Use Of Force And Taser Flashcards

1
Q

Officers may use force to affect a detention, arrest, prevent an escape or overcome resistance, in self-defense or defense of others. The type and degree of force used will be ____________ ___________ and based upon the facts and circumstances of the situation. In any event, the following specific procedures will be adhered to.

A. Reasonable cause
B. Objectively reasonable
C. Subjectively uses
D. If you don’t know this one….punch yourself in the face!

A

B. Objectively reasonable

L 2601

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2
Q

Objectively reasonable force is that level of force which is appropriate when analyzed from the perspective of a __________ officer possessing the same information and faced with the same circumstances as the officer who has actually used force.

A. Deputy
B. Probationary
C. Unreasonable
D. Reasonable

A

D. Reasonable officer

L 2602

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3
Q

Objectively reasonable force is judged with hindsight.

True or false

A

False

Objectively reasonable force is not judged with hindsight.

L 2602

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4
Q

Tactical conduct: Chose all that applies.

A. CORE TRANSACTION
B. LEVEL  OF  URGENCY
C. THREAT  ASSESSMENT
D. COVER,  CONCEALMENT,  DISTANCE,  AND TIME
E. CRISIS  INTERVENTION  TEAM
F. DRIVING TACTICS
A

All of the above except F.

L 2602.5

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5
Q

What is the meaning of CORE TRANSACTION?

A. A core transaction is defined as a lawful detention (justified by reasonable suspicion) or a lawful arrest (justified by reasonable cause). If no core transaction exists, no force is reasonable.
B. A core transaction is defined as a lawful detention (justified by reasonable suspicion), If no core transaction exists, no force is reasonable.
C. A core transaction is defined as a lawful arrest (justified by reasonable cause). If no core transaction exists, no force is reasonable.
D. A core transaction is defined as a lawful detention (justified by reasonable suspicion) or a lawful arrest (justified by reasonable cause). If no core transaction exists, force is reasonable.

A

A. A core transaction is defined as a lawful detention (justified by reasonable suspicion) or a lawful arrest (justified by reasonable cause). If no core transaction exists, no force is reasonable.

L 2602.5

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6
Q

All officers have a number of force options available for use in those situations where force is reasonably necessary. Those situations can include except:

A. Stopping a person who is attempting to flee or escape from a consensual contact.
B. Subduing or arresting a physically threatening or assaultive person.
C. Instances that threaten the safety of an officer or other person.
D. When directing, controlling or escorting resistive or physically uncooperative persons.
E. A and D
F. B and C

A

A. Stopping a person who is attempting to flee or escape from a consensual contact.

L 2603

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7
Q

There is _________ requirement that the person actually has to strike or attempt to strike an officer to be considered physically threatening or assaultive, so long as an objectively reasonable officer has sufficient information (verbal threats, verbal defiance, physical stance, etc.) to believe that a person is physically threatening and has the present ability to harm the officer.

A. Minimum
B. One
C. No
D. Some

A

C. No requirement

L 2603

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8
Q

Is voice commands considered a force option?

Yes or no

A

Yes.

L 2603

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9
Q

Force options currently available to officers include: Chose all that applies

A. Voice commands
B. Controls holds
C. Carotid restraint 
D. Police vehicles 
E. Brass knuckles
A

All of the above except E.

L 2603

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10
Q

Officers need not retreat or desist in the reasonable use of force. There is no requirement that officers use a lesser intrusive force option before progressing to a more intrusive one, as long as the force option used is ___________ ____________ under the circumstances at that time.

A. Reasonable cause
B. Reasonable level
C. Objectively reasonable
D. Objectively ok

A

C. Objectively reasonable

L 2604

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11
Q

A ____________ assigned to the district of occurrence or who is assigned to the incident shall personally respond to the scene to evaluate and actively participate in the investigation of the factual circumstances surrounding a subordinate Department member’s use of reportable force.

A. Lieutenant
B. Captain
C. Senior officer
D. Supervisor

A

D. Supervisor

L 2605

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12
Q

If a sergeant used force to a suspect, who will respond to supervise and investigate the used of force?

A. Lieutenant
B. Captain
C. Senior officer
D. Beat officer

A

A. Lieutenant

if an officer uses force, a sergeant shall respond. If a sergeant uses force, a lieutenant shall respond, etc.

L 2605

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13
Q

The responding supervisor shall approve the General Offense Report and confirm the appropriate automated use of force template has been completed by the involved Department member with the following exceptions:

A. The Homicide Unit completes the Force Response portion of the report as part of an Officer-Involved Incident investigation.
B. If the incident occurs late into the shift and there will likely be an extended period of time until the required reports are completed, the supervisor assigned to the call shall obtain Watch Commander approval if he/she wishes to pass the report review responsibility to a different supervisor at the end of his/her shift. In such cases, the supervisor assigned to the call will provide a briefing of the incident to the incoming supervisor prior to delegating the report review responsibility.
C. The supervisor assigned to the call have a doctor or dentist appointment that was schedule ahead of time.
D. B and C
E. A and B

A

E. A and B

L 2605

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14
Q

The __________ shall attempt to interviews the suspect(s) during a subordinate’s use of force investigation.

A. Supervisor
B. Lt
C. Senior officer
D. Investigating officer

A

A. Supervisor

L 2605

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15
Q

Sergeants or command officers must only complete ________ supervisor’s automated use of force template per incident (e.g., if force is used on multiple suspects in a single incident, the sergeant or command officer shall only complete one supervisor’s automated use of force template).

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

A. One

L2605

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16
Q

All forms and reports shall be completed and approved by assigned supervisor
prior to the end of shift.

True or false

A

True

L 2605

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17
Q

When an Officer-Involved Incident occurs, the Department member will be interviewed by the ______________ _________and the supplemental report for the Department member’s statement as well as the automated use of force template shall be completed by the _______________ ___________ who conducted the interview.

A. Commanding officer, investigative unit
B. Investigative unit, assault unit
C. Assault unit, homicide unit
D. Homicide unit, homicide unit

A

D. Homicide unit, homicide unit

L 2605

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18
Q

The process of Command Review ________ be utilized for Category (II) uses of force and ________ be utilized for the Category (III) uses of force.

A. May, will
B. May, may
C. Shall, may
D. May, shall 
E. Will, shall
A

D. May, shall

L 2605.5

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19
Q

Category II uses of force includes the following: chose all that applies

A. Taser deployment (probe and dry stun)
B. Impact  weapons  (not  to  the head) 
C. Control holds
D. OC spray
E. Projectile impact  weapons  (where up  to  4  rounds  strike  the  suspect)
F. Take downs
A

A,B, D, and E

L 2605.5

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20
Q

Category III use of force includes the following except: Chose all that applies

A. Impact weapon or Projectile Impact Weapon strikes to the head (intentional and accidental)
B. Projectile impact weapon (where more than 4 rounds strike the suspect)
C. Kicks to the head
D. Two or more officers deploy less than lethal force (O.C., Projectile Impact Weapons, or TASER) on one suspect
E. OC spray
F. TASER Deployments (probe & drive stun)

A

E and F

L 2605.5

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21
Q

Category III use of force includes the following except: Chose all that applies

A. Firearm
B. Four or more officers use reportable force on one suspect
C. Force resulting in bone fracture
D. Vehicle
E. Canine apprehension (dog bite)
F. Carotid restraint applied
G. Force resulting in suspect’s loss of consciousness
H. Hospital admission as a direct result of the force.

A

A and D

L 2605.5

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22
Q

Deadly force: That force which the user knows would pose a substantial risk of death or serious bodily injury, is a Category ________ use of force.

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

A

D. Category IV use of force

L 2605.5

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23
Q

Supervisors shall investigate a Department member’s Category (I) use of force. Is Command officers required to respond to Category (I) uses of force?

Yes or no

A

No

Command officers are not required to respond to Category (I) uses of force.

L 2605.5

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24
Q

Upon being notified of a Category (II) use of force, the command officer ________ respond to the scene and ensure the use of force investigation is handled in accordance with Duty Manual Section L 2605 – Supervisor’s Responsibility.

A. Will
B. Can
C. Shall
D. May

A

C. Shall

L 2105.5

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25
Q

Category II use of force: The command officer _________ direct the responding supervisor to submit documentation of the incident (to include the General Offense Report, the CAD printout, photos, and any other pertinent documentation), along with a Transmittal Form (Form 216-1) up the chain of command for Command Review by the Chief of Police or Assistant Chief of Police; if directed to do so, the responding supervisor shall submit the documentation up the chain of command within _____ calendar days, or as otherwise directed by the Office of the Chief.

A. Shall, 5 calendar days
B. Will, 5 calendar days
C. May, 7 calendar days
D. Shall, 7 calendar days

A

C. May, 7 calendar days

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26
Q

Category II use of force: Upon receiving the supervisor’s Transmittal and documentation, the command officer shall complete and submit a Command Review memorandum (available on the intranet) up the chain of command; this Command Review memorandum shall document his/her findings as to whether the force was within Department policy and shall be submitted within _________ calendar days, or as otherwise directed by the Office of the Chief.

A. 5 calendar days
B. 10 calendar days
C. 12 calendar days
D. 14 calendar days

A

D. 14 calendar days

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27
Q

Upon being notified of a Category (III) use of force, the command officer ________ respond to the scene and ensure the use of force investigation is handled in accordance with Duty Manual Section L 2605 – Supervisor’s Responsibility.

A. Will
B. Can
C. Shall
D. May

A

C. Shall

L 2605.5

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28
Q

Category IIIuse of force: The command officer _________ direct the responding supervisor to submit documentation of the incident (to include the General Offense Report, the CAD printout, photos, and any other pertinent documentation), along with a Transmittal Form (Form 216-1) up the chain of command for Command Review by the Chief of Police or Assistant Chief of Police; if directed to do so, the responding supervisor shall submit the documentation up the chain of command within _____ calendar days, or as otherwise directed by the Office of the Chief.

A. Shall, 5 calendar days
B. Will, 5 calendar days
C. May, 7 calendar days
D. Shall, 7 calendar days

A

D. Shall, 7 calendar days

L 2605.5

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29
Q

Canine officers involved in a canine apprehension (dog bite) shall utilize the chain of command for Command Review.

True or false

A

False

Canine officers involved in a canine apprehension (dog bite) shall utilize their canine chain of command for Command Review.

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30
Q

Upon being notified of a Category (IV) use of force, the ___________ _________shall ensure the incident is handled in accordance with the Santa Clara County Police Chiefs’ Association Officer-Involved Incident Guidelines.

A. Senior captain
B. Deputy chief
C. Assistance chief
D. Command officer

A

D. Command officer

L 2605.5

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31
Q

Once a command review has been completed, the memorandums and supporting documentation shall be routed to the Internal Affairs Unit for logging and retention.

True or false

A

True

L 2605.5

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32
Q

Uses of force: IA unit shall conduct an investigation when: chose all that applies

A. injury or death occurs from police use of deadly force.
B. an incustody death occurs.
C. a citizen complaint is filed.
D. a Department Initiated Investigation is begun.
E. Fatal accident

A

A, B, C, D

L 2607

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33
Q

When the use of hands or another body weapon causes injury which would reasonably require medical attention, the officer using force ________ ensure the injured individual receives proper medical attention as soon as practicable.

A. Will
B. Can
C. May
D. Shall

A

D. Shall

L 2608.6

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34
Q

Officers _______ obtain a medical clearance from Valley Medical Center (VMC) for an arrestee who has been struck in the head with an elbow, a knee, or a kick.

A. Will
B. Shall
C. May
D. Can

A

B. Shall

L 2608.6

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35
Q

Unless objectively reasonable based on the totality of the circumstances known to the officers at the time, officers should avoid activating more than _________ TASER against a single subject at the same time.

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

A. One

L 2614

36
Q

If circumstances permit, officers should avoid aiming the TASER to the following area of the subject: chose all that applies

A. Head
B. Neck
C. Genitalia
D. Upper thigh
E. Lower back
F. Chest
A

A, B, C, F

If circumstances permit, officers should avoid aiming the TASER at a subject’s head, neck, genitalia or chest.

L 2614

37
Q

The TASER ________ not be used against a subject in physical control of a vehicle in motion unless the circumstances are such that a reasonable officer would conclude that the risk of serious bodily injury or death resulting from subsequent movement of the vehicle is outweighed by the need to capture the subject.

A. Will
B. Shall
C. Can
D. May

A

B. Shall

L 2614

38
Q

Generally, use of the TASER should be ____________ when feasible against women who are known to be pregnant, very old or very young persons, physically frail persons and persons with known heart conditions.

A. Avoided
B. Used
C. Banned
D. Excluded

A

A. Avoided

L 2614

39
Q

Can an Officer use a TASER against a women who is pregnant who is in the process of harming her or another person?

Yes or no

A

Yes

Generally, use of the TASER should be avoided when feasible against women who are known to be pregnant, very old or very young persons, physically frail persons and persons with known heart conditions. An example of a circumstance in which it would be reasonable to use the TASER would be a situation in which an obviously pregnant woman was in the process of harming herself or another person, and more intrusive force would be necessary if not for the use of a TASER.

L 2614

40
Q

The TASER ________ be used against animals, if the animal poses a threat to officers or other persons or other animals.

A. Shall
B. Can
C. Will
D. May

A

D. May

L 2614

41
Q

Probe Deployment of a TASER should be limited to situations where:

A. The subject poses an immediate threat to the safety of officers or others
B. After assessing as much of the facts relevant to the situation as circumstances permit, a reasonable officer would conclude that the threat presented by the subject outweighs the pain and risks associated with use of the TASER.
C. A or B
D. A and B

A

D. A and B. Need both element to use taser.

L 2614

42
Q

In general, the TASER should not be used on subjects exhibiting only ________ noncompliance.

A. Passive
B. Anger
C. Uncooperative
D. Verbal

A

A. Passive noncompliance

L 2614

43
Q

An officer _______ not use a TASER against a handcuffed or secured person, absent overtly assaultive, self-destructive or violently resistive behavior that cannot reasonably be controlled by other readily available means.

A. Will
B. May
C. Can
D. Shall

A

D. Shall

L 2614

44
Q

An officer shall not use a TASER in circumstances where a suspect’s fall is likely to cause serious bodily injury or death, unless the circumstances are such that a reasonable officer would conclude that force likely to cause substantial injury or death is warranted.

True or false

A

True

L 2614

45
Q

An officer shall not use a TASER where an officer reasonably believes that a flammable, volatile or explosive material is on the subject or may be affected by the use of the device.

True or false

A

True.

L 2614

46
Q

Officers shall refrain from using the TASER for more than a total of __________ five-second cycles, unless the circumstances are such that a reasonable officer would conclude that each subsequent application of the device, analyzed separately, is warranted by the continuing and substantial threat of harm despite the pain and risks associated with its use. In this assessment, an officer may also consider whether backup officers are present to assist in controlling a dangerous suspect.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

C. 3

L 2614

47
Q

Whenever a person has been subjected to a TASER discharge, an official ___________ clearance is obtained prior to the suspect’s booking.

A. Supervisor
B. Medical
C. Hospital
D. Intake nurse

A

C. Hospital

L 2614

48
Q

Officers using the TASER in this mode should regard this application of force as a ________-___________ technique and apply the TASER for the minimum number of cycles and amount of time reasonably necessary to achieve compliance.

A. Shock-awwwww
B. Pain-compliance
C. Pain-control
D. Shock-control

A

B. Pain-compliance

L 2614

49
Q

The use of the TASER shall be described as follows and will require documentation in a General Offense Report (Form 200-2-AFR) and/or on a Narrative/Supplemental Report (Form 200-3A-AFR) except:

A. The TASER is used in a “drive stun” manner and makes contact with the subject’s body or clothing.
B. The TASER probes are discharged at a subject.
C. The TASER is used to the subject’s body for pain compliance.

A

C.

L 2614

50
Q

Officers that display the TASER in an attempt to gain compliance from a subject will ensure there is a note in the CAD event indicating the “TASER was displayed.” If the incident would require the officer to write a General Offense Report (Form 200-2-AFR) and/or a Narrative/Supplemental Report (Form 200-3A-AFR), the display of the TASER shall be documented in the report.

True or false

A

True.

L 2614

51
Q

Is an officer required to complete an “automated use of force templet” when an officer displays and arc a taser?

Yes or no

A

No.

Officers that only display the TASER are not required to complete an “Automated Use of Force Template”.

L 2614

52
Q

Officers _________ obtain a medical clearance from Valley Medical Center (VMC) for an arrestee who has been subjected to the discharge of an Electro-Muscular Disruption device.

A. Will
B. Shall
C. Can
D. May

A

A. Will

L 2614

53
Q

Can an Officer remove the taser probes from the suspect?

Yes or no

A

No.

Taser probes, if lodged in the body, are removed by EMS or hospital staff.

L 2616

54
Q

Any accidental discharge of a Taser air cartridge is investigated by the _______ _______ in the chain of command. The incident is documented in a Department memorandum and addressed to the ______ ____ ______.

A. Next level, chief of police
B. Senior sergeant, chief of police
C. Senior captain, assistance deputy chief
D. Senior officer, assistance deputy chief

A

A. Next level, chief of police

L 2617

55
Q

In addition to the authorized impact weapons, impact objects may not be used as objectively reasonable based on the totality of the circumstances.

True or false

A

False.

In addition to the authorized impact weapons, impact objects may be used as objectively reasonable based on the totality of the circumstances.

L 2621

56
Q

A Police Service Dog may be used to search for or apprehend a suspect if the handler reasonably believes the suspect is committing, has committed or is about to commit a felony crime, or a misdemeanor crime involving a weapon or violence and if following conditions exist: Chose all that applies

A. There is a reasonable belief that the individual poses an immediate threat of violence or serious physical injury to any person; AND
B. There is reasonable belief that the suspect is actively fleeing, physically resisting, or threatening to resist arrest and the use of the canine would overcome such resistance, prevent injury to arresting officers or other persons and ensure the apprehension of the subject; OR
C. The individual(s) is/are believed to be hidden in an area where the use of the canine would reduce the threat of violence or serious physical injury to officers or members of the public.
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. All of the above

A

F. All of the above

L 2623

57
Q

Police Service Dogs are not used to search for suspects who are believed to be ________ unless the handler reasonably believes the subject poses an immediate threat of violence or serious physical injury to any other person if they were allowed to escape.

A. Handicapped
B. Disabled
C. Elderly
D. Juveniles

A

D. Juveniles

L 2623

58
Q

A Police Service Dog used for tracking or trailing persons not associated with criminal activity (does not/does) fall within this policy.

A

Does not

L 2623

59
Q

The “Carotid Restraint” may be used when other control techniques have failed or are inappropriate and _________ _________ may become objectively reasonable if the “Carotid Restraint” is not used.

A. Force response
B. Deadly force
C. Pain compliance
D. Choke hold

A

B. Deadly force.

L 2628

60
Q

Officers _______ obtain a medical clearance at Valley Medical Center (VMC) for an arrestee who has had the “Carotid Restraint” applied to him/her, whether or not the person became unconscious.

A. Shall
B. May
C. Can
D. Will

A

D. Will

L 2628

61
Q

Officers will notify medical personnel that the arrestee should be placed under observation for at least _______ hour after application of the hold.

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four
A

A. One hour

L 2628

62
Q

a chokehold may only be used by an officer as a ________ __________ option (i.e. when the force being responded to is likely to cause death or serious bodily injury) when objectively reasonable to protect themselves or others from an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury.

A. Objectively reasonable
B. Reasonable force
C. Deadly force
D. Force option

A

C. Deadly force

L 2628.1

63
Q

Because projectile impact weapons have the potential to cause serious injury or death, this type of weapon will only be used in the following circumstances: Chose all the applies

A. To be used as a defensive weapon to incapacitate suspects armed with a weapon likely to cause severe injury or death until the suspect can be controlled and safely taken into custody.
B. To be used as a defensive weapon in situations where its use is likely to prevent any person from being seriously injured.
C. To be used to disperse crowd, crowd control.
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. All of the above

A

D. A and B

L2629

64
Q

When an intentional discharge of a Projectile Impact Weapon is used for the purpose of breaking glass, and the discharge does not result in any person being struck by a projectile, the discharge shall be not documented in a General Offense report.

True or false

A

False.

When an intentional discharge of a Projectile Impact Weapon is used for the purpose of breaking glass, and the discharge does not result in any person being struck by a projectile, the discharge shall be documented in a General Offense report.

L 2629

65
Q

Can an Officer use a stun-bag shotgun and 40mm projectile impact weapon for crowd control purposes as a method for crowd dispersal.

Yes or no

A

No. Only 37mm projectile impact weapon.

L 2629.5

66
Q

Which statement is true Regarding the use of 37mm projectile impact weapon. Chose all the apply

A. Officers assigned for crows control shall utilize the 37mm projectile impact weapon to disperse the crowd.
B. A lawful dispersal order shall have been given and the crowd has been given a reasonable amount of time to disperse and has failed to do so in violation of Penal Code Section 409 – Failure to Disperse.
C. Only personnel assigned to the Special Operations Division shall utilize the 37mm Projectile Impact Weapon during crowd control situations.
D. A Command Officer must authorize both the carrying and discharging of the 37mm Projectile Impact Weapon for crowd control purposes.
E. When authorized, the 37mm round shall be fired into the ground in front of the crowd. The 37mm round should only be expelled when there is sufficient distance between the officer and the crowd to allow the energy of the round, once it strikes the ground, to sufficiently dissipate in order to prevent any substantial risk of injury to any person.

A

B, C, D, E

L 2629.5

67
Q

Projectile impact weapons will not be used in the following circumstances: chose all the applies

A. On elderly, pregnant, and handicapped person.
B. On restrained, unconscious or otherwise incapacitated persons.
C. Except in emergency situations, projectile impact weapons will not be used until a sufficient number of officers are present to immediately take control and custody of the suspect
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. C and A

A

E. B and C

L 2630

68
Q

Accidental discharge of a projectile impact weapon will be investigated by a ___________ _________.

A. Senior captain
B. Assistance chief
C. Senior sergeant
D. Command Officer

A

D. Command offer

L 2632

69
Q

When an officer who discharges a firearm either accidentally or in performance of police duty, who should be notified of the incident?

A

Lieutenant

Note: If an officer of the required rank is not on duty in the officer’s subdivision at the time of discharge, the officer will ensure that the watch commander on duty, or any on-duty officer with the rank of lieutenant or higher, is notified.

70
Q

When it is necessary to discharge a firearm for the humane destruction (euthanasia) of a seriously injured animal, and no person was injured or killed and no property was damaged, the officer who discharges the firearm will notify who?

A

On duty sergeant responsible for the area and respond to the scene.

71
Q

When an officer discharge his/her firearm, whether it results in injury or death , Which unit investigate the incident?

A. Metro unit
B. Homicide unit
C. Assault unit
D. Investigative unit

A

B. Homicide unit

L 2634

72
Q

Firearm discharged that can likely to cause an injury or death. The Homicide Unit Commander will review the results of the investigation with the Office of the Chief of Police.

True or false

A

True.

L 2634

73
Q

A police officer intentionally caused his/her vehicle to collide with a suspect’s vehicle in an attempt to apprehend a suspect is.

A. Legal intervention
B. Motor vehicle accident
C. Use of force
D. Fuccckkk this shit sucks..

A

A. Legal intervention

L 2635

74
Q

A police officer unintentionally collides with the suspect’s vehicle.

A. Legal intervention
B. Motor vehicle accident
C. Use of force
D. Suck it….

A

B. Motor vehicle accident

L 2635

75
Q

Can an Officer fire a warning shot in the defense of any person’s life.

A

Yes.

L 2637

76
Q

Can an Officer fire a warning shot to effect the capture of, or prevent the escape or rescue of, a suspect whom the officer has reasonable cause to believe has committed a felony involving the use or a threat to use deadly force, and an objectively reasonable officer could believe that the person presents an imminent danger to the public if he or she were to escape.

A

Yes.

L 2637

77
Q

Can an Officer use a carbine to fire a warning shot?

A

No

L 2637

78
Q

Direct use of firearm: which is not a true statement ?

A. When discharged in a safe manner at an approved range.
B. When used for the humane destruction (euthanasia) of an animal, or to dispatch any animal that poses no immediate threat to any person or other animal, and other dispositions are impractical.
C. When deadly force is objectively reasonable in self-defense or in defense of another person’s life.
D. When deadly force is objectively reasonable to effect the capture of, or prevent the escape or rescue of, a suspect whom the officer has reasonable cause to believe has committed a felony involving the use or a threat to use deadly force, and whom an objectively reasonable officer could believe would pose an imminent danger of death or serious physical injury to other persons if he or she were to escape.

A

B.

When used for the humane destruction (euthanasia) of a seriously injured animal, or to dispatch any animal that poses an immediate threat to any person or other animal, and other dispositions are impractical.

L 2638

79
Q

Which statement is not true regarding the deployment of carbine.

A. The suspect is armed with a deadly weapon.
B. The distance necessary to engage an armed suspect is the effective range of the officer’s pistol or shotgun.
C. The suspect is barricaded or protected by materials that may not be penetrated by the officer’s pistol or shotgun.
D. The officer has reasonable cause to believe an armed suspect is wearing body armor

A

B.

The distance necessary to engage an armed suspect is beyond the effective range of the officer’s pistol or shotgun.

L 2640

80
Q

When a fleeing vehicle does not pose an immediate threat of serious bodily injury or death to the officer or another person at the scene, firearms will not be discharged at such fleeing vehicles except in extraordinary circumstances when an officer believes with a reasonable certainty that the driver or occupant will inflict harm likely to cause serious bodily injury or death if allowed to escape.

True or false

A

True

L 2641

81
Q

The notification of accidental discharge of firearm the same as accidental discharge or a stun bag shotgun?

A

Yes.

In all instances where there is the accidental discharge of a firearm that does not result in an injury or death, a thorough investigation will be conducted by a command officer in the involved member’s chain of command. The investigating command officer will forward a detailed written report through the chain of command to the Chief of Police. The report shall contain the command officer’s observations, conclusions and recommendations addressing firearm training.

L 2642

82
Q

Accidental discharge of firearm: The _________ _________will notify the Department Range Supervisor as soon as possible after the incident to schedule weapon inspection and determine the need to provide training. The inspection and training will be conducted as soon as possible.

A. Command officer
B. Assistance chief
C. Chief of police
D. Deputy chief

A

A. Command officer

L 2642

83
Q

If the weapon is not a City-issued weapon, the _________ _________ will contact the Range Supervisor to determine if a duplicate weapon is available. If a duplicate weapon or the Range Supervisor is unavailable, the command officer will determine the appropriate duty assignment for the involved officer until the officer can be rearmed.

A. Command officer
B. Assistance chief
C. Chief of police
D. Deputy chief

A

A. Command officer

L 2642

84
Q

A ___________ use of force is defined as any incident in which officers, either on or off duty, exercises their police powers and uses deadly force or any force option including physical force in conformance with L 2603, Force Options Policy.

A. Clear
B. Good
C. Reasonable
D. Reportable

A

D. Reportable

L 2644

85
Q

The use of a firm grip control which does not result in injury, the appearance of injury or complaint of pain, is a reportable use of force

True or false

A

False

EXCEPTIONS TO REPORTABLE FORCE: The use of a firm grip control which does not result in injury, the appearance of injury or complaint of pain (e.g., the use of a grip to control the suspect’s hands while searching or handcuffing); or that force reasonable to overcome resistance due to physical disability or intoxication, which does not result in injury, the appearance of injury or complaint of pain (e.g., lifting an intoxicated person to a standing position).

L 2645

86
Q

Defined: Any situation where a Department member is taking enforcement action within the course and scope of his/her duties as a peace officer.

A. Reasonable cause
B. Enforcement action
C. Crime enforcement
D. Enforcement situation

A

D. Enforcement situation

L 2645