Entry Controller Flashcards
0
Q
What is Post reporting/briefing?
A
Required to be given to each person in the EC’s chain of command when they are out of vehicle performing duties
1
Q
What equipment is usually carried during EC duties?
A
M-9 and 30 rounds of ammunition.
Required guardmount equipment:
- Non-lethal
- Primary and alternate means of communication.
2
Q
All personal must report for duty with their body armor, helmet, and gas mask. No additional equipment is required unless directed by the Flight Sergeant.
A
False
3
Q
What is VWAP, and what is associated with it?
A
Victim Witness Assistance Program, program provides guidance on treatment of victims and witness. DD Form 2701
4
Q
What must you do if notified by squadron recall?
A
- Respond urgently and do not take extra time to bath or shave.
- Respond to the recall with all required equipment. Proceed directly to the guard mount room and sign-in.
5
Q
Who is responsible to make checks and relieve Entry Controllers (EC) for latrine breaks, meals and other situations as approved by Flight Sergeant?
A
Patrols
6
Q
When approaching a moving aircraft with your vehicle at night, how should your headlights be set?
A
Turn off your headlights and turn on your parking lights to show your position until the aircraft is our of range.
7
Q
An AF form 1361 is —– order?
A
Pick up/Restriction
8
Q
Who has escort authority on the general flight line area?
A
Anyone with the appropriate area designation on their AF form 1199, has escort authority for that area.
9
Q
What steps do you take when an individual attempts to gain access to the flightline without proper credentials?
A
Detain the individual, notify Security Forces controller and attempt to contact the agency being visited.
10
Q
You are responding to a incident in housing with reports of shots being fired, and a man moving about with guns, how do you respond with your M4/M16?
A
Port arms, round in chamber, weapon on safe, finger not on trigger guard.
11
Q
What open area on the AF 1199 is utilized for entry into the F/A22 complex?
A
11
12
Q
What is used in radio communications to shorten transmissions and facilitate the reception of messages?
A
Prowords
13
Q
Personal authorized unescorted access on the general Flightline and/or unescorted entry into PL III restricted area may act as escort officials?
A
True
14
Q
Who ultimately grants permission for entry to Edwards AFB?
A
Installation Commander
15
Q
To operate a US Government vehicle assigned to Security Forces, personnel must have a valid —–?
A
State driver license
16
Q
What type of flightline vehicle pass is issued for parking in specific areas of the flightline?
A
AFFTC Form 5436, white pass with a green stripe and number on lower right side
17
Q
The AFTC Form 5292, RED flightline visitor pass, has an expiration date and issued to —–?
A
Personnel for short visits to the flightline.
18
Q
The AFFTC Form 5436, GREEN flightline vehicle pass, authorizes use of any flightline gate. Who is this pass issued to?
A
Contractors
19
Q
The AFTC Form 5436, BLUE flightline vehicle pass, authorizes use of any flightline gate. Who is this type of pass issued to?
A
VIP’s (Allowed to bring POV on Flight line)
20
Q
As an Entry Controller you may issue an AF Form 75, Visitor Pass, for up to three days. If a visitor to the installation needs a pass for a longer period of time, where should they report?
A
Pass and Registration section
21
Q
You are apprehending a civilian for an base violation. Where does your authority to apprehend civilians come from?
A
Title 18, United States Code, and the US Constitution
22
Q
Force Protection Condition Alerting Message
A
The FPCAM, or down-channel alerting order, sets in motion the increase in readiness posture. As a rule, FPCAMs don’t trigger a theater-wide or AF- wide FPCON change.
23
Q
What actions do you take during seven bridges?
A
When an individual arrives at your gate, seeking political refugee:
1) Do not use the words: defector or asylum.
2) They’re vehicle must be parked 1000ft away from the gate, while any carry item 500ft
3) Purge the gate, removing vital information of the base.
4) Perform a quick frisk on the individual, but none of his personal items will be searched.
5) Have him turned away from the gate.
6) The individual is free to leave whenever, unless suspected of a crime.
24
Air Force Research Laboratory (AFRL) personnel with a permanently assigned badge who enter during non-duty hours are NOT required to sign on the AF FM 1109?
False
25
What are the barrier system?
They are "weaponless control measure" designed to stop unauthorized vehicle traffic by inserting an immoveable obstacle in roadway.
AFI 31-207
26
What are the barriers certified to stop? Their limits?
Certified to stop vehicle of up to 15,000 pounds, traveling at 50 mph.
27
What is the height of the barriers?
When deployed, the height of the barrier is 33 inches
28
Under emergency situations, how long does it take to deploy the barriers?
Under "emergency button", the barrier will rise fully open in 1.5 seconds.
29
How long does it take for the barriers to deploy under normal operations?
The barriers take three to five seconds to fully deploy.
| Both keys will remain the control panel with the power on, and will remain as such while the gate is operational
30
What course of action should you take if a vehicle impacts the gate?
Ensure proper medical assistance is provided and the scene is secured.
31
What is a HAVE LOAD?
Unauthorized aircraft movement, possibly a hijacking or theft.
Plane flap UP, you must wait for authorization
Plane flap DOWN, take down
(Paradise Load is the exercise)
32
How often should you inspect your gas mask?
1) Upon issue
2) Every six months peace time
3) Every seven days war time
33
What are routine items you check with off-going when assuming post?
1) Interior/ Exterior cleanliness
2) Pass-ons
3) BOLO's
4) Gate operations
5) Flag check
6) Fire extinguisher
7) Required forms
8) SSI
9) Base Station radio
10) Barment list
34
Concerning the barrier systems, the Flight Chef:
1) Order the activation at appropriate circumstances.
2) Respond to all barrier activations
3) Ensure ECC makes all appropriate notifications
35
When a private process sever arrives at your gate, the individual will be stopped and the EC will contact -----?
Security Forces Investigations (S2I)
| An arranged meeting will be held in Bldg. 2419
36
An individual without proper credentials attempts to enter through your flightline gate, what action should you NOT take immediately?
Apprehend the individual and transport to Security Forces Headquarters
37
Hazardous cargo arrives at the AFRL, ECP to make a delivery. You check the bill of landing, notify the AFRL Safety Operations, signs the driver using the AF Form 1109, and issue the proper visitor pass? What is the final step?
Direct the driver to the Hazardous Cargo Inspection Area inside the AFRL and wait for escort
38
What is the final step in the handcuffing process -----?
Double lock the cuffs by depressing the locking pins with the end of the key or object of similar size
39
Personnel attending college on base need to meet what requirements to enter the installation?
Person needs a base pass issued by Pass and ID, along with an AF Form 75
40
Personnel will be granted unescorted entry to the AFRL by presenting -----?
1) Green Badge (issued at Gate) or Red Badge (issued by AFRL Security
Office)
2) AF 1199 badges marked with a T on the front and marked with a black DV on the back
3) AF 1199 badge with area "U" open
41
Who can you accept an EAL from, concerning the AFRL?
Only AFRL Security personnel and authorized by SF E5 or higher.
42
When are hazardous Vehicle Delivery for the AFRL allowed?
During duty hours between 0800-1500 unless directed by the (SOCC) Site Operations Control Center.
(Monday-Friday)
43
What do you do for DOE Shipments?
When a DOE convoy arrives, the EC will:
1) Obtain the drivers credentials and direct the individual to proceed a safe distance inside gate and wait arrival of patrol
2) Landline the ECC and advise them of Safe Haven
3) Provide ECC reason for stop, courier's name, and the number of vehicles.
4) If the Save Haven is in immediate danger or under attack, the EC will direct the convoy to a safe distance inside the gate, stop all traffic and notify ECC of situation.
(Traffic will not be released until directed to do so by competent authority)
If arriving to:
(North Gate) NASA
(South Gate) Branch Park
(West Gate) CATM
44
What are the restricted areas in the AFRL?
1) Test area I-30 (Propellant Lab)
2) Test area I-38 (Environmental Storage Complex)
3) Test area I-39 (Toxic Fuel Farm)
4) Test are I-40 (Liquid Propellant Storability Complex)
5) Building 8451 (Chemical Laboratory)
6) Building 8417 (Electric Propulsion Laboratory)
7) Area I-110 (ASD) Advanced System Division
45
ECC Duress Procedures?
1) Golf 3 will transmit "Golf 3, code 99, Golf 3, Golf 99."
2) All post and patrol will cease non-essential radio communications.
3) Security 6 will proceed to the alternate SFCC by activating the alternate alarm system, notifying Command Post, Tower and Emergency room.
4) 360 will be established on building 3947.
5) Code 9-2
6) Senior ranking patrol will devise plan
7) Security 6 will telephone ECC
8) If all secure, someone will contact patrol. If under duress, Security 6 will implement Hostage Situation Checklist.
46
For a bomb threat, radio/cellphone transmissions are prohibited if within how many feet? How many feet for a vehicle?
1) 25ft for a handheld
| 2) 100ft for a vehicle
47
The cordon for a B2 aircraft fire is how many feet?
5,000 ft
48
What office is the only authority to coordinate foreign national visits with the Air Force Research Laboratory Entry Control?
AFRL/Security
49
If you feel you have been exposed to a blood borne pathogen, what is the best prevention?
Best prevention is to squeeze the wound and encourage bleeding.
Then wash area with soap and water and report to clinic immediately.
49
If the barriers are unusable what will be posted as an alternative?
A vehicle will be posted at the gate for runner pursuit.
1) If manning permits an armed additional body will be posted and that person will have vehicle keys readily available to all posted sentries.
50
What office will OSHA visits be coordinated?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration will be coordinated through the AFFTC Safety Office.
51
Under normal circumstances, what are the post limits for Entry Controllers (EC)?
Immediate vicinity of the gate to effectively control entry.
52
At what FPCON are exercises not conducted?
Exercises will not be conducted when the base is under FPCON Charile or higher, unless authorized by S30.
53
What is the EAL for an aircraft, landing on Edwards AFB?
Crew Orders
54
What is RIEVC and what does it stand for?
(Random Installation Entry/Exit Vehicle Checks)
Tools used the Installation Commander to look for misappropriate/stolen government property and illegal contraband.
55
What is a "TACAMO" aircraft?
Navy E-6 that temporary flies in and out of Edwards AFB, stands for "Take Charge and Move Out."
56
Where do you find the current security deficiencies and compensatory measures?
Review SSI book at each post
57
What is a BEPC? And what does it stand for?
(Base Entry Point Check) used as a tool by the installation commander to look for stolen Government property and illegal contraband.
58
Where can you find the current BOLO's?
1) Review SSI
| 2) Pass-on book at each post
59
What is the Probable cause?
Reasonable belief that a specific offense occurred, a certain person committed the crime, and that weapons, instruments, or other evidence of the offense are in specific place.
60
What does BOLO mean?
"Be On The Look Out" report, issued for wanted/missing persons or vehicles
61
During emergency situations, if the correct sign/countersign wasn't given what procedures must the EC do?
1) Halt emergency response vehicles and attempt to sign/countersign again.
2) If sign/countersign WAS properly returned on second attempt, allow entry.
3) If sign/countersign WASN'T properly returned on second attempt, contact ECC, challenge responding personnel and await further instructions.
62
When commencing your tour of duty at a gate, what should you and off-going do, before dismissing them?
1) A thorough inspection of hue facility to include flag.
2) Discrepancies will be noted on the gate checklist
(Notify the SFC of any problems that cannot be corrected on the spot)
3) Check pass-ones, current BOLO's and status of equipment.
63
What are the procedures you take when someone arrives at the gate who is on the active BOLO list?
1) Challenge/ Detain (depending on the reason for BOLO)
2) Contact ECC via radio or landline
3) Call for patrol to assist
64
At the beginning of each tour duty, what checks must be conducted at the gates?
A check of the duress alarm along with a radio check with the ECC.
65
Traffic laws may be broken while responding to an exercise. True or False?
False. At no time will traffic laws be broken while responding to any exercise.
66
What are secondary forms of identification for Base entry?
1) State issued drivers license
2) State issued identification card
3) Passport
4) INS Alien Registration Card
5) AFOSI Credentials
67
If administering Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation (CPR), what must you use?
Use the CPR Mask supplied in the patrol kit.
69
What is area 1 on the area AF Form 1199?
412 MXG (ROWS A-H)
72
What areas on your area AF 1199 must be open to be allowed entry to the B-2 compound?
Area (2)
419 FLTS BFTF B-2 S-BASE
Area (3)
412 OG/419 FLTS BFTF ABL S-BASE
73
What is area 6 on the area AF Form 1199?
418 FLTS RAMP 6 (C-17/130/135)
74
What is area 8 on the area AF Form 1199?
461 FLTS RAMP 8 & 9 (JSF)
75
What is area 11 on the area AF Form 1199?
411 FLTS RAMP 11 (F-22)
76
What is area 15 on the area AF Form 1199?
445 FLTS (SHADOW ROWS M-N-O)
77
What is area Z on the area AF Form 1199?
Command Post
78
If you are recalled and you live off-base, what is your response time?
One hour response time
79
Squadron Key Personnel recall -----?
Incident occurs that requires the presence of key unit personnel.
80
Limited Unit Recall -----?
Initiated when an incident occurs requiring additional manpower, but a full force is not required.
81
On-duty recall -----?
Incident occurs, requiring immediate augmentation of on-duty Security Forces.
Ex. All SF personnel in Bldg 2419 will report to the guard mount room for specific instructions.
82
Full Unit recall -----?
Incident occurs that requires complete unit response.
Ex. FPCON changes, mobility tasking, or mass casualty responses.
DFC or next in command are the only ones authorized to approve a Full Unit Recall.
83
What is area D on the area AF Form 1199?
412 MXG SOUTHBASE (AMMO AREA)
84
PL 1 Resource -----?
Resources for which loss, destruction, misuse, or compromise would result in GREAT HARM to the strategic capability of the United States.
85
PL 2 resource -----?
Resources for which loss, destruction, misuse, or compromise would result in SIGNIFICANT HARM to the strategic capability of the United States.
86
PL 3 resource -----?
Resources for which loss, destruction, misuse, or compromise would DAMAGE US war fighting capabilities.
87
PL 4 resource -----?
Resources that do not meet the definition of PL 1, 2 or 3 resources, but for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would ADVERSELY AFFECT the operational capability of the Air Force.
88
What is area M on the area AF Form 1199?
412 OSS (GENERAL FLIGHTLINE)
89
FPCON NORMAL -----?
Applies when a general threat of possible terrorist attack actively exists.
90
FPCON ALPHA -----?
Applies when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel and facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable.
91
FPCON BRAVO -----?
Applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists.
92
FPCON CHARLIE -----?
Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating terrorist action against personnel and facilities are likely.
93
FPCON DELTA -----?
Implementation applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.
94
Exclusive Jurisdiction -----?
The federal government has total or complete jurisdiction of offenses occurring on federal lands.
95
Concurrent Jurisdiction -----?
Both the federal and state government have authority.
96
Reciprocal (Partial) Jurisdiction -----?
Both the federal and state governments have some authority, but neither has exclusive power.
97
Proprietary Jurisdiction -----?
The federal government has the same rights as any property owner.
98
U.S Constitution -----?
The U.S Constitution established a system of fundamental laws and principles that prescribe the nature, function and limits of our government.
99
Federal Statues -----?
Laws passed by the US Congress.
100
International Law -----?
Source of international law are customs, written agreements among nations and the writing of authorities.
101
(WSP) War support posture is -----?
Restructuring tool designed to eliminate or increase posts according to priority with limited manning.
102
WSP 1 -----?
Normal operations
103
WSP 2 -----?
Less than 20% AEF Tasked
104
WSP -----3?
Greater than 20% AEF Tasked
105
TYPE II Security?
Security for limited components, classified nuclear support material, and sanitized aircraft
106
What is AFI 31-117?
Arming and use of Force
107
True or false? Use of force only applies to firearms?
False. Use of force doesn't only apply to firearms but all applications of force.
108
What is area 7 on the area AF Form 1199?
416 FLTS RAMP 7 (F-16)
109
What case established the 4th Amendment of "Objective Reasonableness"?
Graham VS. Connor
110
In Graham V. Connor, what four things did the Supreme Court emphasized?
1) Whether the person poses an immediate threat to safety of officer or others.
2) Severity of the crime.
3) Whether person is actively resisting
4) Whether person is resisting apprehension
111
On the area AF 1199, what do you need open to enter the AFRL?
(19) AFRL AF RESEARCH LAB
(20) AFRL AF RESEARCH LAB
(U) AFRL AF RESEARCH LAB
112
What is a Covered Wagon?
Informs higher-level of unusual incident affecting PL 1, 2 or 3 resources. Probably or actually hostile at an installation or dispersed site.
113
What is a Security Incident?
Unclassified message relayed to the installation command post indicating unusual incidents, affecting Protection Level 1, 2 or 3 resources at an installation or dispersed site.
(Can be terminated by on-duty Flight Sergeant/leader or higher)
114
Personal approaching the B2 aircraft Entry Control Point (ECP) without a restricted area badge with area "2" will be denied.
True
115
Article 2 states -----?
Exactly who is subject to military jurisdiction
116
During operations involving nuclear weapons or lethal chemical agents, the presence of innocent bystanders or hostages must not deter individuals or commanders from stopping the attack through all means necessary. True or false?
True
117
What order when feasible should be given prior to discharging your firearm?
An order of "HALT"
120
What areas, in the restricted area, are Security 3 -Internal Security Response Team - responsible for?
Ramp # 1, Rows A-O
121
What is the definition of custody?
Custody is the restraint of free movement
122
When are off-base pursuits permitted?
1) To contain a felony suspect
2) To prevent theft of classified
3) If weapons are involved
- Requires approval of current Flight Chef
123
During emergency responses, what information should the ECC provide to EC's and patrols?
1) Nature of emergency
2) Agency responding
3) Location of situation
4) Number of vehicles
5) Point of entry
124
What are the four security forces authorities?
1) Apprehend
2) Detain
3) Report
4) Correct
125
What are the four positions you can search someone?
Standing, kneeling, prone, complete
126
What areas, in the restricted area, are Security 3 -Internal Security Response Team - responsible for?
Ramp # 1, Rows A-O
127
What PL level is building 160 when the B2 is present?
PL II
128
What PL level is the BFTF?
PL III
129
What is the definition of custody?
Custody is the restraint of free movement
130
Article 5 states -----?
Where the UCMJ applies (Everywhere)
131
Rule 302 of the Manual for Courts
And
Article 7B
State -----?
Give SF the authority to apprehend any person subject to trial by court martial
132
Article 31 states -----?
Gives provisions for the Advisements of rights (Military personnel)
133
During operations involving nuclear weapons or lethal chemical agents, the presence of innocent bystanders or hostages must not deter individuals or commanders from stopping the attack through all means necessary. True or false?
True
134
What are three supporting techniques to gain entry into a restricted area?
1) Personal Recognition
2) Signature Credential Check
3) Master Entry Authentication
135
What must you check a visitor against prior to issuing a visitor pass?
Check them against the barment roster
136
What does PPE stand for?
Personal Protective Equipment
137
What PPE is required when inside a cordon for a suspicious package?
Helmet and Flak Vest
138
What the three reasons you conduct a stop all inbound and outbound?
Arm, Ammunition, Explosives ( AA & E) and (Funds)
139
What types of searches are done to individuals?
Simple frisk and Complete search
140
What are the three methods to show that a post or patrol is under duress?
1) Mis-authenticate (over the radio)
2) Use duress word (say in normal conversation)
3) Activate the alarm (push the duress button on the radio or post)
141
The 4th Amendment states -----?
Prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures. Requires any warrant to be supported by probable cause.
142
What is officer perception?
The officer perceives the person proposing the action or threat is capable of performing the action.
143
What protection level are Marine Corps helicopter assigned to Edwards AFB?
PL 4
144
The action or threat the officer perceives is imminent but not necessarily instantaneous, is best defined as?
Opportunity
145
The preliminary level of non-compliance that requires some degree of physical contact is best described as?
Resistant (Passive)
146
The use of Force must be reasonable in?
1) Intensity
2) Duration
3) Magnitude
147
Three elements of officer perception used in determining the reasonableness of employing or escalating force are -----?
Ability-capability, opportunity, and intent
148
Eight reasons for deadly force?
1. Inherent Right of Self defense
2. Defense of others
3. Assets Vital to National Security
4. Inherently dangerous property
5. National critical infrastructure
6. Serious Offense against persons
7. Escape
8. Arrest or Apprehension
