Urological pathology Flashcards

1
Q

urinary stones can be made of?

A

Calcium Oxalate (Weddellite) – 75%

Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate (Struvite) – 15%

Uric Acid – 5%

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2
Q

which stones are related to hypercalciuria?

A

Calcium Oxalate

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3
Q

3 sources of hypercalciuria?

A

GUT - absorptive hyper cal

KIDNEY - proximal tubule

Primary HPTH

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4
Q

which are the triple stones?

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate stones - struvite

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5
Q

what causes the formation of triple stones?

A

infection with urease-producing organisms

Proteus sp.

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6
Q

when triple stones become very large what are they called?

A

staghorn calculi

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7
Q

which stones are the following susceptible to:

Gout
Rapid cell turnover

A

uric acid stones

due to hyperuricaemia

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8
Q

where can small kidney stones become lodged at?

A

Pelvi-ureteric junction,

pelvic brim,

vesico-ureteric junction

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9
Q

Name 3 Benign Renal Neoplasms?

A

Papillary adenoma (epithelial)

Renal oncocytoma (epithelial)

Angiomyolipoma (mesenchymal) - blood, muscle,fat

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10
Q

which Benign Renal Neoplasm has the following:

15mm or less in size
Well-circumscribed

Trisomy 7, Trisomy 17, Loss of Y chromosome

A

Papillary adenoma

small tumour

the papillary carcinoma has the same genetic cause :)

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11
Q

which Benign Renal Neoplasm is:

Usually sporadic
Can be seen in Birt-Hogg-Dubé syndrome

A

Renal oncocytoma

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12
Q

which Benign Renal Neoplasm is:

Derived from perivascular epithelioid cells
Mostly sporadic
Can be seen in tuberous sclerosis

A

Angiomyolipoma

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13
Q

which Benign Renal Neoplasm is:

Larger tumours (> 4cm) may present with flank pain, haemorrhage, shock

A

Angiomyolipoma

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14
Q

Malignant kidney neoplasms are often called?

A

Carcinomas - they are all epithelial tumours

apart from nephroblastoma

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15
Q

most common renal cell carcinoma?

A

clear cell

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16
Q

how does renal cell carcinoma often present?

A

painless haematuria

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17
Q

clear cell RCC is caused by loss of which chromosome?

A

chromosome 3p

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18
Q

clear cell RCC tumour has what colour?

A

golden-yellow

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19
Q

Papillary RCC is of what size?

A

more than 15mm

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20
Q

Papillary RCC tumour has what colour?

A

fragile, friable (crumbled) brown tumour

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21
Q

which malignant Renal Neoplasm has

raisin like nuclei

A

Chromophobe Renal Cell Carcinoma

22
Q

which malignant Renal Neoplasm is:

composed of sheets of large cells
display distinct cell borders,
reticular cytoplasm
thick-walled vascular network

Shows variable genetic aberrations

A

Chromophobe Renal Cell Carcinoma

23
Q

how does Chromophobe RCC tumour look?

A

well-circumscribed solid brown tumour

24
Q

ISUP Nuclear Grade (1-4) applies to which tumours?

A

clear cell RCC

papillary RCC

25
Q

Leibovich Risk Model applies to which tumours?

what is it for?

A

clear cell RCC

for staging

26
Q

which tumour presents as abdominal mass in children aged 2-5 years ?

A

nephroblastoma

aka wilms tumour

27
Q

which is the second most common childhood malignancy?

A

nephroblastoma

aka wilms tumour

28
Q

Transitional Cell Carcinomas arise in which 3 areas?

A

Bladder
Renal Pelvis
Ureters

29
Q

which tumours are triphasic - affect 3 different cells in kidney?

A

nephroblastoma

aka wilms tumour

30
Q

which tumours carry a number of genetic aberrations including RB and TP53?

tumour protein53

A

High grade
Non-Invasive Papillary Urothelial Carcinoma

NIPUC

31
Q

which tumours appear as leaf/ frond-like growths?

A

Non-Invasive Papillary Urothelial Carcinoma

NIPUC

32
Q

how does Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia present?

A

LUTZ: FUN HIPS

Frequency
Urgency
Nocturia

Hesitancy
Poor flow
Terminal Dribbling

or UTI, urinary retention

33
Q

treatment for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia?

A

§ 5a-reductase inhibitors - finasteride
§ Alpha-blockers
§ Transurethral resection

34
Q

which tumour arises from Prostatic Intraepithelial Neoplasia ?

A

Prostatic Adenocarcinoma

35
Q

which is the Most common malignant tumour in men?

A

Prostatic Adenocarcinoma

36
Q

Which is the most powerful prognostic indicator in Prostatic Adenocarcinoma?

A

Gleason score

37
Q

how is Gleason grading conducted?

A

x+y = z

		Calculated by adding the top two most common patterns/grades on histological grading (or most common pattern + worst pattern)
38
Q

name risk factors for Testicular Germ Cell Tumours?

A
Undescended testis (3-5x increased risk)
Low birth weight / small for gestational age
39
Q

Amplification of i12p consistent finding in ?

A

testicular germ cell tumours

40
Q

how do Testicular Germ Cell Tumours present?

A

Present as painless lump

10% present with symptoms related to metastasis

41
Q

which tumour has on histology:

Clear polygonal cells with lymphoid infiltrate

A

Seminoma

42
Q

Highly sensitive to treatment regimes used for

Testicular Germ Cell Tumours ?

A

platinum-based chemotherapy - cisplatin, carboplatin

43
Q

prognosis of Testicular Germ Cell Tumours ?

A

Five year survival is 98%

44
Q

which tumour

Can see keratin, cartilage, epithelium – trying to form dermal layers

A

Post-Pubertal Teratoma

a Testicular Germ Cell Tumour

45
Q

name 3 Testicular Non-Germ Cell Tumours?

A

Lymphoma

Leydig Cell Tumour

Sertoli Cell Tumour

46
Q

which are more common T GCC or T N-GCC?

A

T GCC

47
Q

a hydrocele consist of fluid which?

tunica vaginalis
tunica vasculosa,
tunica albuginea

A

tunica vaginalis

48
Q

which penile disease causes Phimosis?

A

Lichen sclerosis/ BXO

49
Q

which penile disease associated with HPV 6 and 11?

A

Condylomas

50
Q

which paratesticular and urethral disease associated with

N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis

A

itis!

Epididymitis
Urethritis

51
Q

Fournier’s Gangrene occurs where?

A

scrotum

  • usually immunocompromised