Urology Flashcards

1
Q

What is obstructive uropathy?

A

Blockage preventing urine flow through the ureters, bladder and urethra. Leads to kidney damage = post renal AKI.

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2
Q

What is hydronephrosis?

A

Swelling of the renal pelvis and calyces of kidney due to backpressure up the ureters. Causes renal angle pain and mass in kidney area.
USS, CT or IV urogram (X ray with IV contract collecting int he urinary tract)

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3
Q

How does urinary tract obstruction present?

A

LOWER eg bladder/urethra: Difficulty or inability to pass urine (e.g., poor flow, difficulty initiating urination or terminal dribbling)
Urinary retention, with an increasingly full bladder
Impaired renal function on blood tests (i.e. raised creatinine)
UPPER (ureters): flank pain, reduced urine output, vomiting.

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4
Q

What investigations would you do in obstructive uropathy?

A

USS KUB

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5
Q

What is the renal angle and what does tenderness there suggest?

A

aka costovertebral angle. 12th rib + vertebral column at the back, lower part of the kidneys.

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6
Q

Give 4 causes of upper urinary tract obstruction.

A

Kidney stones
Tumours pressing on the ureters
Ureter strictures (due to scar tissue narrowing the tube)
Retroperitoneal fibrosis (the development of scar tissue in the retroperitoneal space)
Bladder cancer (blocking the ureteral openings to the bladder)
Ureterocele (ballooning of the most distal portion of the ureter – this is usually congenital)

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7
Q

Give 4 causes of lower urinary tract obstruction.

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (benign enlarged prostate)
Prostate cancer
Bladder cancer (blocking the neck of the bladder)
Urethral strictures (due to scar tissue)
Neurogenic bladder

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8
Q

What is neurogenic bladder? Give 3 causes and complications.

A

Abnormal function of the nerves innervating the bladder and urethra causing overactivity or underactivity in the detrusor muscle of the bladder and the sphincter muscles of the urethra.

Causes are:
Multiple sclerosis
Diabetes
Stroke
Parkinson’s disease
Brain or spinal cord injury
Spina bifida

Complications are:
Urge incontinence
Increased bladder pressure
Obstructive uropathy

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9
Q

How do you manage obstructive uropathy?

A

Remove/bypass obstruction:
Upper –> Nephrostomy = thin tube inserted cutaneously into kidney –> ureter, to drain urine.
Lower –> catheter - urethral or suprapubic (cutaneous, above pubic bone)

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10
Q

Give 4 complications of obstructive uropathy.

A

Pain
Acute kidney injury (post-renal)
Chronic kidney disease
Infection (from bacteria tracking up urinary tract into areas of stagnated urine)
Hydronephrosis (swelling of the renal pelvis and calyces in the kidney)
Urinary retention and bladder distention
Overflow incontinence of urine

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11
Q

What is the management of hydronephrosis?

A

Idiopathic - PUJ narrowing. Treat with pyeloplasty
Percutaneous nephrostomy - tube through skin and kidney into ureter under radiological guidance
Anterograde ureteric stent - through kidney into ureter under radiological guidance

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12
Q

Consent a patient for a urinary catheter.

A

What is it - tube inserted into urethra to bladder.
Why - indications include:
Urinary retention due to a lower urinary tract obstruction (e.g., enlarged prostate)
Neurogenic bladder (e.g., intermittent self-catheterisation in multiple sclerosis)
Surgery (during and after)
Output monitoring in acutely unwell patients (e.g., sepsis or intensive care)
Bladder irrigation (e.g., to wash out blood clots in the bladder)
Delivery of medications (e.g., chemotherapy to treat bladder cancer)
Post void bladder scan - >500mls.
Who: a nurse or doctor
When: short or long term, TWOC - remove catheter, monitor UO, use bladder scan to ensure minimal urine left in bladder.
Where: inserted through urethra sits in bladder.

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13
Q

How would you counsel a patient about starting tamsulosin?

A

Action - reduces prostate size to allow urine to flow out from bladder through urethra.
PO daily tablet
SEs - postural hypotension.

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14
Q

How do you manage catheter-associated UTIs?

A

Take sample using aseptic technique from catheter/port (not from the bag) Asymptomatic bacteriuria not treated
Symptomatic - 7 days abx, change catheter.

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15
Q

What is BPH?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia of stromal epithelial cells of prostate. Presents with LUTS

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16
Q

What are LUTS? Give 5 examples.

A

Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms:
Hesitancy – difficult starting and maintaining the flow of urine
Weak flow
Urgency – a sudden pressing urge to pass urine
Frequency – needing to pass urine often, usually with small amounts
Intermittency – flow that starts, stops and varies in rate
Straining to pass urine
Terminal dribbling – dribbling after finishing urination
Incomplete emptying – not being able to fully empty the bladder, with chronic retention
Nocturia – having to wake to pass urine multiple times at night
IPSS = international prostate symptom score used to assess severity of LUTS.

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17
Q

What investigations would you do for LUTS?

A

Digital rectal examination (prostate exam) to assess the size, shape and characteristics of the prostate
Abdominal examination to assess for a palpable bladder and other abnormalities
Urinary frequency volume chart, recording 3 days of fluid intake and output
Urine dipstick to assess for infection, haematuria (e.g., due to bladder cancer) and other pathology
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) for prostate cancer

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18
Q

What is PSA? What causes raised PSA?

A
Prostate specific antigen.
75% false positive for prostate ca
15% false negative.
Causes of raised PSA:
BPH, prostatitis, UTI, cycling, prostate stimulation/ejaculation.
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19
Q

How can you distinguish between benign and cancerous prostate on PR?

A

Firm/hard, craggy, irregular, loss of central sulcus.

Benign: smooth, symmetrical, soft, central sulcus

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20
Q

How is BPH managed?

A

Symptom dependent
Alpha blockers eg tamsulosin relax smooth muscle, rapid improvement in symptoms
5-alpha reductase inhibitors eg finasteride
TURP= transurethral resection of prostate
TEVAP=transurethral electrovaporisation of the prostate
HoLEP - Holmium laser enucleation of the prostate
Open prostatectomy via abdominal or perineal incision.

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21
Q

Counsel a patient starting finasteride.

A

Finasteride = 5-alpha reductase inhibitor. Gradually reduces size of prostate by stopping 5AR from converting T to DHT, which is more potent androgen. Takes 6 months of treatment to improve symptoms.
SE - sexual dysfunction

22
Q

Explain a TURP and the complications.

A

Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is the most common surgical treatment of BPH. It involves removing part of the prostate from inside the urethra. A resectoscope is inserted into the urethra, and prostate tissue is removed using a diathermy loop. The aim is to create a more expansive space for urine to flow through, thereby improving symptoms.

Major complications:
Bleeding
Infection
Urinary incontinence
Erectile dysfunction
Retrograde ejaculation (semen goes backwards and is not produced from the urethra)
Urethral strictures
Failure to resolve symptoms
23
Q

What is TEVAP?

A

Transurethral electrovaporisation of the prostate (TEVAP / TUVP) involves inserting a resectoscope into the urethra. A rollerball electrode is then rolled across the prostate, vaporising prostate tissue and creating a more expansive space for urine flow.

24
Q

What is HoLEP?

A

Holmium laser enucleation of the prostate (HoLEP) also involves inserting a resectoscope into the urethra. A laser is then used to remove prostate tissue, creating a more expansive space for urine flow.

25
Q

What is prostatitis and how is is classified?

A

Inflammation of the prostate.
Acute bacterial prostatitis = acute infection
Chronic prostatitis = > 3 months –> chronic is subdivided into infectious or non-infectious

26
Q

How does chronic prostatitis present?

A

> 3 months
Pelvic pain, which may affect the perineum, testicles, scrotum, penis, rectum, groin, lower back or suprapubic area
LUTS
Sexual dysfunction, such as erectile dysfunction, pain on ejaculation and haematospermia (blood in the semen)
Pain with bowel movements
Tender and enlarged prostate on examination (although examination may be normal)

27
Q

How does acute bacterial prostatitis present?

A
LUTS, pain, sexual dysfunction, dyschezia
Fever
Myalgia
Nausea
Fatigue
Sepsis
28
Q

How is prostatitis diagnosed?

A

Urine dipstick testing
Urine microscopy, culture and sensitivities (MC&S)
Chlamydia and gonorrhoea NAAT testing on a first pass urine - STI

29
Q

How is acute bacterial prostatitis managed?

A

Admission for systemically unwell or septic patients (sepsis 6)
Oral antibiotics, typically for 2-4 weeks (e.g., ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin or trimethoprim)
Analgesia (paracetamol or NSAIDs)
Laxatives for pain during bowel movements

30
Q

How is chronic prostatitis managed?

A

Alpha-blockers (e.g., tamsulosin) relax smooth muscle, with rapid improvement in symptoms
Analgesia (paracetamol or NSAIDs)
Psychological treatment, where indicated (e.g., cognitive behavioural therapy and / or antidepressants)
Abx if <6 months of symptoms or a history of infection (e.g., trimethoprim or doxycycline for 4-6 weeks)
Laxatives for pain during bowel movements

31
Q

Give 4 complications of acute bacterial prostatitis.

A

Sepsis
Prostate abscess (may be felt as a fluctuant mass and requires surgical drainage)
Acute urinary retention
Chronic prostatitis

32
Q

Where does prostate cancer commonly spread?

A

Lymph nodes

Bones

33
Q

What is the most common histological type and site of prostate cancer?

A

Adenocarcinomas in peripheral zone of prostate.

34
Q

Give 3 risk factors for prostate cancer other than older age.

A

Family history
Black African or Caribbean origin
Tall stature
Anabolic steroids

35
Q

How does prostate cancer present and how is it diagnosed?

A
Asymptomatic
LUTS similar to BPH
Haematuria
Sexual/erectile dysfunction
Sx of advanced disease or mets eg wt loss, bone pain or causa equina syndrome
Dx: 
PSA, clinical examination, Multiparametric MRI of the prostate. Scale from 1 (unlikely ca) to 5 (definite).
Biopsy.
36
Q

Counsel a patient regarding whether to have a PSA test.

A

What is it?
Protein secreted by epithelial cells of the prostate into the semen, with a small amount going into the blood. Thins the thick semen into a liquid consistency after ejaculation. It is specific to the prostate, meaning it is not produced anywhere else in the body. A raised level can be an indicator of prostate cancer.
In the UK, men over 50 can request a PSA test if they would like one.

Common causes of a raised PSA are:
Prostate cancer
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Prostatitis
Urinary tract infections
Vigorous exercise (notably cycling)
Recent ejaculation or prostate stimulation
Pros:
Early detection of prostate cancer, potentially leading to effective treatment and preventing significant problems. 

Cons:
Research has failed to show that the benefits of using PSA for screening outweigh the risks.
PSA testing is unreliable, with a high rate of false positives (75%) and false negatives (15%).

False positives may lead to further investigations, including invasive prostate biopsies, which have complications and may be unnecessary. Additionally, it may lead to the unnecessary diagnosis and treatment of prostate cancer that would never have caused problems (the patient would have died of other causes before experiencing any adverse effects of the prostate cancer).

False negatives may lead to false reassurance.

Ultimately patient’s decision, take leaflets, speak to others.

37
Q

What are the red flags for 2ww urology cancer referral?

A

PR findings - hard, asymmetrical, craggy, or irregular prostate, with loss of central sulcus.

38
Q

Consent a patient for prostate biopsy.

A

What: taking sample of prostate gland itself
How: Can be TRUS (transrectal USS guided) or transperineal (local anaesthetic). Multiple samples taken.
Pros: diagnose
Risks: false negative, Pain (particularly lower abdominal, rectal or perineal pain)
Bleeding (blood in the stools, urine or semen)
Infection
Urinary retention due to short term swelling of the prostate
Erectile dysfunction (rare)

39
Q

What is an isotope bone scan? What is the indication?

A

An isotope bone scan (also called a radionuclide scan or bone scintigraphy) can be used to look for bony metastasis.

A radioactive isotope is given by intravenous injection, followed by a short wait (2-3 hours) to allow the bones to take up the isotope. A gamma camera is used to take pictures of the entire skeleton. Metastatic bone lesions take up more of the isotope, making them stand out on the scan.

40
Q

What grading system is used to grade prostate cancer?

A

Gleason grading system. Based on histology from biopsy.
The tissue samples are graded 1 (normal) to 5 (abnormal).
The Gleason score will be made up of two numbers added together for the total score (for example, 3 + 4 = 7):
The first number is the grade of the most prevalent pattern in the biopsy
The second number is the grade of the second most prevalent pattern in the biopsy
A Gleason score of:
6 = low risk
7 = intermediate risk (3 + 4 is lower risk than 4 + 3)
>8 = high risk

Also TMN staging.
T1-4 or X
N0-1 or X
M0-1 or X

41
Q

How is prostate cancer managed?

A

Surveillance or watchful waiting in early prostate cancer
External beam radiotherapy directed at the prostate
Brachytherapy
Hormone therapy
Surgery

42
Q

What is the main complication of external beam radiotherapy and how is it treated?

A

Proctitis (inflammation in rectum) - causes pain, altered bowel habit, rectal bleeding and discharge. Prednisolone suppositories can reduce inflammation.

43
Q

What is brachytherapy and what are the complications?

A

Brachytherapy involves implanting radioactive metal “seeds” into the prostate. This delivers continuous, targeted radiotherapy to the prostate. The radiation can cause inflammation in nearby organs, such as the bladder (cystitis) or rectum (proctitis). Other side effects include erectile dysfunction, incontinence and increased risk of bladder or rectal cancer.

44
Q

How does hormone therapy treat prostate cancer and what are the side effects?

A

Reduce level of androgens eg testosterone. Eg:
Androgen receptor blocker: bicalutamide
GnRH agonists: goserelin
SEs: menopause: hot flush, sex dysfunction, gynecomastia, fatigue, osteroporosis

45
Q

What are the complications of radical prostatectomy?

A

Removing entire prostate. Complications: erectile dysfunction, urinary incontinence.

46
Q

Give 4 risk factors for bladder cancer.

A

Smoking
Age
Aromatic amines (dye and rubber industries)
Schistosomiases (SCC)

47
Q

What is the most common type of bladder cancer?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma (90%)
SCC 5% (schisto)
Adenocarcinoma (2%)
Sarcoma, small cell carcinoma (<1%)

48
Q

When would you refer someone for 2ww for bladder cancer?

A

Unexplained visible haematuria in people over 45 (including if treated for UTI but persisting)
Any haematuria (including microscopic) + dysuria/raised WCCs in people over 60
also non-urgent referral for over 60s with unexplained UTIs

49
Q

How is bladder cancer classified?

A

Non-muscle-invasive:
Tis/CIS: cancer cells only affect urothelium and are flat
Ta: only affects urothelium or projects into bladder
T1: invades connective tissue layer but not muscle layer
Muscle invasive:
T2-4
N1/M1 (ie any nodes/mets)

50
Q

How is bladder cancer managed?

A

MDT
Non-invasive –> TURBT: transurethral resection of bladder tumour
Intravesical chemo
Intravesical BCG (same as TB vaccine)
Invasive –> Radical cystectomy –> urostomy with ileal conduit
+chemo/radiotherapy