Urology Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of urinary tract infections in children?**

  • A) Klebsiella
  • B) Streptococcus
  • C) Pseudomonas
  • D) E. coli
A

D) E. coli
- Explanation: E. coli is responsible for 75% to 90% of UTIs in children, making it the most common causative agent.

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2
Q

*In the management of UTI, which of the following is typically used as first-line treatment?**

  • A) Amoxicillin
  • B) Ciprofloxacin
  • C) Bactrim (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole)
  • D) Metronidazole
A

C) Bactrim (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole)
- Explanation: Bactrim, along with Macrodantin (nitrofurantoin) and Keflex (cephalexin), is commonly used as first-line treatment for UTIs in children.

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3
Q

What imaging is recommended after completing UTI treatment for a child who had confirmed bacteriuria and fever?**

  • A) CT urogram
  • B) Renal and bladder ultrasound
  • C) MRI abdomen
  • D) Simple abdominal X-ray
A

B) Renal and bladder ultrasound
- Explanation: A renal and bladder ultrasound is advised to check for anatomical abnormalities after completing UTI treatment, especially in cases with fever.

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4
Q

What is the recommended course of action for a child with recurrent UTIs and associated vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)?**

  • A) Observation only
  • B) Long-term antibiotic prophylaxis
  • C) Immediate surgical intervention
  • D) Change in diet and physical activity
A

B) Long-term antibiotic prophylaxis
- Explanation: To prevent further UTIs in children with VUR, long-term antibiotic prophylaxis for 6 to 12 months is recommended.

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5
Q

When is referral to a pediatric urologist indicated in the context of childhood UTIs?**

  • A) After a single episode of uncomplicated cystitis
  • B) After every febrile UTI with positive culture
  • C) Only if symptoms persist despite multiple courses of antibiotics
  • D) After initial empirical treatment without urine culture evidence
A

B) After every febrile UTI with positive culture
- Explanation: Even a single febrile UTI with positive urine culture necessitates evaluation by a pediatric urologist to rule out underlying issues and determine further management.

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6
Q

Amy is a 5-month-old female initially presenting to the pediatric clinic with a 2-day history of fever. Her temperature has ranged between 101°F and 102°F. She appears irritable but is feeding well. There is no history of vomiting, diarrhea, or respiratory symptoms. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she has been meeting her developmental milestones. Amy’s vaccination status is up to date.

Physical Examination:

  • Vitals: Temp: 101.5°F, HR: 140 bpm, RR: 30 bpm
  • She has no overt signs of upper respiratory tract infection.
  • Abdominal examination reveals mild tenderness in the suprapubic area without any palpable mass.
  • The rest of the physical examination is normal.

Initial Investigations:

A urine sample is obtained through catheterization. Urinalysis shows:

  • Leukocyte esterase: Positive
  • Nitrites: Positive
  • White blood cells: >50 per HPF
  • Bacterial count is significant.

The urine culture grows: E. coli, sensitive to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) and nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin).

Amy is admitted to the hospital and started on IV antibiotics due to her age and febrile status, with the plan to switch to oral antibiotics after clinical improvement.

During the hospital stay, she is referred for a renal and bladder ultrasound, which comes back normal. She is discharged on Bactrim for a total of 10 days of antibiotic therapy.

Questions:

  1. What factors in Amy’s case indicate the need for IV antibiotics initially?
    • A) Her age
    • B) Significant bacteriuria and fever
    • C) Laboratory confirmation of E. coli
    • D) All of the above
A

Answer:** D) All of the above
- Explanation: IV antibiotics are often indicated in young infants (especially under 6 months), particularly when there are signs of systemic involvement such as fever and significant bacteriuria.

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7
Q

Why was a renal and bladder ultrasound performed in this case?**

  • A) To identify anatomical abnormalities or dilation
  • B) To look for urinary stones
  • C) To evaluate bladder wall thickness
  • D) To guide antibiotic selection
A

A) To identify anatomical abnormalities or dilation
- Explanation: A renal and bladder ultrasound is used to detect any underlying anatomical issues, such as hydronephrosis, that might predispose Amy to recurrent UTIs.

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8
Q

What additional management might be considered if Amy’s UTI recurs with vesicoureteral reflux suspected?**

  • A) Considering surgery immediately
  • B) Increasing hydration without any other measures
  • C) Long-term low-dose prophylactic antibiotics
  • D) Repeating the same treatment as the initial episode
A

C) Long-term low-dose prophylactic antibiotics
- Explanation: If vesicoureteral reflux is present, a common management approach is to use prophylactic antibiotics to prevent recurrent infections and further renal damage.

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9
Q

What advice should be given to Amy’s parents to reduce the risk of future UTIs?**

  • A) Maintain good hydration and regular voiding patterns
  • B) Focus only on dietary modifications
  • C) Avoid visits to crowded places
  • D) Use aspirin for fever management
A

A) Maintain good hydration and regular voiding patterns
- Explanation: Ensuring good hydration and regular bowel and bladder habits can reduce the risk of UTIs by facilitating flush-through of the urinary system.

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10
Q

What is Vesicoureteral Reflux (VUR)?**

  • A) Infection of the kidneys
  • B) Regurgitation of urine from the bladder into the ureters
  • C) Blockage of the ureters
  • D) Swelling of the bladder
A

Answer:** B) Regurgitation of urine from the bladder into the ureters
- Explanation: VUR is a condition where urine flows backwards from the bladder into the ureters and possibly the kidneys.

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11
Q

Why is VUR significant in pediatric patients?**

  • A) It causes immediate kidney failure.
  • B) It leads to the exposure of the kidneys to infected urine, increasing the risk of pyelonephritis.
  • C) It permanently stops urine production.
  • D) It only affects bladder size.
A

Answer:** B) It leads to the exposure of the kidneys to infected urine, increasing the risk of pyelonephritis.
- Explanation: VUR can result in recurrent UTIs and, if infected urine reaches the kidneys, it can cause pyelonephritis.

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12
Q

What is a characteristic of Grade III VUR?**

  • A) Urine does not reach the renal pelvis.
  • B) Urine reaches up to the renal pelvis without any dilation.
  • C) Mild to moderate dilation of the renal pelvis occurs.
  • D) Severe hydronephrosis is evident.
A

Answer:** C) Mild to moderate dilation of the renal pelvis occurs.
- Explanation: Grade III VUR is characterized by reflux that reaches the renal pelvis with mild or moderate dilation.

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13
Q

What management strategy is commonly used for patients with VUR to prevent further complications?**

  • A) Immediate surgical intervention for all cases
  • B) Prophylactic antibiotic therapy
  • C) Ignoring urinary symptoms until adulthood
  • D) Dialysis before any treatment
A

B) Prophylactic antibiotic therapy
- Explanation: Prophylactic antibiotics might be used to prevent recurrent urinary tract infections in patients with VUR, thus protecting the kidneys.

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14
Q

For pediatric patients with VUR, what additional measures should be taken into consideration besides antibiotics?**

  • A) Treating concurrent constipation or dysfunctional voiding habits
  • B) Avoiding any liquid intake throughout the day
  • C) Encouraging holding in urine for long periods
  • D) Using high doses of painkillers as needed
A

*Answer:** A) Treating concurrent constipation or dysfunctional voiding habits
- Explanation: Treating constipation and voiding dysfunctions are crucial in managing VUR as these conditions can contribute to urinary stasis and reflux.

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15
Q

Which diagnostic test is often repeated in patients with VUR after a year to evaluate the condition?**

  • A) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
  • B) Voiding Cystourethrogram (VCUG)
  • C) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
  • D) Complete Blood Count (CBC)
A

Answer:** B) Voiding Cystourethrogram (VCUG)
- Explanation: A VCUG is a key diagnostic tool to evaluate and monitor VUR by observing how urine moves through the urinary tract during urination.

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16
Q

What is the difference between macroscopic and microscopic hematuria?**

  • A) Macroscopic hematuria is only detectable by laboratory tests; microscopic hematuria is visible to the naked eye.
  • B) Macroscopic hematuria can be seen with the naked eye, whereas microscopic hematuria is detected through laboratory tests.
  • C) Both are visible to the naked eye, but microscopic is less severe.
  • D) They are the same, but macroscopic hematuria is more painful.
A

Answer:** B) Macroscopic hematuria can be seen with the naked eye, whereas microscopic hematuria is detected through laboratory tests.
- Explanation: Macroscopic (or gross) hematuria means the blood is visible in the urine, while microscopic hematuria means blood cells are seen only under a microscope.

17
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of gross hematuria?**

  • A) Trauma
  • B) Kidney stones
  • C) Viral infections like the common cold
  • D) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
A

Answer:** C) Viral infections like the common cold
- Explanation: While UTIs, kidney stones, and trauma are typical causes of gross hematuria, the common cold (a viral infection) is not generally associated with hematuria.

18
Q

*What initial tests might be performed when evaluating a patient with hematuria?**

  • A) Complete Blood Count (CBC) only
  • B) Renal biopsy only
  • C) Renal ultrasound, urine culture and sensitivity, and possibly CT scan
  • D) Electrocardiogram (ECG) only
A

Answer:** C) Renal ultrasound, urine culture and sensitivity, and possibly CT scan
- Explanation: In the evaluation of hematuria, imaging like ultrasound, along with urine analysis and other diagnostic tests, helps determine the cause.

19
Q

When microscopic hematuria is detected on a routine urinalysis, what is a common subsequent step in management?**

  • A) Ignore unless symptoms develop
  • B) Immediate nephrectomy
  • C) Referral to a pediatric urologist or nephrologist, and additional urine microscopy
  • D) Start high-dose antibiotics immediately
A

Answer:** C) Referral to a pediatric urologist or nephrologist, and additional urine microscopy
- Explanation: Microscopic hematuria should be further evaluated by specialists to discern any underlying causes or rule out serious conditions.

20
Q

In cases of microscopic hematuria, which of the following is NOT typically a potential cause?**

  • A) Benign factors
  • B) Glomerulonephritis
  • C) Bowel dysfunction
  • D) Headache
A

Answer:** D) Headache
- Explanation: While benign factors, glomerulonephritis, and bowel dysfunction can be associated with microscopic hematuria, headaches are unrelated.

21
Q

Clinical Presentation:

John presents to the clinic with complaints of visible blood in his urine for the past two days. He reports no accompanying pain during urination but mentions occasional flank pain over the past week. He denies any fevers, chills, or weight loss. He reports adhering to his hypertension medication regimen.

Physical Examination:

  • Vital Signs: BP 138/85 mmHg, HR 72 bpm, RR 16 bpm, Temp 98.6°F
  • General appearance: Appears well, with no acute distress
  • Abdominal Exam: Mild tenderness noted on palpation of the right flank; no masses or organomegaly detected
  • Genitourinary Exam: No abnormalities observed

Laboratory Results:

  • Urinalysis: Red blood cells present, no white blood cells or bacteria
  • Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP): Within normal limits
  • CBC: Normal white blood cell count

Imaging:

Ordered a renal ultrasound, pending

Based on John’s presentation, what is the most likely cause of his hematuria?**
- A) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
- B) Kidney stones
- C) Bladder cancer
- D) Glomerulonephritis

A

*Answer:** B) Kidney stones
- Explanation: Given the flank pain, visible blood in urine, and family history of kidney stones, this is the most likely cause.

22
Q

What additional test might be useful in confirming the suspected kidney stone dx**
- A) MRI of the abdomen
- B) Cystoscopy
- C) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- D) Liver function tests

A

Answer:** C) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- Explanation: A CT scan is particularly effective in identifying kidney stones and their location.

23
Q

What should be the initial management approach for John’s hematuria?**
- A) Immediate urological surgery
- B) Prescribing antibiotics
- C) Pain management and referral to urology
- D) Initiate antihypertensive therapy

A

What should be the initial management approach for John’s hematuria?**
- Answer: C) Pain management and referral to urology
- Explanation: While the CT scan and further evaluation by a urologist are pending, symptom control with pain management is appropriate.

24
Q

Considering John’s family history and symptoms, what preventive advice should be provided?**
- A) Increase fluid intake to at least 2-3 liters a day
- B) Decrease physical activity to reduce strain on kidneys
- C) Avoid fruit and vegetable intake
- D) Start a high-protein, low-carb diet

A

Considering John’s family history and symptoms, what preventive advice should be provided?**
- Answer: A) Increase fluid intake to at least 2-3 liters a day
- Explanation: Adequate hydration can help prevent the formation of kidney stones in predisposed individuals.

25
Q

What is the most common type of kidney stone?**
- A) Uric acid stone
- B) Struvite stone
- C) Cystine stone
- D) Calcium oxalate stone

A

What is the most common type of kidney stone?**
- Answer: D) Calcium oxalate stone
- Explanation: Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stones.

26
Q

Which of the following is a common symptom associated with kidney stones?**
- A) Sudden weight gain
- B) Constant hematuria or microhematuria
- C) Jaundice
- D) Shortness of breath

A

Which of the following is a common symptom associated with kidney stones?**
- Answer: B) Constant hematuria or microhematuria
- Explanation: Presence of blood in the urine, either visible or microscopic, is a common symptom of kidney stones.

27
Q

When associated with what symptom does kidney stone presence become a medical emergency?**
- A) Severe headache
- B) Fever
- C) Skin rash
- D) Persistent cough

A

When associated with what symptom does kidney stone presence become a medical emergency?**
- Answer: B) Fever
- Explanation: The presence of fever can indicate a possible infection or complication and requires urgent medical evaluation.

28
Q

What is the best initial imaging study for the evaluation of suspected kidney stones?**
- A) MRI of the abdomen
- B) CT scan of the abdomen without contrast
- C) X-ray of the thorax
- D) Ultrasound of the heart

A

What is the best initial imaging study for the evaluation of suspected kidney stones?**
- Answer: B) CT scan of the abdomen without contrast
- Explanation: A CT scan without contrast is highly effective in identifying kidney stones and determining their precise location and size.

29
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically part of the management plan for a patient with kidney stones?**
- A) Symptom management
- B) Encouraging low fluid intake
- C) Referral to urology if necessary
- D) Dietary counseling

A

Which of the following is NOT typically part of the management plan for a patient with kidney stones?**
- Answer: B) Encouraging low fluid intake
- Explanation: Increasing fluid intake is a key preventive measure and part of the management plan for kidney stones, not decreasing it.

30
Q

What is the estimated incidence of ambiguous genitalia in newborns?**
- A) 1 in 500
- B) 1 in 1000
- C) 1 in 2000
- D) 1 in 5000

A

What is the estimated incidence of ambiguous genitalia in newborns?**
- Answer: C) 1 in 2000
- Explanation: Ambiguous genitalia occur in approximately 1 in 2000 newborns.

31
Q

Which condition can lead to ambiguous genitalia in female neonates due to increased adrenal androgen production?**
- A) Klinefelter syndrome
- B) Congenital adrenal cortical hyperplasia
- C) Turner syndrome
- D) Down syndrome

A

Which condition can lead to ambiguous genitalia in female neonates due to increased adrenal androgen production?**
- Answer: B) Congenital adrenal cortical hyperplasia
- Explanation: This condition causes increased androgen production resulting in ambiguous genitalia in female neonates.

32
Q

Which of the following is a potential cause of ambiguous genitalia due to maternal hormone influences?**
- A) Male pseudohermaphroditism
- B) Congenital adrenal cortical hyperplasia
- C) Female pseudohermaphroditism
- D) Turner syndrome

A

Which of the following is a potential cause of ambiguous genitalia due to maternal hormone influences?**
- Answer: C) Female pseudohermaphroditism
- Explanation: Maternal hormonal influences can lead to ambiguous genitalia, particularly characterized as female pseudohermaphroditism.

33
Q

In the context of ambiguous genitalia, what does true hermaphroditism involve?**
- A) Overproduction of testosterone
- B) Presence of both ovarian and testicular tissue
- C) Presence of external genitalia of both genders
- D) Absence of any genitalia development

A

In the context of ambiguous genitalia, what does true hermaphroditism involve?**
- Answer: B) Presence of both ovarian and testicular tissue
- Explanation: True hermaphroditism involves having both ovarian and testicular tissues, though the external genitalia may appear almost normal.

34
Q

In the context of ambiguous genitalia, what does true hermaphroditism involve?**
- A) Overproduction of testosterone
- B) Presence of both ovarian and testicular tissue
- C) Presence of external genitalia of both genders
- D) Absence of any genitalia development

A

n the context of ambiguous genitalia, what does true hermaphroditism involve?**
- Answer: B) Presence of both ovarian and testicular tissue
- Explanation: True hermaphroditism involves having both ovarian and testicular tissues, though the external genitalia may appear almost normal.

35
Q

Which specialists are crucial for the management of ambiguous genitalia?**
- A) Cardiologist, oncologist, and dermatologist
- B) Geneticist, endocrinologist, and urologist
- C) Psychiatrist, neurologist, and gastroenterologist
- D) Pediatrician, orthopedist, and pulmonologist

A

Which specialists are crucial for the management of ambiguous genitalia?**
- Answer: B) Geneticist, endocrinologist, and urologist
- Explanation: Proper management often requires input from genetics, endocrinology, and urology specialists.