M3 receptors to stimulate saliva production good for patients that had chemo

137
Q
A

myeloma-plasmacells

138
Q

Polycythemia Vera

A
  • JAK 2
  • Low erythropoietin
  • low risk for thrombosis can give ASA
  • phlebotomy for target hematocrit of 45-50%
  • Systemic treatemnt Antihistamine for pruritus
139
Q

Polycythemia Vera dx

A

JAK-2 genetic / spenomegaly / blood cloths / hyperviscocity / Erythromelagia

Diagnostic criteria: (modified from the PVSG)

  • Increased RBC mass
  • Normal PaO2
  • Splenomegaly
  • Low serum erythropoietin levels
140
Q

Polycythemia Vera Symptoms

A
  • Plethora / Splenomegaly / Thrombosis
  • Hyperviscosity / Gout /
  • Erythromelalgia
    • Erythema and pain of digits
141
Q

Polycythemia Vera tx

A
  • Phlebotomy — easy way to control red blood cell count
  • Drugs — used primarily to help control platelet count or if phlebotomy not feasible / hydoxyurea
  • Low-dose ASA — if not contraindication
142
Q

Tomoxifen & Aromatase inhibitors prolong use AE

A

Prolonged tamoxifen use include:

  • Increased risk of endometrial cancer
  • Risk of thrombosis DVT/PE
  • Cataracts

Aromatase inhibitors now also proven for prevention

  • Osteoporosis
  • Arthralgias
  • No thrombosis or malignancy risk
143
Q

Porphyria Cutanea Tarda

A

Associated with:

HBC most common / HIV / ETOH / Estrogen use / Smoking

Clinical presentation:

Skin blister / bullae, scarying, hypo/hyperpigmentation on sun exposed area

Elevated urine uroporphyrin

144
Q

Prognositic Factors:

  • ER/PR Hormone receptor status?
  • HER2/neu status?
A

Hormone receptor status

  • If ER/PR receptor-negative, then expect a higher incidence of recurrence

HER2/neu status

  • Overexpression of HER2/neu denotes a more aggressive tumor
145
Q

Prostate Cancer

A
  • Front-line therapy is generally hormonal manipulation
  • Remember that the prostate is androgendependent, and most cancers maintain some degree of sensitivity to androgens.
  • Hormonal manipulation may be accomplished using:
  • Anti-androgens
  • LHRH agonists
  • Orchiectomy
146
Q

Prostate Cancer

Treatment?

A

Localized disease (Stage I and II)

  • Goal is curative therapy
  • Radical prostatectomy vs. radiotherapy is the usual dilemma if life expectancy > 10 years
  • Different side-effect profiles
  • Selection is patient-dependent: If patient is elderly, then observation is a viable option

Stage III disease, which penetrates the capsule

  • into surrounding structures, is best treated with radiation therapy alone

Stage IV disease with spread to nodes or distant

  • sites is not a curable illness
  • Common sites of spread include:
    • Skeletal system / lungs / Liver
147
Q

Prostrate cancer

A

Radiation therapy appropriate for patients at low or average risk

Radical prostatectomy is recommended for younger patients with organ-confined disease and a life expectancy greater than 10 years. This patient’s age and underlying medical problems make him a poor candidate for aggressive surgical intervention.

148
Q

RBC “Clues”
• Cigar/Pencil Shapes
• Macroovalocytes
• Spherocytes
• Schistocytes

A

RBC “Clues”

  • Cigar/Pencil Shapes = iron def anemia
  • Macroovalocytes = B12 Folate
  • Spherocytes = autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • Schistocytes = DIC / TTP / HUS
149
Q

RBC “Clues”
• Bite Cells
• Burr Cells
• Target Cells
• Teardrop Cells

A

RBC “Clues”

  • Bite Cells = G6PD def
  • Burr Cells = Renal Dz / Uremia
  • Spur Cells = Liver Dz
  • Target Cells = Liver Dz , Hemoglubin C Dz / cholestrol dz
  • Teardrop Cells =Myelofibrosis
150
Q

Risedronate / zoledronic acid

When what why treatment?

A

Risedronate is for paget’s dz / Osteoporosis

Zoledronic acid is approved for bony mets of solid cancers

151
Q

Prostate Cancer

A

Screening recommendation from the ACS (2010):

  • Discuss with physician to make informed decision after age 50 or after age 45 for high-risk individuals
  • USPSTF: Insufficient evidence prior to 75 and recommends against for > 75 years of age
152
Q

Breast Cancer

What they agree on (all of them)

A

Guidelines share

  • No clear recommendation for BSE (self exam)
  • No clear recommendation for CBE (Clinical Exam)
  • MMG from 50-74 either yearly or every 2 years (age 40-49 discuss with patient)
153
Q

Cervical Cancer

  • Pap smear classified using the Bethesda system
  • What to do?
A
  • WNL
  • Benign cellular changes
  • Atypical squamous cells/glandular cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS/ASGUS)
  • LGSIL (low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion)
  • HGSIL (high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion)
  • Cancer

What to do?

ASCUS

  • repeat in 3-6 mos
  • Abnormal repeat Pap needs colposcopy

ASGUS

  • Colposcopy

LGSIL (CIN I) / HGSIL (CIN II III)

  • Colposcopy and Biopsy
154
Q

Cervical Cancer — Screening

A
  • Begin no later than 21
  • Age 21-30 do every 1-2 years
  • After age 30 do every 2-3 years
  • Stop after hysterectomy for benign disease** or **age 65-70
155
Q

Seminomatous or nonseminomatous testicular tumors.

A

An elevated serum _α-fetoprotein level a_lways indicates that a testicular tumor has a _nonseminomatous_ component, whereas elevated β-human chorionic gonadotropin may be present in seminomatous or nonseminomatous testicular tumors.

156
Q

SIADH

A

SIADH

  • Small cell lung cancer
  • Medications: Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan® or Neosar®)
  • Results hyponatremia
  • Mental status changes, nausea, anorexia, and weakness
  • Coma, seizures

Treatment options include:

  • Fluid restriction — works best in mild cases
  • IV saline (0.9-3%) plus furosemide
  • Conivaptan for acute treatment
  • Demeclocycline for chronic treatment
  • Treat the underlying malignancy
157
Q

Soluble transferrin receptor

A

If high its Iron Def

158
Q
A

Spherocytes

159
Q

Suspected ITP

> 30000 no bleed / observe

< 30000 with bleed Then

First line

Second line

third line

A
  1. Treat with Steriods or IVIG
  2. Slenectomy or rituximab
  3. thrombopoiesis stimulating agent
160
Q

Symptomatic myeloma dx:

A
  • Clonal plasma cells >10% on bone marrow biopsy or (in any quantity) in a biopsy from other tissues (plasmacytoma)
  • A monoclonal protein (paraprotein) in either serum or urine (except in cases of true non-secretory myeloma)
  • Evidence of end-organ damage felt related to the plasma cell disorder (related organ or tissue impairment, ROTI, commonly referred to by the acronym “CRAB”):
    • HyperCalcemia (corrected calcium >2.75 mmol/L)
    • Renal insufficiency attributable to myeloma
    • Anemia (hemoglobin
    • Bone lesions (lytic lesions or osteoporosis with compression fractures)
161
Q

testicular cancer

NonSeminoma

**Non _has all in _ALL**

A

AFP and B-hCG

Seminoma B-hCG only

162
Q

Testicular Cancer
Diagnosis

A
  • Often an initial trial of antibiotics is given if epididymitis or orchitis is suspected
  • Testicular ultrasound is indicated for a painless mass or painful one that does not resolve after antibiotics
  • Ultrasound can distinguish between a solid mass and inflammatory changes
  • Markers, including p-hCG, AFP, and LDH, are common
163
Q

The best available therapy for chronic hepatitis C

A

peginterferon and ribavirin, with the addition of an NS3/4A protease inhibitor for genotype 1 hepatitis C virus.

164
Q

abciximab / tirofiban and eptifibatide

GP IIb-IIIa inhibitors

A

pt can develop thrombocytopenia within a few hours starting the infusion. Recovery in 1-2 days can transfuse plt if low or bleeds

How is it defferent then HIT ?

HIT : usually needs 5-9 days post exposure to heparin / could happen earlier if was exposed within last 1-2 months (preexisting ab)

165
Q

Manage the transfusion requirements in a patient with thrombocytopenia and intracranial hemorrhaging.

A

Platelet transfusion to maintain the platelet count at 100,000/µL (100 × 109/L) for the first few days after central nervous system bleeding or immediately prior to and after a planned central nervous system surgery is recommended.

166
Q

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura - The peripheral smear is helpful / similar with DIC

A
  • Schistocytes (shearing RBCs / because microangiopathic)
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Normal WBC series
  • Shift cells
  • nRBCs (BM compensation)

LABS: usually look for hemolysis

LDH, Elevated Bili, ADAMTS13

167
Q

Blood transfusion

  • Hb S negative
  • Irradiated
  • Phenotypically matched
  • Washed
A
  • Hb S negative decrease the risk of vasoocclusive complications
  • Irradiated - Immunocompromised / graft
  • Phenotypically matched / Leuoteri - Chronic infusions like Sickle cell
  • Washed - IgA
168
Q

TRASTUZUMAB

A

TRASTUZUMAB if HER2/neu +ve

Cardiomyopathy

169
Q

Trastuzumab Common SE

A

Trastuzumab is associated with cardiac toxicity; patients who will receive adjuvant trastuzumab for 1 year require evaluation of the left ventricular ejection fraction before and during treatment.

170
Q

Treat a patient with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.

A

Because lepirudin is cleared through the kidneys so be cautouse with CKD

argatroban is cleared with liver

171
Q

Treat a patient with kidney insufficiency and acute venous thromboembolism in the postoperative period

A
  • Intravenous unfractionated heparin is the most appropriate treatment for deep venous thrombosis in patients who have undergone recent surgery and have chronic kidney disease.
172
Q

Treat a patient with mildly symptomatic hereditary spherocytosis.

A

Patients with hereditary spherocytosis with mild asymptomatic disease should receive supportive care consisting of close clinical follow-up, maintenance of immunizations, and continued folic acid supplementation.

Patients with more severe disease leading to symptomatic anemia, growth retardation, skeletal changes, painful splenomegaly, or extramedullary hematopoietic tumors respond very well to splenectomy, with improvement in anemia, but it is not indicated in this patient.

173
Q

Treat a patient with secondary iron overload from β-thalassemia major.

A
  • Patients with secondary iron overload from thalassemia are best managed with iron chelators such as oral deferasirox.
  • Patients with β-thalassemia major develop iron overload because of inappropriately increased iron absorption caused by ineffective erythropoiesis and from multiple transfusions.
174
Q

Treat a patient with suspected advanced-stage testicular cancer.

A
  • Inguinal orchiectomy followed by chemotherapy
  • platinum, etoposide, and bleomycin (PEB)
  • nonseminoma germ cell cancer had Alphf feta protien+
175
Q

Treat a younger patient with high-risk acute myeloid leukemia

A
  • Allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation results in an improvement in disease-free and overall survival in younger patients with high-risk acute myeloid leukemia compared with chemotherapy.
176
Q

Treatment For IDA

A

6 months after their Hct normalizes you can stop

177
Q

TTP Labs

A
  • Elevated reticulocyte count
  • LDH
  • Total and indirect bilirubin
  • ADAMTS13 gene defect
178
Q

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

Diagnostic Pentad:

A

FAT RN

  • Fever
  • Anemia Microangiopathic hemolytic
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Renal dysfunction
  • Neurological signs
179
Q

TTP Tx

A
  • Plasma therapy — preferably by plasma exchange if available
  • Steroids
  • Platelet transfusions are contraindicated unless there is a life-threatening bleed
180
Q

vaccination in an immunosuppressed to AVOID

A
  • Varicella vaccine
  • yellow feverintranasal influenza
  • measles-mumps-rubella
  • bacillus Calmette-Guérin
  • oral typhoid
181
Q

Vit K def

  • K-dependent factors
  • Causes
A
  • Vitamin K-dependent factors are
    • II / VII / IX / X
    • Protien C and S
  • Vitamin K deficiency seen with
    • Liver disease
    • Poor absorption
    • TPN
    • Warfarin use
    • Antibiotic use
  • In acute cases give FFP otherwise Vit K po
182
Q

von Willebrand disease and oral contraceptive

A

Patients with a personal and family history of mucocutaneous bleeding who have borderline-low levels of von Willebrand factor while taking oral contraceptive pills have possible von Willebrand disease.

183
Q

von Willebrand Disease Labs

A
  • vWF:Ag — assay for the total vWF protein (levels)
  • vWF: Ristocetin cofactor — assay for the ability of patient plasma to agglutinate normal platelets with the addition of ristocetin / RCoF (function)
  • RIPA — platelet aggregation in response to ristocetin
184
Q

vWD - perioperative care

A

VWF concentrates are used perioperatively in severe VWD

DDAVP is effective in mild bleeding and in pt with mild to moderate Type 1 VWD

185
Q

Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia

Pathophysio

Presentation

A

Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia
• Increased IgM levels
• More common in older men
• More consistent with a lymphoma with lymphadenopathy and organomegaly
- Purpura
- Neuropathy
- Hyperviscosity syndrome

186
Q

Warm and Cold antibodies

A

Warm

  • IgG
  • lymphoproliferative and collagen vascular diseases
  • Tx: Responds to immunosuppression / splenectomy

Cold

  • IgM
  • Hemolysis is via the complement pathway
  • Associated with lymphoproliferative diseases or infection
  • Tx: Steriods but does not really work
187
Q

WBC “Clues”
• Dohle Bodies
• Pelger-Huet Cells
• Auer Rods

A

WBC “Clues”
• Dohle Bodies - infection / in nuetrophills gray bodies on the peripheral
• Pelger-Huet Cells MDS
• Auer Rods = AML

188
Q

WBC “Clues”
• Smudge Cells
• Basophilia/Eosinophilia
• Hair-like Projections
• Hyperseg mentation

A

WBC “Clues”
• Smudge Cells = CLL
• Basophilia/Eosinophilia = Myeloprolifirative Dz (CML / ET / PV)
• Hair-like Projections = Hairy Cell
• Hyperseg mentation = B12/Folate Def

189
Q

What causes hypocalcemia in plasma exchange procedures?

A
  • Citrate, the anticoagulant used in most plasma exchange procedures, can lead to chelation of calcium and subsequent hypocalcemia.
190
Q
  • Differentiating between these:
  • MGUS
  • Smoldering MM
  • Active MM
A
  • MGUS
    • < 10% marrow Plasma Cellsand < 3 gm M spike
    • No end organ damage
  • Smoldering MM
    • 10% marrow Plasma Cells or > 3 gm M spike
    • No end organ damage
  • Active MM
    • 10% marrow Plasma Cells with an M spike and end-organ involvement
    • Calcium, anemia, renal dysfunction,bone disease
191
Q
A
192
Q
A