Urology Flashcards

1
Q

Commonest stone type

A

Calcium oxalate (85%)

hypercalciuria, hypercalcaemia, hyperoxaluria or hypocitraturia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite) stones

A

Secondary to UTI that breakdown urea into CO2 and ammonia
–> Alkalising urine

Proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Stone <0.5cm

A

Should pass conservatively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pelviureteric junction obstruction (idiopathic hydronephrosis)

A

Moderate hydronephrosis causes ill-defined renal pain or ache that may be exacerbated by drinking large volumes of liquid (Dietls’ Crisis).

May produce a large painless mass in the loin;

Severest form: volume of urine in the hydronephrotic sac may simulate free fluid in the peritoneal cavity

Mx:
Either laparoscopic or open pyeloplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

May cause ureteric obstruction and hydronephrosis
-Ureter often difficultto define on imaging

Causes:
Idiopathic
-Mediastinal fibrosis and Dupuytren’s contracture may coexist
-RAISED ESR

Malignant infiltration

Reactive fibrosis
-Radiotherapy, resolving blood clot, or extravasation of sclerosants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Innervation for detrusor contraction

A

S2- S4

Reach the sphincter either by the pelvic plexus or via the pudendal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Intra-peritoneal rupture of bladder

A

Dome rupture –> intra-peritoneal leak

Ileus
Abdominal distension

Trauma with full bladder i.e. alcohol-fuelled fights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Management of bladder rupture

A

Intra-peritoneal
-laparotomy and repair

Extra-peritoneal
-Catheter to relieve any tension
-Conservative management, catheter in for minimum 6-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cancer of the bladder

A

Most common = transitional cell

Then: squamous cell carcinoma due to chronic inflammation e.g. schistomsomiasis

Rarely: Adenocarcinoma in urachal remnant in dome of bladder or form colorectal metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Transitional cell carcinoma

A

Most common bladder and ureter cancer

Papillary tumours are less aggressive superficial cancers

Ulcerating are much more aggressive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Management of superficial bladder tumours Ta, T1

A

Transurethral resection of the bladder tumour down to detrusor muscle is desired

If not endoscopic diathermy possible

Intra-vesical mitomycin C useful for multiple lesions

Regular check cystoscopies requried

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment of carcinoma in situ bladder cancer

A

Intra-vescial bacille Calmette-Guerin

BCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of invasive bladder cancer T2-T3

A

<70 years –> Radical cystectomy

> 70 years –> Radiotherapy

Cystectomy always necessitates urinary diversion. Where the urethra can be retained, it may be possible to construct a new bladder from colon or small bowel
(orthotopic bladder replacement),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatment of T4 bladder cancer with fixed organ invasion

A

Palliative

Resection not possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mitomycin C

A

Single intra-vesical dose of mitomycin C post transurethral resection of superficial bladder cancer improves outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Management of organised/localised prostate cancer

A

If patient young / life expectancy >10 years –> treat with curative intent

If Gleeson >/7, indicates high risk of progress so should be treated

If elderly, watchful waiting as most tumours take 10-15 years to be clinically relevant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management of locally advanced prostate cancer

A

External beam radiotherapy

AND

Hormonal therapy

Surgery is not curative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Management of metastatic prostate cancer

A

Androgen suppression through orchiectomy or through gonadal axis suppression using GnRH

Bone pain can be treated with external beam radiotherapy or strontium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Hyperplasia of peri-urethral tissues

Forms adenomas in transitional zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Complications of bladder diverticula

A

Drain poorly causing stasis

Leading to:
Infection
Stones
Tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Small prostate benign hyperplasia obstruction management

A

Alpha-blockers

Tamulosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Large prostate benign hyperplasia obstruction management

A

5alpha-reductase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Management of acute retention

A

Catheter

Alfuzosin

TWOC 12 hours later

if fails –> TURP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dribbling incontinence in a child

A

Ectopic ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia

A

UMN lesion

Injury between the sacral segment and the pontine micturition centres

Develops a reflex bladder with impaired or absent
cortical control; that is, the bladder loses the coordination imposed by the pontine micturition centre.

Detrusor becomes overactive and attempted voiding results in detrusor contraction occurring synchronously with that of the external sphincter (detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia)

Result is poor bladder emptying and the development of a thick, trabeculated bladder wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Atonic myogenic bladder

A

Caused by prolonged outlet obstruction and
is found in the late stages of bladder decompensation.

Most common cause is silent prostatic obstruction, where progressive loss of the desire to void results in overflow incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Nerve innervation for micturation

A

Parasympathetic innervation S2 - S4 to the detrusor

Sympathetic innervation T10 - L2 to bladder neck and proximal urethra

Somatic innervation S2 - S4 to the bladder, pelvic floor and urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Spinal cord damage and micturation

A

Below / at the level of T12 -L1
–> Flaccid bladder with overflow

Above T12 -L1 = UMN
–> Overactive bladder with poor coordination, causes poor bladder emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Seminomas

A

Arise from Seminiferous tubules

Often low-grade

Sensitive to radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Teratoma

A

(non-seminomas)

Arise from primitive germinal cells

Not sensitive to radiotherapy

31
Q

Treatment of hydronephrosis

A

acute: nephrostomoy tube

chronic: ureteric stent or pyeloplasty

32
Q

Signs of bulbar urethral injury

A

most common
- straddle type injury e.g. bicycles
- triad signs: urinary retention, perineal haematoma, blood at the meatus

33
Q

Signs of membranous urethral injury

A

prostate displaced upwards (beware co-existing retroperitoneal haematomas as they may make examination difficult

34
Q

Investigation for damaged urethra

A

Ascending urethrogram

35
Q

Management for ruptured urethra

A

Suprapubic catheter

36
Q

Mx of renal stone

A

Less than 5mm and asymptomatic: Watchful waiting

Less than 10mm:
ESWL

10 20mm:
ESWL or ureteroscopy

Greater than 20mm (including staghorn calculi):
PCNL

37
Q

Mx of ureteric stones

A

Less than 5mm Watchful waiting
5-10mm ESWL (if upper ureter)
10-20mm Ureteroscopy

38
Q

Autonomic nerves of erection

A

Sympathetic nerves originate from T11-L2 and parasympathetic nerves from S2-4 join to form pelvic plexus.

39
Q

Most common location of prostate cancer

A

Peripheral zone

40
Q

Best and worst Gleason score

A

2 and 10

41
Q

First nodes that prostate cancer spreads to

A

Obtruator

42
Q

Most common renal cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

43
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome commonly seen in renal cancer

A

Polycythaemia and HTN

44
Q

How does renal adenocarcinoma spread?

A

Haematogenous

45
Q

Tx for renal adenocarcinoma

A

radical or partial nephrectomy

46
Q

Treatment of nephroblastoma

A

Vincrystine
Actinomycin D
Doxorubicin

47
Q

Ix for Nephroblastoma

A

USS and CT

48
Q

Most common lower urinary tract carcinoma

A

Transitional cells

49
Q

RFs for TCC of LUT

A

Dyes
Rubber

50
Q

Common PC of TCC in lower urinary tract

A

painless haematuria

51
Q

Treatment for TCC

A

Nephroureterectomy

52
Q

What type of cancer does schistosomiasis cause?

A

Squamous

53
Q

Why does cysteine produced a radio-opaque stone?

A

Contains sulphur

54
Q

Describe staghorn calculus

A

involve the renal pelvis and extend into at least 2 calyces. They develop in alkaline urine and are composed of struvite (ammonium magnesium phosphate, triple phosphate)

55
Q

What bacteria result in staghorn calculus?

A

Ureaplasma urealyticum and Proteus infections predispose to their formation

56
Q

How are testicular tumours treated?

A

Testicular malignancy is always treated with orchidectomy via an inguinal approach

57
Q

What is the difference in management of a hydrocele between adults and children?

A

in children where the underlying pathology is a patent processus vaginalis and therefore an inguinal approach is used in children so that the processus can be ligated. In adults a scrotal approach is preferred and the hydrocele sac excised or plicated

58
Q

What is the most common type of testicular tumour?

A

Seminoma

59
Q

How to differentiate between seminoma and non seminoma tumour?

A

AFP is normal in seminoma, raised in non-seminoma

60
Q

What drug can cause non-infective epididymo orchitis?

A

Amiodarone - stop the drug

61
Q

What is DMSA scan used for?

A

DMSA localises to the renal cortex with little accumulation in the renal papilla and medulla. It is useful for the identification of cortical defects and ectopic or aberrant kidneys. It does not provide useful information on the ureter of collecting system.

62
Q

What is MAG 3 scan used for?

A

primarily secreted by tubular cells rather than filtered at the glomerulus. This makes it the agent of choice for imaging the kidneys of patients with existing renal impairment (where GFR is impaired).

to assess for failing transplants

63
Q

Causes of unilateral hydronephrosis

A

PACT
Pelvic-ureteric obstruction (congenital or acquired)
Aberrant renal vessels
Calculi
Tumours of renal pelvis

64
Q

Causes of bilateral hydronephrosis

A

SUPER

Stenosis of the urethra
Urethral valve
Prostatic enlargement
Extensive bladder tumour
Retro-peritoneal fibrosis

65
Q

Which fascia separates prostate from rectum?

A

Deonvilliers

66
Q

What fascia does bucks surround?

A

spongiose part of urethra

67
Q

How do alpha blockers work on the prostate?

A

These block the action of noradrenaline on prostatic smooth muscle causing relaxation and improved bladder emptying.

68
Q

Added benefit of finasteride

A

reduction in urinary retention

69
Q

Which specific infection can cause haematuria

A

TB

70
Q

Management of hydronephrosis

A

Acute upper urinary tract obstruction: Nephrostomy tube
Chronic upper urinary tract obstruction: Ureteric stent or a pyeloplasty

71
Q

Most common type of priapism and causes

A

low flow

venous occlusion
Often painful
Often low cavernosal flow
If present for >4 hours requires emergency treatment

72
Q

Post renal tumour resection tx

A

Patients with completely resected disease do not benefit from adjuvant therapy with either chemotherapy or biological agents

73
Q

How are epididymal cysts removed?

A

Excision using scrotal approach