Urology Flashcards
Which of the following conditions is NOT typically addressed in pediatric urology?
A) Bedwetting
B) Appendicitis
C) Hypospadias
D) Vesicoureteral reflux
Answer: B) Appendicitis**
Explanation: Appendicitis is a gastrointestinal emergency, not primarily addressed by pediatric urology.
A child experiencing both daytime and nighttime wetting might be evaluated for which of the following conditions?
A) Neurogenic bladder
B) Phimosis
C) Ovarian cyst
D) Meckel’s diverticulum
A) Neurogenic bladder**
Explanation: Neurogenic bladder can lead to incontinence, including daytime and nighttime wetting.
Which of the following conditions involves the abnormal placement of the urethral opening on the underside of the penis?
A) Epispadias
B) Hypospadias
C) Phimosis
D) Cryptorchidism
B) Hypospadias**
*Explanation: Hypospadias involves the urethral opening on the underside of the penis.
Which management strategy could be recommended to a parent of a child experiencing constipation associated with urinary difficulties?
A) Strict fluid restriction
B) Increased fiber intake
C) Delayed potty training
D) Decreased physical activity
B) Increased fiber intake**
Explanation: Increasing fiber can help alleviate constipation, which can be related to urinary difficulties.
In pediatric urology, what does the term “megaureter” refer to?
A) Enlargement of the ureter
B) Blockage of the urethra
C) Inflammation of the bladder
D) Stone formation in the kidney
) Enlargement of the ureter**
Explanation: A megaureter refers to an enlarged ureter, which can result from various conditions, including obstruction or reflux.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by fluid accumulation around the testicle?
A) Hydrocele
B) Varicocele
C) Epispadias
D) Cryptorchidism
Answer: A) Hydrocele**
*Explanation: A hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac around a testicle, often resulting in swelling.
Which of the following birth abnormalities involves the intestines protruding into the inguinal canal and may cause an asymptomatic groin bulge?
A) Inguinal hernia
B) Hypospadias
C) Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D) Phimosis
Inguinal hernia**
*Explanation: An inguinal hernia occurs when intestines or other tissues protrude into the groin area through a weakness in the abdominal muscles
Hypospadias is a common congenital abnormality concerning which part of the male anatomy?
A) Testicles
B) Penis
C) Bladder
D) Prostate
Answer: B) Penis**
*Explanation: Hypospadias involves the penis, where the urethral opening is located on its underside
Approximately how often does hypospadias occur in male births?
A) 1 in 100
B) 1 in 300
C) 1 in 200
D) 1 in 250
C) 1 in 200**
*Explanation: Hypospadias occurs in approximately 1 out of every 200 male births
In cases of hypospadias, where is the urethral meatus typically located?
A) On the tip of the glans
B) On the underside of the penis
C) Inside the bladder
D) On the upper side of the penis
B) On the underside of the penis**
*Explanation: The urethral meatus is located on the underside of the penis in hypospadias
What is a key indication that may suggest the presence of hypospadias during a physical examination?
A) The presence of a firm mass
B) A straight urinary stream
C) Upward curvature of the penis
D) Urine stream directed downward
Answer: D) Urine stream directed downward**
*Explanation: A downward-directed urine stream can be indicative of hypospadias.
What is a critical management step to consider if hypospadias is suspected in a newborn?
A) Immediate antibiotic therapy
B) Performing a circumcision
C) Avoid circumcision
D) Immediate referral to a nephrologist
Answer: C) Avoid circumcision**
Explanation: Circumcision should be avoided if hypospadias is suspected as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.
What is a potential risk associated with surgical repair of hypospadias?
A) Infection
B) Fistula formation
C) Loss of bladder control
D) Kidney failure
Answer: B) Fistula formation**
*Explanation: A potential complication of hypospadias surgery is the formation of a fistula.
What is chordee primarily defined as?
A) Lateral curvature of the penis
B) Dorsal bowing of the penis
C) Ventral bowing of the penis
D) Absence of the urethral opening
Ventral bowing of the penis**
Explanation: Chordee is characterized by ventral bowing, or curvature, of the penis.
At what age is surgical intervention typically recommended for chordee?
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 12 months
D) 2 years
6 months**
*Explanation: Surgical intervention for chordee is recommended at 6 months of age or older.
How is follow-up commonly scheduled after chordee surgery?
A) Weekly for 6 months
B) Monthly for 6 months
C) 1-2 months after surgery
D) Annually
C) 1-2 months after surgery**
*Explanation: Follow-up is typically scheduled 1-2 months after chordee surgery
What is phimosis characterized by?
A) The absence of a foreskin
B) Inability to void properly
C) Inability to retract the foreskin
D) Complete absence of the glans
C) Inability to retract the foreskin**
Explanation: Phimosis is the condition where the foreskin cannot be easily retracted to expose the glans.
Which of the following is part of the non-surgical management of phimosis during early childhood?
A) Immediate circumcision
B) Gentle retraction during voids and bathing
C) Strict avoidance of any foreskin manipulation
D) Application of antibiotics
Answer: B) Gentle retraction during voids and bathing**
Explanation: Gentle retraction of the foreskin with returning to its normal position is recommended during voids and bathing starting at potty training age.
In which situation is circumcision required for phimosis?
A) If the child experiences minor irritation
B) If scarring or ballooning of the foreskin occurs or if retractability is not achieved by puberty
C) If the foreskin becomes too elastic
D) At birth, regardless of other conditions
B) If scarring or ballooning of the foreskin occurs or if retractability is not achieved by puberty**
Explanation: Circumcision is required if scarring or ballooning of the foreskin occurs, or if the foreskin cannot be retracted by puberty.
Which topical treatment is commonly prescribed for phimosis and how is it applied?
A) Betamethasone 0.1% lotion applied twice daily for 1-2 months
B) Hydrocortisone cream applied once daily
C) Antibiotic ointment applied after each diaper change
D) Aloe vera gel applied as needed
A) Betamethasone 0.1% lotion applied twice daily for 1-2 months**
*Explanation: Betamethasone 0.1% lotion is applied twice daily for 1-2 months as a treatment for phimosis
What is paraphimosis primarily characterized by?
A) A completely circumcised penis
B) Retraction of the foreskin without any complications
C) Foreskin that cannot be returned to its original position, entrapping the glans
D) Enlarged glans with foreskin covering it fully
C) Foreskin that cannot be returned to its original position, entrapping the glans**
*Explanation: Paraphimosis occurs when the foreskin is retracted behind the glans and cannot be moved back to its normal position.
Which of the following is NOT a physical examination finding of paraphimosis?
A) Edema
B) Bluish discoloration of the glans and foreskin
C) Severe necrosis of the glans
D) Decrease in penis size
D) Decrease in penis size**
*Explanation: Paraphimosis is typically associated with swelling, discoloration, and potential necrosis, not a decrease in penis size.
What is a critical component of managing paraphimosis?
A) Use of antibiotics regardless of symptoms
B) Immediate circumcision in all cases
C) Reduction of swelling and repositioning of the glans
D) Complete immobilization of the patient
C) Reduction of swelling and repositioning of the glans**
Explanation: Management involves reducing the swelling, often with ice, and pushing the glans back under the foreskin to avoid necrosis.
Meatal stenosis primarily affects which part of the urinary system?
A) Ureter
B) Bladder neck
C) Urethral meatus
D) Renal pelvis
C) Urethral meatus**
*Explanation: Meatal stenosis is the narrowing of the urinary meatus.