Urology: BPH Flashcards

1
Q

Define BPH [1]

A

Increase in the size of the prostate WITHOUT the presence of malignancy

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2
Q

Which patient populations (apart from older men) is BPH more common in? [1]

A

Affects Afro-Caribbean’s more severely than white men, probably due to the high levels of testosterone

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3
Q

State the male LUTS from BPH that can be split into voiding [5], storage [4] and post micturition symptoms [1].

A

Voiding:
SHITE
- Straining
- Hesitancy
- Intermittant stream
- Terminal dribbling
- (incomplete) emptying

Storage:
- Urgency
- Frequency
- Incontinence
- Nocturia

Post mic:
- Dribbling (more delayed than terminal dribbling)

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4
Q

Investigations for BPH? [5]

A
  • Digital rectal examination (prostate exam) to assess the size, shape and characteristics of the prostate
  • Abdominal examination to assess for a palpable bladder and other abnormalities
  • Urinary frequency volume chart, recording 3 days of fluid intake and output
  • Urine dipstick to assess for infection, haematuria (e.g., due to bladder cancer) and other pathology
  • Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) for prostate cancer, depending on the patient preference
  • IPSS
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5
Q

Mild, moderate and severe IPSS scores? [3]

A
  • Mild symptoms 0 - 7
  • Moderate 8 – 19
  • Severe 20-35
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6
Q

Which prostate zone is enlarged in BPH? [1]

A

transitional zone

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7
Q

What is the max flow rate score that is suggestive of bladder outflow obstruction due to BPH? [1]

A

Max flow rate < 10ml per second is suggestive of bladder outflow obstruction due to BPH

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8
Q

State two complications of not treating BPH [2]

A

Renal failure: post-renal AKI
Severe UTI leading to sepsis

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9
Q

How do you treat patient with BPH with minimal symptoms? [1]

A
  • If symptoms are minimal then: watchful waiting and advise lifestyle changes
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10
Q

What IPSS score would you offer treatment for BPH? [1]

A

> 7

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11
Q

What technique can assist with post mic dribbling? [1]

A

Urethral milking

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12
Q

What are the drug treatment options & order for BPH w/ bothersome symptoms but no indications for surgery? [4]

A

FIRST LINE: for moderate to severe LUTS
- Alpha 1 antagonists e.g. ORAL TAMSULOSIN
- 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor e.g. ORAL FINASTERIDE / DUTASTERIDE
- phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitor: tadalafil
- anticholinergics: oxybutynin; tolterodine; solifenacin

Second line:
- Combine alpha 1 antagonist and 5-alpha reductase inhibitor

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13
Q

LUTS + what size prostate [1] or PSA score [1] would you move to second line treatment for BPH? [1]

A
  • Prostate larger than 30g
  • PSA > 1.4
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14
Q

BPH Treatment:

The general idea is that [] are used to treat immediate symptoms, and [] are used to treat enlargement of the prostate.

They may be used together where patients have significant symptoms and enlargement of the prostate.

A

The general idea is that alpha-blockers are used to treat immediate symptoms, and 5-alpha reductase inhibitors are used to treat enlargement of the prostate.

They may be used together where patients have significant symptoms and enlargement of the prostate.

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15
Q

Describe the MoA of finasteride [4]

A

5-alpha-reductase inhibitor:
* Blocks conversion of testosterone to DHT;
* DHT is considered to be the primary androgen playing a role in the development and enlargement of the prostate gland. It serves as the hormonal mediator for the hyperplasia upon accumulation within the prostate gland

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16
Q

Describe the MoA of tamulosin [3]

A

Alpha blocker:
* Blockade of α1-adrenergic receptors in prostate, urethra, bladder neck and detrusor muscle
* Relaxation of smooth muscle resulting in improved urinary flow

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17
Q

What is important to note about alpha blockers when treating BPH? [1]

A

Treat LUTS but don’t stop progression of BPH; no effect on size of the prostate

18
Q

State 5 risk factors for progressive disease of BPH [5]

A
  • Age over 70 with LUTS
  • Moderate to severe symptoms i.e. IPSS>7
  • PSA>1.4ng/ml
  • Prostate volume over 30ccs (i.e.feels enlarged on DRE)
  • Flow rate < 12ml/sec
19
Q

Inhibition of 5AR prevents conversion of [] to [] and slows disease progression

A

Inhibition of 5AR prevents conversion of testosterone to DHT and slows disease progression

20
Q

Name two side effects of BPH therapy [2]

A

ED
Retrograde ejaculation

21
Q

What is the most common congenital male reproductive disorder?

Testicular torsion
Cryptorchidism
Hydrocoele
Peyronie disease

A

What is the most common congenital male reproductive disorder?

Testicular torsion
Cryptorchidism
Hydrocoele
Peyronie disease

22
Q

Which of the following statements correctly defines priapism?

Inability to void the bladder
Abnormal curvature of the penis
Cyst due to a dilated testicular duct
Painful erection lasting more than 4 hours

A

Which of the following statements correctly defines priapism?

Inability to void the bladder
Abnormal curvature of the penis
Cyst due to a dilated testicular duct
Painful erection lasting more than 4 hours

23
Q

A patient presents with symptoms of an overactive bladder.

What is the first choice drug treatment? [1]
What treatment is offered if the first choice is contrindicated? [1]

A

First choice: Oxybutynin
Second choice: Mirabegron

24
Q

What is a positive Prehn’s sign? [1]
Which two pathologies does it help to distinguish between? [2]

A

+ve Prehn’s sign:
- the relief of pain on elevation of the testis

  • Positive: indicates epididymo-orchitis
  • Negative (i.e. the pain is not relieved) in cases of testicular torsion.
25
Describe the surgical treatments for BPH
**Trans-urethral resection of prostate (TURP)**
26
TOM TIP: The notable side effect of tamsulosin is []. The most common side effect of finasteride is [] (due to reduced []).
TOM TIP: The notable side effect of alpha-blockers like **tamsulosin** is **postural** **hypotension**. If an older man presents with lightheadedness on standing or falls, check whether they are on tamsulosin and check their lying and standing blood pressure. The most common side effect of **finasteride** is **sexual dysfunction** (due to reduced testosterone).
27
# 1. Describe surgical treatment for BPH [5]
**Transurethral resection of prostate (TURP):** * GOLD STANDARD * Less than 14% impotent, 1% incontinent & 10% erectile dysfunction **Transurethral incision of prostate (TUIP):** * Less destruction than TURP and less risk to sexual function, best for smaller prostate **Transurethral electrovaporisation of the prostate (TEVAP/TUVP)** - involves inserting a resectoscope into the urethra. A rollerball electrode is then rolled across the prostate, vaporising prostate tissue and creating a more expansive space for urine flow. **Holmium laser enucleation of the prostate (HoLEP)** - also involves inserting a resectoscope into the urethra. A laser is then used to remove prostate tissue, creating a more expansive space for urine flow. **Open prostatectomy** via an abdominal or perineal incision
28
What drug class should be given if have overactive bladder? [1]
Add anti-cholinergic drug
29
Name two anti-cholinergics used for storage symptoms? [2]
- Oxybutynin - Tolterodine
30
Describe the MoA of Oxybutynin, Tolterodine [3]
**Competitively** inhibits **acetylcholine**, blocking the **muscarinic** **receptors** and promoting **bladder relaxation to increase capacity** This **reduces** **urgency** and **frequency of urination** These muscarinics are **selective for M3 receptor** which is the main receptor in the bladder
31
How do you manage acute urinary retention? [4]
* **Immediately catheterise;** * Provide **alpha blocker** (e.g. tamulosin); * **Wait 24hr** and **remove** **catheter**; * (If still can't urinate - schedule for **TURP**)
32
**inflammation** of the **kidney** resulting from **bacterial** **infection**. The inflammation affects the kidney tissue (**parenchyma**) and the **renal** **pelvis** (where the ureter joins the kidney).
33
34
Describe the pathophysiology of TURP syndrome? [3] How serious is it? [1]
It is caused by **irrigation** with **large volumes of glycine**, which is **hypo**-**osmolar** and is **systemically absorbed** when **prostatic** **venous** **sinuses** are opened up during **prostate resection** This results in **hyponatremia**, and when glycine is broken down by the liver into ammonia, **hyper-ammonia and visual disturbances.** TURP syndrome is a **rare and life-threatening complication**
35
Desribe the early presentation [2] and late presentation [5]of TURP syndrome [2
TURP syndrome typically presents with **CNS, respiratory and systemic symptoms**: **Early features** * mild cases may go **unrecognised** * **restlessness**, **headache**, and **tachypnoea**, or a **burning sensation in the face and hands** **Features of greater severity** * **respiratory** **distress**, **hypoxia**, **pulmonary** **oedema** * **nausea**, **vomiting** * **visual** **disturbance** (e.g. blindness, fixed pupils) * **confusion**, **convulsions**, **and** coma * **haemolysis** * **acute renal failure** * reflex **bradycardia** from fluid absorption
36
Pneumonic for TURP complications? [4]
Complications of Transurethral Resection: **TURP** **T** urp syndrome **U** rethral stricture/UTI **R** etrograde ejaculation **P** erforation of the prostate
37
TURP presents classically as a triad of? [3]
The triad of features are: 1. **Hyponatraemia: dilutional** 2. **Fluid overload** 3. **Glycine toxicity**
38
How long does finasteride need to be given for results to be seen? [1]
Finasteride treatment of BPH may take **6 months** before results are seen
39
Name two side effects of tamulosin for treating BPH [2]
Dizziness Postural hypotension
40
Name 4 side effects of finasteride for treating BPH [4]
erectile dysfunction reduced libido ejaculation problems gynaecomastia
41
[] is the most effective management option in renal cell carcinoma? [1]
**Radical nephrectomy** is the most effective management option in renal cell carcinoma - **RCC is usually resistant to radiotherapy or chemotherapy**
42