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Satia's MRCS copied decks > Misc eMRCS > Flashcards

Misc eMRCS Flashcards

1
Q

Blood film findings post splenectomoy

A

Howell Jolly Body
Pappenheimer bodies
Target cells
Erythrocyte containing siderotic granules

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2
Q

Where do giant cells come from

A

macrophages

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3
Q

Bloods tests for carcinoid tumour

A

lbood tests usually measure chromogranin A
,neuron-specific enolase (NSE), substance P
and gastrin

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4
Q

Findings in follicular carcinoma

A

prominent oxyphil cells and scanty thyroid colloid

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5
Q

What is the initial location of the metanephric cap from which the kidney is derived?

A

Medial to ureteric bud in the pelvis, failure to migrate leads to pelvic kidney

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6
Q

What incision is made for laparotomy in young children?

A

Transverse supra umbilical

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7
Q

Aberrant Gantzer muscle

A

The Gantzer muscle is an aberrant accessory of the flexor pollicis longus and is a risk factor for anterior interosseous nerve compression

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8
Q

Where is mesh placed in an open inguinal hernia repair?

A

posterior to cord structures

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9
Q

Where are majority of AAA located?

A

inferior to renal artery

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10
Q

Which arteries experience reversal of blood flow when axillary artery is ligated?

A

flow is reversed in the circumflex scapular and subscapular arteries forming a collateral circulation around the scapula

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11
Q

What structure is commonly divided in median sternotomy?

A

The interclavicular ligament lies at the upper end of a median sternotomy and is routinely divided to provide access

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12
Q

Causes of increased anion acidosis

A

M - Methanol
U - Uraemia
D - DKA/AKA
P - Paraldehyde/phenformin
I - Iron/INH
L - Lactic acidosis
E - Ethylene glycol
S - Salicylates

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13
Q

What structure is most at risk during saphenofemoral junction ligation?

A

The deep external pudendal artery runs under the long saphenous vein close to its origin and may be injured

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14
Q

What pressure is the insufflation machine set to during laparoscopy?

A

10mHg

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15
Q

Management of DALM in UC

A

Panproctocolectomy

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16
Q

Common cause of pruritus ani

A

Enterobius vermicularis

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17
Q

Adductor canal compression syndrome

A

Adductor canal compression syndrome most commonly presents in young males and is an important differential diagnosis in men presenting with symptoms of acute limb ischaemia on exertion. It is caused by compression of the femoral artery by the musculotendinous band from adductor magnus muscle

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18
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is granuloma formation

A

Type 4

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19
Q

Where are oxyphil cells normally found?

A

Parathyroid

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20
Q

Normal gap acidosis

A

H - Hyperalimentation/hyperventilation
A - Acetazolamide
R - Renal tubular acidosis
D - Diarrhoea
U - Ureteral diversion
P - Pancreatic fistula/parenteral saline

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21
Q

Popcorn cells in Hodgkin lymphoma

A

nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma

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22
Q

Necrosis on CT Brain, tumour type

A

Significant necrosis is more commonly seen with glioblastomas than with other CNS tumours.

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23
Q

What artery supplies lacrimal gland?

A

Ophthalmic

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24
Q

Reservoir of campylobacter

A

Birds

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25
Q

What is spleen derived from

A

mesenchymal tissue

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26
Q

What structure is commonly affected in disc prolapse of spine

A

In disk prolapse the nucleus pulposus is the structure which usually herniates

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27
Q

What is affected in Marfan’s

A

Fibrillin

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28
Q

Urine specific gravity in hypovolaemic shock

A

increased

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29
Q

Most common adverse event following FFP

A

Urticaria

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30
Q

Which splenic structure lies most posteriorly?

A

Lienorenal ligament

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31
Q

Melanosis coli

A

This may occur as a result of laxative abuse and consists of lipofuschin laden macrophages that appear brown

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32
Q

What is the defect in Lynch syndrome

A

Mismatch of DNA repair genes

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33
Q

Where do lesions distal to dentate line metastasise to

A

inguinal

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34
Q

Most common abdominal emergency in children < 1

A

intusussception

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35
Q

What is contraindicated in ventricular tachycardia

A

verapamil

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36
Q

Brittle bones, lack of differentiation between medulla and cortex

A

Osteopetrosis

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37
Q

Analgesia in term neonates

A

Codeine and ibuprofen are contraindicated

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38
Q

Treatment for metastatic bone compression in prostate cancer

A

Androgen suppression
Bisphosphonates
radiotherapy

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39
Q

Indications for ER Thoracotomy

A

Penetrating thoracic trauma that is then followed by cardiac arrest in the department

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40
Q

Causes of red urine

A

rifampicin
beetrot
rhubarb
blackberries

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41
Q

What structure can be damaged in an Ivor-Lewis Oesophagectomy

A

lymphatic duct leading to chyle leak

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42
Q

What type of laxative is senna?

A

stimulant

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43
Q

Which HLA is most important in renal transplant?

A

DR

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44
Q

What anaesthetic is used in Biers block?

A

1% prilocaine (the only LA to be inserted IV)

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45
Q

What sing is absent in retrocaecal appendicitis?

A

Rovsings may be absent

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46
Q

EBV vs CMV in post renal transplant

A

EBV > 6 months after transplant

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47
Q

how is low flow priapism treated?

A

aspiration of blood from corpus cavernosum

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48
Q

Initial treatment in thyrotoxic storm

A

Beta blockers and thionamides

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49
Q

Kocher’s septic arthritis for children

A

WCC >12
Inability to weight bear
Fever
ESR >40
= >90 chance of septic arthritis

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50
Q

Risk of redo fundoplication

A

Redo fundoplication surgery carries with it a risk of damaging the vagus nerves.

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51
Q

Post ERCP abdominal pain, DDx and Ix

A

One is pancreatitis, repeated trauma to the ampulla and duct (if partially cannulated) is a major risk factor for pancreatitis. The second is the possibility that the duodenum has been perforated.

CT scan

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52
Q

What is the outcome measured in cohort study?

A

Relative risk

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53
Q

Fluids requirement for term neonate

A

100ml/kg/day

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54
Q

Biopsy in melanoma

A

Avoid incisional or punch biopsy of lesions suspected to be melanoma. (excision biopsy is best)

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55
Q

What to not give in compartment syndrome

A

anticoagulation

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56
Q

Contraindications to lung cancer surgery

A

include SVC obstruction, FEV < 1.5, MALIGNANT pleural effusion, and vocal cord paralysis

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57
Q

Which muscle can be retracted to improve access to femoral artery distally?

A

sartorius

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58
Q

Features of enteroinvasive e.coli

A

Necrosis and ulcers of the large bowel are a feature of enteroinvasive E.coli.

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59
Q

From which amino acid are catecholamines mainly produced

A

tyrosine

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60
Q

structure divided in retrocaecal appendix

A

Those struggling to find it at operation should trace the tenia to the caecal pole where the appendix is located. If it cannot be mobilised easily then division of the lateral caecal peritoneal attachments (as for a right hemicolectomy) will allow caecal mobilisation and facilitate the procedure

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61
Q

musculoaponeuostic and aggressive fibromatosis

A

desmoid tumours

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62
Q

Which structures can be damaged during caecal mobilisation

A

gonadal vessels

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63
Q

What structure lies underneath the lateral aspect of biceps femoris

A

common peroneal nerve

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64
Q

Which cell is affected in osteopetrosis?

A

osteoclast

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65
Q

What is the location of the ureter

A

he ureter lies anterior to L2 to L5

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66
Q

Where are the largest proportion of musculi pectinai found?

A

right atrium

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67
Q

Ix for ?pharyngeal pouch

A

upper GI fluoroscopic study

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68
Q

Which organisms can give an achalsia like picture

A

Tryp Cruzi

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69
Q

Where are Hassall’s Corpuscles seen?

A

medulla of the thymus

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70
Q

Which synrome is associated with retinal haemorrhage?

A

VHL

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71
Q

Which process described the formation of AAA

A

loss of elastic fibres frmo the media

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72
Q

Oedema following burns

A

Reduction in capillary oncotic pressure

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73
Q

What structure is divided in midline incision

A

linea alba

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74
Q

Where are the reticuloendothelial cells concentrated within the spleen?

A

within the white pulp

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75
Q

At what level does the renal artery branch of aorta

A

L2

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76
Q

How does tranexamic acid work?

A

inhibits plasmin and prevents fibrin degradation

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77
Q

Which splenic structure lies most posteriorly?

A

lienorenal ligament

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78
Q

Where do the majority of traumatic aortic ruptures occur?

A

distal to left subclavian artery

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79
Q

Management of cystic stump leaks post cholecystectomy

A

ERCP and stent

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80
Q

What is a richter’s hernia

A

When part of bowel is trapped in the hernia

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81
Q

Prerequisite for charcot foot

A

trauma

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82
Q

Histology of pleomorphic adenoma

A

biphasic appearance of the lesion and mucinous connective tissue.

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83
Q

Describe a dermoid cyst

A

multiloculated and heterogeneous

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84
Q

Associated features of malrotation

A

exompahlos and diaphragmatic hernia

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85
Q

Commonest site of fluid collection following perforated appendix

A

pelvis

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86
Q

Sx of sialolithiasis

A

bad breath, dry mouth, pain when eating

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87
Q

Orchiedectomy in testicular malignancy

A

INGUINAL APPROACH

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88
Q

HPB condition associated with HIV

A

Sclerosing cholangitis

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89
Q

Which skin condition can resemble a malignant melanoma

A

spitz naevus

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90
Q

What must be ruled out in a painful third nerve palsy

A

posterior communicating aneurysm

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91
Q

What condition is IGF1 gene implicated in

A

HNPCC

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92
Q

Treatment of non resectable GIST, KIT positive

A

Imatinib

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93
Q

What time frame is secondary haemorrhage likely to occur post tonsillectomy

A

5 - 10 days

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94
Q

Most common cause of osteolytic bone mets in children

A

neuroblastoma

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95
Q

Which vessels are transplanted kidneys attached to?

A

External ilac artery and vein

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96
Q

Eponymous procedure for removal of thyroglossal cyst

A

Sistruk procedure

resect cyst, tract, central portion of hyoid and wedge of tongue muscle behind the hyoid

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97
Q

Components needed for power calculations

A

Size of effect
Significance level
Sample size used to detect the effect
Desired power valu

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98
Q

which thyroid tumour spreads via lymphatics

A

papillary

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99
Q

Drugs causing gynaecomastia

A

D igitalis
I soniazid
S pironolactone
C imetidine
O estrogen

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100
Q

When to intubate in flail chest?

A

when saturations < 90

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101
Q

lab test for biliary atresia

A

conjugated bilirubin

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102
Q

What structure is routinely divided during oesophagectomy

A

azygos vein

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103
Q

What nerve is at risk in a Holstein lewis fracture

A

radial

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104
Q

Does kyphoscoliosis cause a restrictive or obstructive picture

A

restrictive

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105
Q

Where does prostatic cancer spread to

A

obtruator nodes then internal iliac lymph nodes

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106
Q

Which nerve is most often injured during superficial parotidectomy

A

greater auricular

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107
Q

What vessel runs across the surface of the abdominal aorta and is often injured during AAA surgery?

A

left renal vein

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108
Q

Scaphoid abdomen

A

Bochaldek hernia Trisomy 21 and 18

Morgagni is anterior
Bochaldek - is at the BACK

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109
Q

What structure accompanies the aorta as it goes through the diaphragm?

A

thoracic duct

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110
Q

How to access right lobe of lung?

A

6th intercostal space MAL

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111
Q

what can PTFE without miller cuff cause

A

neo-intimal hyperplasia

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112
Q

Histology of capsule surrounding breast impants

A

Dystrophic calcification

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113
Q

Boundaries of the deep inguinal ring

A

inferomedial - inferior epigastric artery
superolateral - Transversalis fascia

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114
Q

locaiton of dorsal ulnar vs superficial radial nerve

A

ulnar - more medial
radial - more lateral

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115
Q

Osmotic content of lumen greatly affects which part of the GI tract?

A

Jejunum

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116
Q

Sensation from larynx is by

A

laryngeal branch of vagus

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117
Q

What is the entire female urethra drained by?

A

internal iliac nodes

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118
Q

Which nerve lies medially to the lobes of the thyroid gland, in the groove between the oesophagus and trachea

A

Recurrent laryngeal

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119
Q

Causes of hypoMg

A

Diuretics
Total parenteral nutrition
Diarrhoea
Alcohol
Hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia

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120
Q

What are spur cells seen in?

A

liver or renal faillure

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121
Q

What structure is most at risk in a high anterior resection?

A

left ureter

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122
Q

Histology of TB

A

granuloma with central necrosis

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123
Q

Where does genitofemoral nerve exit the abdomen?

A

deep inguinal ring

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124
Q

order of structures in kidneys

A

anterior to deep
vein
artery
ureter

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125
Q

What does tunica vaginalise come from

A

peritoneum

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126
Q

Which type of DCIS is associated with microcalcifications

A

Comedo

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127
Q

level of the transpyloric plane

A

L1

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128
Q

What pathogen is assocaited with carcinoma of colon

A

strep bovis

129
Q

Which testicular tumour is associated with sex hormone activity?

A

leydig cell

130
Q

Which Salter HArris fractures might get confused for each other

A

1 and 5

131
Q

How to manage a cystic stump leak post cholecystectomy

A

ERCP and stent

132
Q

raised CVP and haemodynamic compromise?

A

cardiac tamponade

133
Q

Which part of bowel is involved in Morgagni hernia?

A

Transverse colon

134
Q

Extreme abdominal pain followed by bloody diarrhoea

A

acute mesenteric infarct

135
Q

Which amputation preserves patella?

A

gritti stokes

136
Q

extended right hemi vs left hemi

A

if obstructed, extended right hemi

137
Q

What is OCP associated with?

A

mesenteric venin thrombosis

138
Q

Which muscles relaxants do NOT cause histamine release

A

Vecuronium and suxamethonium

139
Q

Analgesia in advacned pancreatic cancer

A

nerve block

140
Q

What causes hypoxia in ARDS

A

reduced diffusion

141
Q

Which direction is trachea deviated in during aortic transection

A

right

142
Q

Doxorubicin, cold or warm compress?

A

COLD

143
Q

Which structure separates the cephalic vein and the brachial artery in the antecubital fossa?

A

bicipital aponeurosis

144
Q

best way to destroy spores of tubercle bacili

A

autoclave

145
Q

Where is Onufs nucleus found?

A

anterior horn of S2

146
Q

Best description of how steroids work in immunity

A

Binding of intracellular receptors that migrate to the nucleus to then affect gene transcription

147
Q

What is contained in the rectus sheath?

A

Pyramadalis
Superior epigastric artery
Superior epigastri vein
Inferior epigastric artery
inferior epigastric vein
Rectus abdominis

148
Q

Which receptor does pethidine bind to?

A

Mu

149
Q

Parts of brachial plexus and the vessels they relate to

A

The trunks are related to the subclavian artery superiorly. The cords of the plexus surround the axillary artery, they are named according to their positions relative to this structure

150
Q

Between which two heads of triceps does the radial nerve lie?

A

lateral and medial

151
Q

level of IMA

A

L3

152
Q

Which clotting time is increased in APLS

A

APTT

153
Q

liver lesion with mixed echoity and heterogeneous texture.

A

liver adenoma

154
Q

When is burst abdomen most common

A

6 days

155
Q

When might a mucous fistula be seen?

A

They are typically seen following a sub total colectomy where the distal sigmoid colon is deemed too friable to close and it then brought onto the skin as a mucous fistula.

156
Q

What attached periosteum to bone?

A

Sharpey’s fibres

157
Q

first step in intusussception

A

resuscitate, fluids and ABx

158
Q

left sided varicocele, abdo USS or scrotal USS

A

Abdo

159
Q

conditions associated with anal fissure

A

Sexually transmitted diseases (syphilis, HIV)
Inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn’s up to 50%)
Leukaemia (25% of patients)
Tuberculosis
Previous anal surgery

160
Q

What causes Filariasis?

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

161
Q

What is the most common location of hypospadias in boys?

A

opening of distal ventral

162
Q

Syringomyelia vs Brown Sequard syndrome

A

Brown Sequard is unilateral

163
Q

early x-ray findings of perthes disease

A

sclerosis of femoral head

164
Q

How many units of heparin to use in graft?

A

3000 3 minutes before cross clamping

165
Q

Timeline of post transplant viral (EBV and CMV) ?

A

CMV 4 weeks to 6 months
EBV > 6 months

166
Q

Parsonage turner syndrome

A

rare neuropathy that complicates viral illness

167
Q

painless blood stained mucous rectal discharge 6 months following a Hartmann’s procedure

A

Diversion proctitis

168
Q

symptoms of basilar artery occlusion

A

vertigo and dysarthria

169
Q

Which local anaesthetic is not an amino amide type

A

procaine

170
Q

Which breast cancer is associated with a marked lymphocytic infiltrate?

A

Medullary

171
Q

Compartment syndrome, anticoagulation or no?

A

no

172
Q

Saphena varix vs femoral hernia?

A

saphena varix should be suspected if associated varicose veins

173
Q

What structure is often mobilised in an oesophagectomy?

A

azygos vein

174
Q

What is a known precipitant of pseudogout?

A

haemochromotosis

175
Q

When is angioplasty considered?

A

short disease segment and good vessel run off

176
Q

Which testicular tumour is assocaited with gynaecomastia?

A

leydig cell

177
Q

what accompanies the IVC through diaphragm?

A

right phrenic nerve

178
Q

Where are accessory spleens not found?

A

ureter

179
Q

necrosis and ulcer of large bowel

A

entero invasive e coli

180
Q

Mx of obstructing rectal tumour?

A

loop colostomy

181
Q

Which cleft is branchial cyst derived from?

A

2nd

182
Q

juvenile polyp aka

A

hamartoma

183
Q

what increases secretions of water and electrolytes in pancreatic juice?

A

secretin

184
Q

causes of pseudohypoNa

A

myeloma and hyperlipidaemia

185
Q

What causes nec fasc?

A

strep pyogenes

186
Q

What is malrotation?

A

rotation of 90 degrees counter lcokwise only

187
Q

Where does fluid drain after an anterior gastric perf?

A

right paracolic gutter

188
Q

Which structure is responsible for coordinated contraction of papillary muscles?

A

Moderator band

189
Q

Thiazide diuretic effect on K?

A

hypokalaemia

190
Q

What is sural nerve derived from?

A

both tibial and common fibular

191
Q

Thymic mass and Myasthenia gravis?

A

benign thymoma

192
Q

Which muscles are the last to regain function after a radial nerve palsy?

A

Extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis

193
Q

Which pharyngeal arch gives rise to recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

6th

194
Q

What is the angle between inferior pubic rami in MEN

A

approx 70 degrees

195
Q

Ileus vs pseudoobstruction?

A

ileus = small and large bowel
Pseudo = colon only

196
Q

Where does aldosterone act?

A

DCT and collecting duct

197
Q

Which hormone inhibits lactation during pregnancy?

A

Progesterone

198
Q

Psychogenic polydipsia vs diabetes insipidus?

A

psychogenic - dilutional HYPONa

DI - HYPERNa

199
Q

What makes parastomal hernia more common?

A

if brought OUTSIDE of rectus abdominis muscles

200
Q

characteristic finding of biliary atresia?

A

absent gallbladder

201
Q

what causes hypocalcaemia in pancreatitis?

A

Fat saponification

202
Q

Which causes osteoporosis, hyper or hypoparathyroidism

A

HYPER

203
Q

What is Kohler’s disease?

A

Osteochondritis of the navicular bone (avascular necrosis)

204
Q

Complications of mastoiditis?

A

Dural venous thrombophlebitis

205
Q

On DRE what is felt posterolateral to prostate?

A

seminal vesicles

206
Q

From which embryonic structure is the urachus derived?

A

Allantois

207
Q

Where is a pharyngeal pouch most likely to occur?

A

CricoPHARYNGEUS and thyroPHARYNGEUS

208
Q

What protein is present in majority of medullary thyroid cancers?

A

Amyloid

209
Q

Hodgkin’vs vs Non Hodgkins?

A

Non Hodgkins = non contiguous lymph node involvement

210
Q

How does furosemide work at the loop of Henle?

A

decreased chloride absorption

211
Q

Most common location for ureteral stone obstruction?

A

VUJ

212
Q

Which dermatome is responsible for the referred pain in kidney stones?

A

L1

213
Q

Mechanism behind imperforate anus?

A

Failure of the anal membrane to break down

214
Q

Which fossa connects the cranial foosa to the pterygopalatine fossa?

A

Foramen rotundum

215
Q

What embryonic structue forms the nucleus pulposus?

A

Notochord

216
Q

Effect of ACEi on kidney?

A

Efferent arterial dilation

217
Q

What makes up the confluence of the sinus?

A

Straight and superior sagittal

218
Q

Basilar artery is made from what?

A

union of two vertebral arteries

219
Q

Description of Salmonella

A

gram negative rod

220
Q

Where does thyroglossal cyst originate from?

A

Foramen caecum

221
Q

What tendon is used in ACL reconstruction?

A

Semitendinosus

222
Q

What structure can cause bleedingi nmidline sternotomy?

A

right brachiocephalic vein

223
Q

What is the H structure on visceral side of liver?

A

Gallbladdder, IVC, ligamentum venosum, ligamentum teres, porta hepatis

224
Q

What common electrolyte abnormality is seen in thyrotoxicosis?

A

hyperCA

225
Q

partial 21 hydroxylase deficiency vs complete?

A

complete - salt wasting - unable to produce aldosterone and leads to an earlier presentaiton

226
Q

What is a specific complication of angioplasty?

A

pseudoaneurysm

227
Q

Benefit of open repair vs EVAR

A

EVAR requires long term follow up

228
Q

mycotic aneurysm

A

staph aureus

229
Q

After how many weeks gestation does the fundus of the uterus pass above the pelvis brim

A

12

230
Q

Approach for hemiarthroplasty in trauma?

A

Hardinge

231
Q

Approach for THR

A

Posterior

232
Q

How to check a rectal anastomosis?

A

water soluble contrast enema

233
Q

Tx for basicervical NOF?

A

DHS

234
Q

What is Homan’s sign?

A

Passive dorsiflexion of oot causes pain in calf, DVT

235
Q

Which nerve is involved in Frey syndrome?

A

Auriculotemporal

236
Q

McMurray’s test?

A

MENISCAL TEAR

237
Q

Complication of mastoiditis?

A

Sigmoid sinus thrombophlebitis

238
Q

Which type of burns are included in the parkland formula?

A

deep partial and full thickness only

239
Q

Teardrop mass in foot

A

morton neuroma

240
Q

Management of full thickness burn

A

early surgical excision of burn wound, delayed closure with split skin autograft

241
Q

What is the most common type of facial BCC?

A

Nodular

242
Q

Osgood Schlatter vs OCD

A

OS - tibilar tuberosity
OCD - medial condyle

243
Q

Rotator cuff tear vs supraspinatus tendinitis

A

RC tear - reduced active ROM Supraspinatus - pain between 60-120 (painful arc)

244
Q

Location to block ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves?

A

2cm medial and 2cm cephalad (toward head) from ASIS

245
Q

What is exampholos associated with?

A

ToF

246
Q

Do Nitrates affect arteries or veins more?

A

veins

247
Q

What two things reduce myocardial flow?

A

pain and vasopressin

248
Q

Which part of ECG shows ventricular reporlarisation?

A

T wave

249
Q

Most superficial structure in parotid gland?

A

Facial nerve

250
Q

How do macrolides work

A

Protein synthesis inhibitions

thinks gym MACROS

251
Q

Buzz word for GvHD?

A

desquamation

252
Q

What forms the superolateral and inferomedial walls of the deep inguinal ring?

A

SL - Transversalis fascia
IM - Inferior epigastric

253
Q

What is the level of the left main bronchus?

A

T6

254
Q

Which structure separates the cephalic vein and brachia artery in the antecubital fossa?

A

bicipital aponeurosus

255
Q

What are patients with AAA at risk of developing?

A

Mural thrombus

256
Q

When is nerve grafting required?

A

Injuries > 2.5cm

257
Q

Post splenic laceration, SOB and dysphagia?

A

Diaphragmatic rupture

258
Q

Which anaesthetic causes a rise in BP and HR?

A

Ketamine

259
Q

Assocaited injury with fracture of sternum?

A

myocardial contusion

260
Q

When is fascicular nerve repair indicated?

A

medial or ulnar nerve injury in distal third of forearm
Sciatic nerve injury in the thigh

261
Q

Ix to detect retained stone?

A

MRCP

262
Q

Bone appearance in prostate met vs breat met

A

prostate - sclerotic

breast - lytic

263
Q

Which ligament is involved in lumbar canal stenosis?

A

Ligamentum Flavum

264
Q

What condition is associated with hyperplastic arteriosclerosis and malignant hypertension?

A

diffuse scleroderma

265
Q

How can acute tubular dysfunction of kidney be treated?

A

osmotic diuretics

affects medulla with low urine osmolality

266
Q

Describe hyperacute reaction

A

complement mediated

267
Q

what does b12 do?

A

involved in red cell maturation

268
Q

Where does medulloablastoma typically originate in children?

A

cerebral vermis

269
Q

What kind of anaemia does acute haemorrhage cause?

A

megaloblastic

270
Q

how does IPPV affect cardiac output?

A

decreases it

271
Q

What site is affected in peyronie’s disease?

A

tunica albguinea

272
Q

what is given in hereditary angioedema?

A

FFP

273
Q

Classic signs of haemolysis following transfusion

A

Haemolysis of the transfused cells occurs causing the combination of shock, haemoglobinaemia and loin pain

274
Q

What does all collagen have?

A

Glycin

275
Q

under which fascila layer in the ansa cervicalis?

A

pre tracheal

276
Q

levle 3 breast nodea, bleeding?

A

thoracoacromial artery

277
Q

Features of gastric volvulus

A

retching but no vomiting
abdominal tenderness
unable to pass NG tube

278
Q

What type of Ca do wood workers develop?

A

paranasal sinus Ca

279
Q

otitic hydrocephalus

A

following middle ear infection without brain abscess

headache, abducens palsy and papilloedema

280
Q

meningocele vs myelomeningocele?

A

presence of cord is myelo

281
Q

What is an absolute contrainidcation to surgery in vein incompetence?

A

scan showing occluded deep vessels

282
Q

Histology of fibroadenoma of breast

A

apocrine metaplasia and papillary overgrowth

283
Q

interrupted aortic arch signs

A

cyanosis, absent or weak femoral pulse

284
Q

What causes dark urine and pale stool in obstructive jaundice?

A

urine - incerased conjugated biliruibin which is water soluble

pale stool - decreased bilirubin entering the gut

285
Q

What surrounds a hydrocele in an adults

A

TUNICA vaginalis

286
Q

anatomical location of cricothyroid membrane?

A

halfway between jugular notch and hyoid

287
Q

What structure might be divided in the deltopectoral groove?

A

thoracoacromial artery

288
Q

Where does the sural nerve pass in relation to the lateral malleolus?

A

posterior

289
Q

How is the ischiorectal fossa related to the pudendal canal?

A

IR is medial to PC

290
Q

What structures are pierced in an LP?

A

skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, epidural space containing the internal vertebral venous plexus, dura, arachnoid, and finally the subarachnoid space

291
Q

When is coronary artery flow highest?

A

during ventricular diastole

292
Q

How does cirrhosis lead to thrombocytopaenia?

A

sequestration in the spleen

293
Q

What happens to CO in a transplanted heart?

A

increases due to increase in stroke volume

294
Q

Effects of IPPV

A

increased in intrathoracic pressure
decrease in CO

295
Q

Skull findings in multiple myeloma

A

lytic lesions

296
Q

What causes post op paralytic ileus

A

stimulation of p receptors

297
Q

extreme complication of TPN?

A

pancytopaenia due to folate deficiency

298
Q

What are torted testes fixed to?

A

tunica vaginalis

299
Q

what reduces risk fo posterior dislocation of hip?

A

Allis

300
Q

When to not give adrenaline with LA?

A

if on MAOi or TCAs

301
Q

PAOP related to which chamber in the heart?

A

left atrium

302
Q

how does potassium affect renin?

A

hyperK inhibits renin and promotes aldosterone

hypoK promotes renin and inhibits aldosterone

303
Q

how does hyperventilation affect calcium

A

LOW calcium

304
Q

Which one increases venous return to heart, inspiration or expiration?

A

inspiration

305
Q

Where is blood ‘stolen from’ in subclavian steal syndrome?

A

vertebral

306
Q

Which cancers produce lytic bone lesions?

A

Renal
Breast
Myeloma

307
Q

Side effect of alkylating chemo agents

A

gout

308
Q

which thyroid cancer is associated with childhood radiation?

A

papillary

309
Q

SAAG: transudate vs exudate

A

low = exudate
high = transudate

310
Q

Which drug can cause sialomegaly?

A

Carbimazole

311
Q

Testicular mass with lymphocytic stromal infiltrate

A

classical seminoma

312
Q

Side effect of neostigmine

A

bradycardia

313
Q

which carpal bone dislocation can cause median nerve neuropathy?

A

lunate

314
Q

What does succasion spash indicate?

A

gastric outlet obstruction

315
Q

Glomerular pressure formula

A

(Pc - Pb) - piC

316
Q

What can be used to prevent cystein stone formation?

A

pencillamine

317
Q

Suxamethonium vs Hexamethonium?

A

Suxamethonium is PRE synaptic

Hexamethonium is POST synaptic (non depolarising)

318
Q

Which structure prevents movement of horseshoe kidney to its correct position?

A

IMA

319
Q

Severe complication in nephrotic syndrome

A

SBP with strep pneumoniae

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