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Security Forces (Edwards QC) > Use of Force > Flashcards

Use of Force Flashcards

1
Q

(Pretest)

SF Commanders will interview a newly assigned SF member prior to issuing a firearm. True or false?

A

True

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2
Q

(Pretest)

How much force should USAF personnel use to accomplish their duties?

A

Reasonable force necessary

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3
Q

(Pretest)

Prescription medications will always disqualify individuals from bearing firearms.

A

False

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4
Q

(Pretest)

“Subjective action” defines the capability and intent to carry out a threatening act as perceived by the officer or sentry. True of false?

A

False

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5
Q

(Pretest)

______ have the authority to authorize personnel to openly bear and use firearms.

A

Squadron Commander

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6
Q

(Pretest)

Verbal notifications of temporary withdrawals of firearms may last how long?

A

72 hours

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7
Q

(Pretest)

Loss of assets that would seriously jeopardize the fulfillment of a national defense mission falls under what deadly force circumstance?

A

Assets vital to national security

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8
Q

(Pretest)

When can you not enter a medical facility while carrying a firearm?

A

On-duty Security Force attending a routine appointment

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9
Q

(Pretest)

The focus toward the confrontation should be primarily place upon the “actions” of the subject, the “actor” in the situation, the “who” involved, and the “what” is happening at the time. What is the SF members primary focus towards?

A

What

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10
Q

(Pretest)

The decision to employ reasonable force is base on what?

A

1) Officer/Sentry’s perception of the subject’s actions

2) Totality of circumstances

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11
Q

(Pretest)

Arming group A will be trained every ____ months.

A

12

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12
Q

(Pretest)

Deadly Force may be the only option available to respond to a hostile act of hostile intent in some cases. True or false?

A

True

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13
Q

(Pretest)

Use of force applies to all application of force, not just deadly force. True or false?

A

True

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14
Q

(Pretest)

Physiological triggers that occur on the sympathetic nervous system include:

A

1) Injury
2) The unknown
3) Lack of confidence in abilities
4) Fear of Death

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15
Q

(Pretest)

Personnel must have _____ information verified by authenticating officials prior to being issued an AF Form 629.

A

Weapons qualification, UoF training, and completed DD Form 2760

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16
Q

(Pretest)

A firearm that is not clearly visible when worn is called a _____?

A

concealed weapon

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17
Q

(Pretest)

When responding with an M9 to an actual incident, when you can reasonably expect to meet an armed adversary, respond with firearm, and carry ________

A

At “high or low ready,” hammer forward, safety off, finger not in the trigger guard.

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18
Q

(Pretest)

Commanders may impose further restrictions on the Use of Force to comply with local and host-nations law. True or false?

A

True

19
Q

(Pretest)

Stress causes the nervous system to initiate a defense mechanism called the _____?

A

1) Flight or fight response

2) Freezing response

20
Q

(Pretest)

Key elements to the U.S Supreme Court’s decision identified critical in determining the objective reasonableness standard include the officer’s _______.

A

1) Perception of circumstances

2) Perception of Subjective Actions

21
Q

(Pretest)

Individuals must report signs of mental and physical illness/impairment that could cause negative impact on people, resources, and the mission. True or false?

A

True

22
Q

(Pretest)

A downward effect could occur if reasonable force is not applied immediately to gain control and compliance. True or false?

A

True

23
Q

(Pretest)

“One time” qualifications extensions are granted by the Squadron Commander for a maximum of _____ days.

A

120 calendar

24
Q

(Pretest)

Force which is reasonable necessary must conform with —

A

1) U.S Constitution
2) DoD policy
3) Federal Statutes

25
Q

(Pretest)

The Field interview stance, defense/offensive posture, distance, cover, proper placement of a patrol vehicle, movement to or at an object, and the element of surprise are examples of what in the Unified Training Principles (UTP)?

A

Positions of Advantage

26
Q

(Pretest)

Intensity, duration, and magnitude must be objectively reasonable based on totality of circumstances. True or false?

A

True

27
Q

(Pretest)

When responding with an M9 to an actual incident, where you can reasonably expect to meet an armed adversary, respond with firearm, and carry _______

A

At “high or low ready,” hammer forward, safety off, finger not in the rigger guard.

28
Q

(Pretest)

If feasible, the Sentry or Officer should give the confronter a warning and the opportunity to cease threatening actions. True or false?

A

True

29
Q

(Pretest)

When responding with an M4/M16 to an actual incident where you can reasonable expect to meet an armed adversary, respond with the firearm ready, and carry _______.

A

At “high ready or low ready,” round in the chamber, safety selector on “safe’, finger not in the trigger guard.

30
Q

(Pretest)

When is deadly force justified?

A

1) Preventing the theft of resources specifically designated as VITAL to national security
2) Protecting oneself from death or serious bodily harm
3) Preventing serious bodily harm against others

31
Q

(Pretest)

Commanders must withdrawal weapons under what circumstances?

A

1) Emotionally unstable behavior
2) Personnel relived of duty for disciplinary reasons
3) Identified substance/ alcohol abusers
4) Member has a qualifying felony or misdemeanor

32
Q

(Pretest)

Behavioral signs that could prohibit someone from arming should be reported by ______?

A

Everyone

33
Q

(Pretest)

When do Commanders not investigate firearm discharges?

A

When the discharge occurred during lawful recreational hunting or sport event

34
Q

(Pretest)

DoD personnel will not be issued government and privately owned weapons if there is reasonable belief they have been convicted of a ______ under the Gun Control Act of 1968 and Lautenberg Amendments.

A

Qualifying misdemeanor or/felony of domestic violence

35
Q

(Pretest)

The AFSFC/Strategic Planning Cell must receive a follow-up After Action Report within ______ days following all in garrison and unauthorized firearm discharges.

A

30 calendar

36
Q

(Pretest)

Personnel have to complete qualification training on the service weapon used to deploy non-lethal munitions. True or false?

A

True

37
Q

(Pretest)

Considerations of the UoF options are the _____ of the individual in which you make contract:

A

1) Size
2) Known violet history
3) Age

38
Q

(Pretest)

“The mental state of subject(s) initiating an overt act, either by words or deeds that show the intent in the furtherance of a threat, action, or crime” is defined by what term?

A

Officer Perception

39
Q

(Pretest)

US Air Force military, civilian, and personnel may bear government firearms aboard military or commercial aircraft while performing official military duties if the mission requires the member to carry a firearm during the flight.

A

True

40
Q

(Pretest)

Personal whose authority to bear firearms has been permanently withdrawn may never bear firearms again. True or false?

A

False

41
Q

(Pretest)

“In perceiving the subject’s actions, the officer/sentry’s goal is to obtain subject’s compliance and achieve his/her objective in accordance with the standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances” is defined by which term?

A

Officer Response

42
Q

(Pretest)

First line SF supervisors from the same base may not serve as a board member on a UFRB for another SF member from the same base. True or false?

A

True

43
Q

(Pretest)

Factors relating to awareness level or level of consciousness include:

A

1) Seizures
2) Intoxication
3) Daydreaming

44
Q

(Pretest)

Two persons concept teams can not have one person on the DNA list.

A

True

Security Forces (Edwards QC) (7 decks)

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