Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Internal Med PAEA > Urology/Renal > Flashcards

Urology/Renal Flashcards

1
Q

What are irritative symptoms of BPH?

A

increased frequency, urgency, nocturia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are obstructive sx of BPH?

A

hesitancy, weak or intermittent stream, incomplete emptying, terminal dribbling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What two classes of drugs may worsen BPH?

A

Sympathomimetics (Pseudoephedrine) and anticholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

uniformly, enlarged, firm, nontender rubbery prostate?

A

BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is PSA used for?

A

Risk of symptom progression in BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a normal PSA level?

A

< 4 ng/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How often should mild symptoms of BPH be monitored?

A

annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Best initial txt for rapid relief of BPH?

A

Alpha blockers (Tamsulo-sin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a sde of alpha blockers?

A

hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What drug reduces the size of the prostate?

A

5-alpha reductase inhibitors (Finaste-ride)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Txt for refractory BPH?

A

TURP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a sde of TURP?

A

sexual dysfunction, urinary incontience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a sde of Finasteride?

A

sexual dysfunction, decreased libido, breast enlargement/tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MC cause of erectile dysfunction?

A

vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What test is used to evaluate sleep erections?

A

nocturnal penile tumescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1st line txt for erectile dysfunction?

A

phosphodiesterase- 5 inhibitors (Sildenfil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the mechanism of phosphodiestrase 5 inhibitors?

A

increases GMP and potentiates nitric oxide mediated penile smooth muscle relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

C/I for Viagra?

A

pts who use nitrates and cardiovascular dx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a adv rxn of Viagra?

A

headache, flushing, rhinitis, visual disturbances, hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What lie is seen in testicular torsion?

A

horizontal lie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What lie is seen epididymitis?

A

vertical lie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Prehn sign?

A

pain relief w/ scrotal elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is cremasteric reflex?

A

elevation of testicle after stroking the inner thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What two signs are negative in testicular torsion?

A

Phren and cremasteric reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the definitive dx for testicular torsion?

A

emergency surgical exploration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What dx tool can be used in testicular torsion?

A

testicular doppler ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Txt for testicular torsion?

A

urgent detorsion & orchiopexy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What time frame should a testicular torsion be repaired?

A

< 6hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If surgery is not available what procedure can be done in testicular torsion?

A

manual detorsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MC cause of prostatitis in age >35y?

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

MC cause of prostatitis in age < 35yr

A

Chlamydia & Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

MC cause of chronic prostatitis?

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What sx are seen in acute prostatitis?

A

fever, chills, perineal pain, frequency, urgency, dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

exquisitely tender, normal or hot, boggy prostate

A

Acute prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

non-tender, boggy prostate

A

chronic prostatits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What sx are seen in chronic prostatitis?

A

recurrent UTIs or intermittent dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What should be avoided in acute prostatitis?

A

prostatic massage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Txt for acute prostatitis in >35yr?

A

Fluoroquinolones or Bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Txt for acute prostatitis in <35yr?

A

Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline (Azithromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Txt for chronic prostatitis?

A

Fluoroquinolones or Bactrim. Alpha blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Txt for refractory chronic prostatitis?

A

TURP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

MC nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

Minimal change disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MC primary nephrotic disease in caucasian males?

A

membranous nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MC secondary cause of nephrotic disease in adults?

A

DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Symptoms seen in nephrotic syndrome?

A

generalized edema, frothy urine, DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the biggest RISK with nephrotic syndrome?

A

DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the initial test for dx nephrotic syndrome?

A

UA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Fatty casts are seen in what disease?

A

nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the gold standard test for dx nephrotic syndrome?

A

24 urine protein > 3.5g/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the definitive dx for nephrotic syndrome?

A

renal biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

1st Txt for nephrotic syndrome?

A

glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the txt for steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome?

A

Cyclosporine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is used to reduce protein loss in nephrotic syndrome?

A

ACE or ARBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What causes DVT in nephrotic syndrome?

A

loss of protein C, S, and antithrombin III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What 4 things are seen in nephrotic syndrome?

A

proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What 4 things are seen in nephritic syndrome?

A

hypertension, hematuria (RBC casts), azotemia, proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the MC cause of acute glomerulonephritis?

A

IgA Nephropathy (Berger’s dx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Seen after URI or GI infection, due to overproduction of IgA?

A

Berger’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Most common seen after group A strep infection?

A

post-infectious glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

2-14y boy w/ facial edema after srep w/ scanty, cola colored dark urine

A

post-infectious glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Pt presents with acute glomerulonephritis + hemoptysis?

A

Goodpasture’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Hallmark for acute glomerulonephritis?

A

hematuria. (cola or tea colored urine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is common on PE forglomerulonephritis?

A

hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

RBC casts?

A

acute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Txt for IgA nephropathy?

A

ACE inhibitors, +/- Corticosteriods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Txt for post-streptococcal AGN?

A

SUPPORTIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the MC cause of AIN?

A

Drug hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What 4 drugs are related to causing AIN?

A

NSAIDS, Penicillins, Sulfa drugs, Cephalosporins

69
Q

What symptoms are seen in acute intersitital nephritis?

A

fever, eosinophilia, maculopapular rash

70
Q

What is seen on UA for acute interstitial nephritis?

A

WBC casts and EOSINOPHILURIA

71
Q

Txt for AIN?

A

Remove the offending agent

72
Q

What stain is used for eosinophils in AIN?

A

Hansel or Wright

73
Q

What type of genetic disorder is PKD?

A

autosomal dominant disorder

74
Q

What is the patho behind PKD?

A

vasopressin stimulates cystogenesis

75
Q

What are extrarenal manifestations of PKD?

A

cerebral “berry” aneurysms, mitral valve prolapse, colonic diverticula

76
Q

DOC for PKD?

A

renal ultrasound

77
Q

What test should be done after being dx with PKD?

A

genetic testing

78
Q

Txt for simple PKD cyst?

A

observation, periodic reevaluation. ACE or ARB

79
Q

Txt for multiple PKD cyst?

A

supportive, increased fluid intake

80
Q

What are the presenting sx of PKD?

A

abdominal flank pain, hematuria (YEAP looks a lot like kidney stones!)

81
Q

MC common type of prostate cancer?

A

adenocarcinoma

82
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for prostate cancer?

A

age

83
Q

What ethnicity has the highest risk factor for prostate cancer?

A

African Americans

84
Q

Back or bone pain in prostate cancer indicates?

A

mets to the bone

85
Q

hard, indurated, nodular, enlarged, asymmetrical prostate?

A

prostate cancer

86
Q

Most accurate test for prostate cancer dx?

A

transrectal US guided needle biopsy

87
Q

At what PSA level should a bone scan be done to rule out mets?

A

> 10

88
Q

Adverse effects of prostatectomy?

A

incontinence & erectile dysfunction

89
Q

Txt for advanced prostate cancer?

A

hormonal therapy ( orchiectomy/Flutamide + GnRH agonists)

90
Q

T/F screening should be done for prostate cancer?

A

FALSE

91
Q

MC cause of pyelonephritis?

A

E.coli

92
Q

Sx of pyelonephritis?

A

fever, chills, back or flank pain, n/v

93
Q

What is seen on PE for pyelo?

A

+ CVA tenderness, fever, tachy

94
Q

Wbc cast?

A

pyelonephritis

95
Q

Definitive dx for pyelonephritis?

A

urine culture

96
Q

1st Txt for pyelonephritis?

A

Fluoroquinolones

97
Q

Txt for pyelonephritis in pregnancy?

A

IV Ceftriaxone

98
Q

Txt for pyelonephritis in pregnancy if allergic to pencillin?

A

Aztreonam

99
Q

Txt for resistant pyelonephritis out pt?

A

IV ceftriaxone or gentamicin followed by oral fluoroquinolone

100
Q

MC stone in nephrolithiasis?

A

calcium oxalate

101
Q

Sx of nephrolithiasis?

A

sudden, constant upper lateral back or flank pain radiating to the groin, hematuria

102
Q

IOC for nephrolithiasis?

A

non con CT abdomen & pelvis

103
Q

IOC for pregnant or children in nephrolithiasis?

A

renal US

104
Q

What 2 stone types are only radiopaque on KUB?

A

calcium & struvite

105
Q

Txt for kidney stones <5mm?

A

spontaneous passage

  • IV fluids & analgesics
  • Tamsulosin
106
Q

Txt for kidney stones >5-10mm?

A

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy

107
Q

Txt for kidney stones >10mm (1cm) or struvite?

A

Percutaneous nephrolithotomy

108
Q

Txt for obstructed or at risk kidney stone?

A

Ureteroscopy w/ or w/o stent

109
Q

Txt for kidney stones >2cm

A

surgical excision

110
Q

Txt for 1-2cm kidney stones?

A

lithotripsy (extracorporeal or transurethral)

111
Q

MC cause of painless scrotal swelling?

A

hydrocele

112
Q

Sx of hydrocele?

A

dull ache, heavy sensation, translucency

113
Q

TOC for hydrocele?

A

testicular ultrasound

114
Q

Txt for hydrocele?

A

none, self-limited

115
Q

A hydrocele puts a patient at risk of what?

A

hernia

116
Q

What is a communicating hydrocele?

A

peritoneal/abdominal fluid enters the scrotum via a patent processus vaginalis

117
Q

What is a non-communicating hydrocele?

A

fluid from mesothelial lining of the tunica vaginalis

118
Q

Where is fluid located in a hydrocele?

A

fluid located anterior and lateral to the testis

119
Q

MC type of bladder cancer?

A

transitional cell

120
Q

MC cause of bladder cancer?

A

smoking

121
Q

What occupation is at risk for bladder cancer?

A

dyes, leather, rubber (beauticians & auto workers)

122
Q

What medication can cause bladder carcinoma?

A

Cyclophosphamide

123
Q

MC symptom in bladder cancer?

A

painless gross hematuria

124
Q

2nd MC symptom in bladder cancer?

A

dysuria

125
Q

Gold standard for dx bladder cancer?

A

cystoscopy

126
Q

Preferred dx of bladder cancer?

A

CT urography

127
Q

Txt for localized or superficial bladder cancer?

A

transurethral resection of bladder tumor (electrocautery)

128
Q

Txt for invasive bladder cancer?

A

radical cystectomy

129
Q

Tx for recurrent bladder cancer?

A

BCG vaccine

130
Q

MC cause of epididymitis <35yr?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

131
Q

MC cause of epididymitis >35yr?

A

E.coli

132
Q

Best initial test for epididymitis?

A

scrotal ultrasound

133
Q

Txt for epididymitis <35yr?

A

Doxy (Azithromycin) + Ceftriaxone

134
Q

Txt for epididymitis > 35yr?

A

Fluoroquinolones

135
Q

IOC for hydronephrosis?

A

ultrasound

136
Q

Txt for hydronephrosis?

A

removal of obstruction

137
Q

What is the MC surgically correctable cause of male infertility?

A

varicocele

138
Q

Where are most varicocele?

A

left sided

139
Q

Dull ache or heavy sensation in the scrotum?

A

varicocele

140
Q

What is felt on PE for varicocele?

A

soft scrotal mass with a “bag of worms” superior to the testicle

141
Q

Initial TOC for varicocele?

A

ultrasound

142
Q

Txt for varicocele?

A

observation

surgery

143
Q

A sudden onset left sided varicocele in an older man may indicate?

A

renal cell carcinoma

144
Q

MC cause of acute cystitis?

A

E.coli

145
Q

MC cause of acute cystitis in sexually active women?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

146
Q

Irritative symptoms of cystitis?

A

dysuria, frequency & urgency

147
Q

Definitive dx of cystitis?

A

urine culture

148
Q

1st line txt for acute cystitis?

A

nitrofurantoin or bactrim

149
Q

2nd line txt for acute cystitis?

A

Fluroquinolones

150
Q

What med can be used as a bladder analgesic?

A

Phenazopyridine

151
Q

Sde of Phenazopyridine?

A

turns the urine orange

152
Q

Txt for complicated UTI?

A

PO or IV Fluoroquinolones, Aminoglycosides

153
Q

Txt cystitis during pregnancy?

A

amoxicillin, augmentin, cephalexin

154
Q

What drug should be avoided in the 1st trimester in a woman with acute cystitis?

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (bactrim)

155
Q

What meds should be avoided in pregnant women with acute cystitis?

A

Bactrim, Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones, Doxycycline

156
Q

MC type of renal tumor?

A

clear cell

157
Q

Risk factors for renal cell carcinoma?

A

smoking, hypertension, obesity, men, dialysis

158
Q

Classic triad of renal cell carcinoma?

A

hematuria, flank or abdominal pain, palpable abdominal mass

159
Q

MC site of mets for renal cell carcinoma?

A

Lungs

160
Q

Initial test for dx renal cell carcinoma?

A

CT

161
Q

Txt for renal cell carcinoma?

A

radical nephrectomy

162
Q

MC cause of secondary hypertension?

A

renal artery stenosis

163
Q

MC cause of renal artery stenosis in the elderly?

A

atherosclerosis

164
Q

Who should renal artery stenosis be suspected in?

A

HTN resistant on > 3 drugs
Abdominal bruit
Acute kidney injury after initiation of ACE inhibitors

165
Q

Definitive dx for renal artery stenosis?

A

Renal catheter arteriography

166
Q

Definitive txt for renal artery stenosis?

A

Revascularization (angioplasty or bypass)

167
Q

When are ACE or ARB contraindicated in renal artery stenosis txt?

A

w/ bilateral stenosis or in patients with a solitary kidney

168
Q

In chronic kidney disease what is the GFR defined as?

A

< 60 ml/min

169
Q

MC cause of prerenal failure?

A

hypovolemia

Internal Med PAEA (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions