General Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Laparotomy =?

A

Open surgery of the abdomen (laparo = abdomen, otomy = open surgery))

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2
Q

Colectomy =?

A

Removal of the colon (colo = colon, ectomy = removal)

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3
Q

Cystoscopy =?

A

Endoscopic camera into the bladder (cysto = bladder, oscopy = viewing with a scope, or keyhole surgery)

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4
Q

Myotomy =?

A

Cutting muscle tissue (myo = muscle, otomy = cut open)

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5
Q

Orchidopexy=?

A

Fixing the testicle into the correct place (orchid = testicle, opexy = fixing something in place)

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6
Q

Rhinoplasty =?

A

Changing the shape (plasty) of the nose (rhino)

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7
Q

Thoracocentesis =?

A

Removing the air or fluid from the pleural space. Thoraco = chest, centesis = puncturing with a needle.

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8
Q

Colostomy =?

A

Opening the colon onto the surface of the abdomen (Ostomy = creating a new opening)

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9
Q

Laparoscopy =

A

Viewing the abdomen (laparo) with a scope, and/or keyhole surgery

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10
Q

Adhesion =

A

Scar-like tissue inside the body that bind surfaces together

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11
Q

Fistula =

A

Abnormal connection between two epithelial surfaces

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12
Q

Tenesmus =

A

Sensation of needing to open the bowels without producing stools (often with pain)

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13
Q

Hemicolectomy =

A

Removing a portion of the large intestine (colon)

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14
Q

Hartmann’s procedure =

A

Proctosigmoidectomy - removal of the rectosigmoid colon with closure of the anorectal stump and formation of a colostomy.

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15
Q

Anterior resection =

A

Removal of the rectum

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16
Q

Whipple procedure =

A

Pancreaticoduodenectomy - removal of the head of the pancreas, duodenum, gallbladder and bile duct.

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17
Q

Kocher incision =

A

Open cholecystectomy

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18
Q

Chevron incision =

A

Rooftop incision. Liver transplant, Whipple procedure, pancreatic surgery or upper GI surgery.

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19
Q

Mercedez Benz incision =

A

Liver transplant

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20
Q

Midline incision =

A

General laparotomy, allows good access to abdominal organs

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21
Q

Hockey-stick incision =

A

Renal transplant

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22
Q

Battle incision =

A

paramedian incision - open appendicectomy

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23
Q

McBurney/Gridiron incision =

Rutherford-morrison =

A

Oblique - open appendicectomy.

Rutherford morrison incision is an extended version that is also used for colectomy.

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24
Q

Lanz incision =

A

Transverse - open appendicectomy

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25
What incision is used for c sections?
Joel-cohen/pfannenstiel incision joel-cohen is a higher incision now used more than the pfannenstiel which is a curved incision 2 finger widths above the pubic symphysis.
26
Diathermy =
High frequency electrical current to cut through tissues or cauterise small blood vessels to stop bleeding. Useful for making targeted incisions with minimal bleeding. Usually monopolar, which means one diathermy probe, and a grounding plate under the patient, the current becomes less intense as it distributes through the patient's body.
27
What are the two types of sutures? When is each used?
Absorbable eg vicryl. Used for tissues that will heal will and remain sealed, eg abdominal cavity. Non-absorbable eg nylon - skin, drains and repairing tendons
28
How can the epidermidis be closed?
``` Staples - need removing Interrupted sutures - need removing Mattress sutures - need removing Continuous - need removing Subcuticular - absorbable. ```
29
What is a drain and why would one be used after surgery?
A tube left inside a body cavity to allow air/fluid to drain away. Prevents air/pus/fluid collecting within a space. Eg chest drain removes air and fluid from pleural space.
30
When is the WHO surgical safety checklist carried out?
Before induction of anaesthesia Before first incision Before patient leaves theatre
31
What does a pre-operative assessment involve?
Fitness to undergo the operation - frailty status, cardiorespiratory fitness Past medical history, smoking, alcohol, medications and allergies Anaesthetic risk - previous responses ASA grade
32
What are the ASA grades?
``` American Society of Anesthesiologists grading system - classifies physical status of patient for analgesia. I- normal healthy patient II- mild systemic disease III- severe systemic disease IV- severe systemic disease that constantly threatens life V- moribund (expected to die without op) VI - brain-dead (organ donation) E- emergency ```
33
What investigations are needed prior to surgery?
Group and save if lower probability of needing blood Crossmatch if high probability of needing blood MRSA screening - everyone (usually done by nurses, also COVID test) ECG if >65/ cardiovascular disease Echo is heart murmurs, cardiac symptoms or HF Lung function tests if ?resp disease ABG if ?resp disease HbA1C within last 3 months if diabetic U+E if at risk of AKI/electrolyte abnormality (eg diuretics) FBC if ?anaemia, cardiovasc or kidney disease Clotting if ?liver disease
34
What are group and save and crossmatch tests for?
``` G+S = testing blood group, valid for about 1 week Crossmatch = Assigning unit of blood to a patient so it's ready to go ```
35
What are the fasting requirements for most operations?
2 hours no clear fluids (fully NBM) (4 hours no breastmilk in infants) 6 hours no food Always put patients who may need emergency surgery NBM until assessed by senior.
36
Which medications need to be stopped before major surgery?
Anticoagulants - warfarin stopped about 5 days Treatment dose LMWH infusion used for bridging anticoag in patients at high risk eg valve/VTE DOACs stopped about 1-3 days before surgery Oestrogen (COCP/HRT) needs to be stopped 4 weeks before Remember VTE prophylaxis eg LMWH, stockings
37
What constitutes major surgery and minor surgery?
Major surgery = damage to tissues, high risk infection, open surgery (organ transplant, joint replacement) Minor = minimally invasive, laparoscopy, cataracts, dental
38
What happens with long term corticosteroids and surgery?
Long term steroids (>5mg oral pred) - IV hydrocortisone at induction in first 24hrs, doubled dose once eating again
39
How is diabetes managed in surgery? Which meds do you stop/change/start?
Surgery increases blood sugar but fasting reduces it. Risk of hypoglycaemia is greater. Sulfonylureas (gliclazide) cause hypoglycaemia - omit until eating Metformin - lactic acidosis, caution in renal impairment SGLT2Is eg dapagliflozin - DKA in dehydration/unwell Insulin - continue at 80% of long-acting and stop short-acting until eating again. Start VRII alongside glucose, NaCl and K infusion ('sliding scale).
40
What is a lasting power of attorney (LPA)?
Person legally nominated by a patient to make decisions on their behalf ONLY if they lack capacity.
41
What is a DoLS?
Deprivation of liberty safeguards - a legal framework which protects patients who are not allowed to leave a hospital/care home (they are deprived of liberty). The hospital/care home applies for this to allow them to provide care and treatment to someone who lacks capacity.
42
What is consent form 1 used for?
Standard consent form for a procedure
43
What is consent form 2 used for?
Parental consent on behalf of a child
44
What is consent form 3 used for?
Where patients won't have consciousness impaired, eg, breast biopsy. However form 1 is often still used.
45
What is consent form 4 used for?
When patient lacks capacity.
46
What is enhanced recovery and what are the principles?
Aims to get patients back to pre-op condition as quickly as possibly by encouraging independence, early mobility and appropriate diet. Principles: good prep for surgery eg diet and exercise minimally invasive surgery - keyhole/local anaesthetic adequate analgesia --> mobilisation, ventilation (reduce risk of infections and atelectasis), oral intake good nutritional support around surgery Early return to oral diet and fluid intake early mobilisation Avoid drains and NG tubes where possible, remove catheters early Discharge asap --> better outcomes.
47
When are NSAIDs contraindicated/used with extra caution?
Asthma, renal impairment, heart disease, stomach ulcers
48
What is patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)? How does it work and what monitoring is needed?
IV infusion of strong opiate (morphine, oxycodone or fentanyl) attached to patient controlled pump which administers a small bolus, and has a set time interval between doses. Only the patient should press the button. Monitoring - anaesthetist, access to naloxone, antiemetics, atropine (for bradycardia). Avoid other PRN opiates while PCA in use.
49
Give 5 risk factors for PONV.
``` Post op nausea and vom: Common in 24hrs after operation. Female Motion sickness/PONV history NON smoker use of post-op opiates younger age volatile anaesthetic use ```
50
Give 3 antiemetics used for prophylaxis of PONV, and one contra-indication for each.
Ondansetron (5HT3 antagonist) avoid in long QT Dexamethasone (corticosteroid), caution in diabetes/immunocompromise Cyclizine (antihistamine) - caution in HF/elderly. Droperidol (anti-D2) - avoid in parkinsons)
51
What can be used as 'rescue' anti-emetics for PONV?
Prochlorperazine (anti D2) - avoid in Parkinsons Cyclizine, ondansetron P6 acupuncture point on inner wrist
52
When and how are catheters removed?
When patient can mobilise to toilet. TWOC = trial without catheter. Look out for urinary retention, especially in male patients, who need to be re-catheterised.
53
What is a PEG tube?
A tube from surface of abdomen to the stomach. This still counts as an enteral feed because the food is going to the GI tract.
54
What is TPN?
Total (full nutritional requirements) Parenteral (not the gut - central line into the blood. Irritant to veins so never peripheral) Nutrition (carbs, fats, proteins, vitamins and minerals)
55
What is atelectasis?
Lung collapse due to under-ventilation
56
What is wound dehiscence?
Separation of surgical wound
57
What is ileus?
Reduced/no bowel peristalsis
58
What causes post-operative anaemia? How is it treated?
Hb under 100g/l - start oral iron eg ferrous sulphate 200mg TDS 3 months Hb under 80h/l - blood transfusion
59
How is fluid distributed in the body?
FLUID 1. Intracellular space - 2/3 2. Extracellular space - 1/3 a) intravascular (20%) b) interstitial (80%) c) third space - where fluid shouldnt be - peritoneal, pleural, pericardial cavities and joints. Also refers to excessive fluid in interstitial space (oedema)
60
What is third-spacing? How might it present?
3rd space = places where fluid shouldnt be - peritoneal, pleural, pericardial cavities and joints, or excessive fluid in interstitial space (oedema) Third-spacing = fluid shifting into this non-functional third space. Eg oedema, ascites, effusions or other non-functional fluid collections within the body. Can result in signs of both hypo and hypervolaemia eg hypotension and reduced perfusion of tissues as well as oedema.
61
Give 3 sources of fluid intake and 3 sources of fluid output
Oral fluids Nasogastric or PEG feeds Intravenous fluids (including IV medications) Total parenteral nutrition Urine output Bowel or stoma output (particularly diarrhoea) Vomit or stomach aspiration Drain output Bleeding Insensible loss - respiration, stool, burns, sweating
62
Give 6 signs of hypovolaemia.
``` Hypotension (systolic < 100 mmHg) Tachycardia (heart rate > 90) Capillary refill time > 2 seconds Cold peripheries Raised respiratory rate Dry mucous membranes Reduced skin turgor Reduced urine output Sunken eyes Reduced body weight from baseline Feeling thirsty ```
63
Give 4 signs of fluid overload.
``` Peripheral oedema (check the ankles and sacral area) Pulmonary oedema (shortness of breath, reduced oxygen saturation, raised respiratory rate and bibasal crackles) Raised JVP Increased body weight from baseline (regular weights are an important way of monitoring fluid balance) ```
64
What are the indications of IV fluids?
Resuscitation (e.g., sepsis or hypotension) Replacement (e.g., vomiting and diarrhoea) Maintenance (e.g., nil by mouth due to bowel obstruction)
65
Explain the different types of fluids and when they are used.
Colloid eg albumin - increases oncotic pressure, used eg in decompensated liver disease but not often Crystalloid: water + salts/glucose. Eg: HYPOTONIC: 5% Dextrose (1L = 50g of glucose) 0.18% NaCl in 4% glucose (31mmol NaCl, 40g glucose in 1L) ISOTONIC: for fluid resus. 0.9% NaCl - 1L contains 154mmol of sodium and chloride. Risk acidosis with hypernatraemia. Hartmann's (mimics human electrolytes - Na, Cl, K, Ca, lactate to reduce risk of acidosis PlasmaLyte (Na, Cl, K, Mg, acetate+gluconate to buffer) HYPERTONIC: 3% saline
66
What is normal serum osmolality?
275-295mOsmol/kg
67
How much fluid and electrolytes do people need daily?
25-30ml/kg/day water 1mmol/kg/day Na, K, Cl (don't add potassium to fluids) 50-100g/day glucose (to prevent ketosis, not to meet nutritional needs) Based on IDEAL body weight
68
What are the risks of IV fluids?
``` Circulatory overload DILUTION --> Hyponatraemia if hypotonic solutions Hypokalaemia if no K Hypocalcaemia, hypomagnasaemia, low hb, low hc, coagulopathy (low clotting factors, platelets and fibrinogen) ```
69
What is 'acute abdomen? How can you classify the causes?
recent, rapid onset of urgent abdominal or pelvic pathology, usually presenting with abdominal pain Classify by area (although be aware pain may not be localised/may radiate) eg generalised, RUQ, Epigastric, central, RIF, LIF, suprapubic, loin to groin, testicular
70
3 causes of generalised abdo pain?
Peritonitis Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm Intestinal obstruction Ischaemic colitis
71
3 causes of RUQ pain?
Biliary colic Acute cholecystitis Acute cholangitis
72
3 causes of epigastric pain?
Acute gastritis Peptic ulcer disease Pancreatitis Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
73
3 causes of central abdo pain?
Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm Intestinal obstruction Ischaemic colitis Early stages of appendicitis
74
3 causes of RIF pain?
``` Acute appendicitis Ectopic pregnancy Ruptured ovarian cyst Ovarian torsion Meckel’s diverticulitis ```
75
3 causes of LIF pain?
Diverticulitis Ectopic pregnancy Ruptured ovarian cyst Ovarian torsion
76
3 causes of suprapubic pain?
Lower urinary tract infection Acute urinary retention Pelvic inflammatory disease Prostatitis
77
3 causes of loin to groin pain?
``` Renal colic (kidney stones) Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm Pyelonephritis ```
78
3 causes of testicular pain?
Testicular torsion Epididymo-orchitis Trauma
79
What is peritonitis and what are 4 signs?
Iinflammation of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdomen. Guarding – involuntary tensing of the abdominal wall muscles when palpated to protect the painful area below Rigidity – involuntary persistent tightness / tensing of the abdominal wall muscles Rebound tenderness – rapidly releasing pressure on the abdomen creates worse pain than the pressure itself Coughing test – asking the patient to cough to see if it results in pain in the abdomen Percussion tenderness – pain and tenderness when percussing the abdomen
80
3 causes of peritonitis?
Localised - organ inflammation eg appendicitis or cholecystitis. Generalised - perforation of an abdominal organ (e.g., perforated duodenal ulcer or ruptured appendix) releasing the contents into the peritoneal cavity and causing generalised inflammation of the peritoneum. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP):spontaneous infection of ascites in patients with liver disease.
81
Give 6 blood tests you would do in acute abdomen and why.
FBC - bleeding (drop in Hb) and inflammation (raised WBC). U&Es - electrolyte imbalance and kidney function (?contrast) LFTs - biliary and hepatic system. CRP - inflammation Amylase - inflammation of the pancreas in acute pancreatitis. INR - synthetic function of the liver, establishing coagulation prior to procedures. Serum calcium - used to score acute pancreatitis and for other reasons (e.g., clotting and cardiac function). Serum hCG - pregnancy ABG - lactate (an indication of tissue ischaemia) and pO2 (used for scoring in acute pancreatitis). Lactate - ischaemia, anaerobic respiration, dehydration, hypoxia. Group and save prior to theatre in case the patient requires a blood transfusion. Blood cultures if infection is suspected.
82
What is the use of an AXR in acute abdomen?
Bowel obstruction - shows dilated bowel loops
83
What is the use of erect CXR in acute abdomen?
Erect CXR shows air under the diaphragm - pneumoperitoneum (intra abdominal perforation)
84
What is the role of abdo uss in acute abdomen?
Gallstones, biliary duct dilatation, gynae pathology
85
Explain the pathophysiology of appendicitis.
tldr: inflamed appendix. The appendix is a small, thin tube arising from the caecum where the three teniae coli meet (longitudinal muscles that run the length of the large intestine). There is a single opening to the appendix that connects it to the bowel, and it leads to a dead end. Pathogens can get trapped due to obstruction at the point where the appendix meets the bowel --> infection and inflammation --> gangrene and rupture --> faecal contents and infective material go into the peritoneal cavity --> peritonitis (inflammation of the peritoneal lining).
86
Give 4 signs of appendicitis.
Low grade fever Rovsing’s sign (palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain in the RIF) Guarding on abdominal palpation PERITONITIS (rupture): Rebound tenderness in the RIF (increased pain when suddenly releasing the pressure of deep palpation) Percussion tenderness (pain and tenderness when percussing the abdomen)
87
Give 4 symptoms of appendicitis.
Central abdominal pain moving to RIF within first 24 hours Tenderness at McBurney's point (1/3 from ASIS to umbilicus) Anorexia N+V Fever
88
How is appendicitis diagnosed?
Clinical + raised inflammatory markers May use CT to confirm if diagnostic uncertainty (Meckel's diverticulum, mesenteric adenitis) USS to exclude gynae pathology (ectopic pregnancy - pregnancy test, ovarian cyst) or in children where CT is a lot of radiation Diagnostic laparotomy if symptoms fit but negative investigations
89
What is Meckel's diverticulum?
Malformation of the distal ileum that occurs in around 2% of the population. It is usually asymptomatic and does not require any treatment. However, it can bleed, become inflamed, rupture or cause a volvulus or intussusception.
90
What is mesenteric adenitis?
Inflamed abdominal lymph nodes. It presents with abdominal pain, usually in younger children, and is often associated with tonsillitis or an upper respiratory tract infection. No specific treatment is required.
91
What is an appendix mass?
An appendix mass occurs when the omentum surrounds and sticks to the inflamed appendix, forming a mass in the right iliac fossa. This is typically managed conservatively with supportive treatment and antibiotics, followed by appendicectomy once the acute condition has resolved.
92
What is the definitive management of appendicitis?
Appendicectomy - usually laparoscopic
93
Give 5 complications of appendicectomy.
``` Bleeding, infection, pain and scars Damage to bowel, bladder or other organs Removal of a normal appendix Anaesthetic risks Venous thromboembolism (deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism) ```
94
What causes bowel obstruction?
Big Three: adhesions, hernias (small) malignancy (large) Other: volvulus (large), diverticular disease, strictures (eg Crohn's), intussusception (young children aged 6 months to 2 years)
95
What are adhesions? give 4 causes.
Adhesions are pieces of scar tissue that bind the abdominal contents together. Can cause kinking or squeezing of the bowel, leading to small bowel obstruction. Causes include: Abdominal or pelvic surgery (particularly open surgery) Peritonitis Abdominal or pelvic infections (e.g., pelvic inflammatory disease) Endometriosis Rarely: congenital or secondary to radiotherapy treatment.
96
What is closed-loop obstruction?
Two points of obstruction along the bowel; meaning that there is a middle section sandwiched between two points of obstruction. Eg due to: Adhesions that compress two areas of bowel Hernias that isolate a section of bowel blocking either end Volvulus where the twist isolates a section of intestine A single point of obstruction in the large bowel, with an ileocaecal valve that is competent A competent ileocaecal valve does not allow any movement back into the ileum from the caecum. When there is a large bowel obstruction and a competent ileocaecal valve, a section of bowel becomes isolated and the contents cannot flow in either direction. Contents cannot drain and decompress. Will inevitably continue to expand, leading to ischaemia and perforation -requires emergency surgery.
97
Give 5 features of bowel obstruction.
Vomiting (particularly green bilious vomiting) Abdominal distention Diffuse abdominal pain Absolute constipation and lack of flatulence “Tinkling” bowel sounds may be heard in early bowel obstruction
98
What would you see on X ray with bowel obstruction?
Distended loops of bowel. The upper limits of the normal diameter of bowel are: 3 cm small bowel 6 cm colon 9 cm caecum Valvulae conniventes are present in the small bowel and are mucosal folds that form lines extending the full width of the bowel. These are seen on an abdominal x-ray as lines across the entire width of the bowel. Haustra are like pouches formed by the muscles in the walls of the large bowel. They form lines that do not extend the full width of the bowel. These are seen on an abdominal x-ray as lines that extend only part of the way across the bowel.
99
How is bowel obstruction managed?
``` Do VBG - Lactate for bowel ischemia, met alkalosis from vomiting U+Es for electrolytes imbalances - correct Drip and suck: NBM, NG tube, IV fluids Surgery: Adhesions - adhesiolysis Hernias - surgical repair Malignancy - emergency resection Stents ```