Urinary System II Flashcards

1
Q

When the sodium and chloride concentrations in the DCT are too high, cells in the
juxtaglomerular apparatus called _____ cells secrete a chemical signal which causes the
_____, allowing more time for ion resorption.

A

macula densa; afferent

arteriole to constrict

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2
Q

When the filtrate flow in the DCT is too low or the filtrate is too dilute, cells in the
juxtaglomerular apparatus called _____ cells STOP secreting a chemical signal which
causes the _____. As a result, GFR increases.

A

macula densa; afferent

arteriole to constrict

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3
Q

When the filtrate flow in the DCT is too low or the filtrate is too dilute, cells in the
juxtaglomerular apparatus called _____ cells secrete renin, which indirectly causes a(n)
_____ in systemic blood pressure.

A

juxtaglomerular (JG); increase

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4
Q

When blood pressure in the afferent and efferent arterioles is insufficient, cells in the
juxtaglomerular apparatus called _____ cells secrete renin, which indirectly causes a(n)
_____ in systemic blood pressure and indirectly _____.

A

juxtaglomerular (JG); increase;

increases sodium retention

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5
Q

Renin hydrolyses angiotensinogen to angiotensin I which is converted to _____ by ACE.
This in turn stimulates _____ and also production of _____.

A

angiotensin II; vasoconstriction;

aldosterone

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6
Q

Aldosterone, released by the cortex of the _____, _____ blood pressure by causing
_____ and thus (by osmosis) _____.

A

adrenal glands; increases;
sodium retention; water
retention

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7
Q

Angiotensin II increases systemic blood pressure by causing generalized vasoconstriction:
however, in the kidney, it affects the _____ arterioles more than the _____ ones, and so
GFP _____.

A

efferent; afferent; does not decrease

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8
Q

During periods of intense stress, sympathetic signals to the afferent arterioles override the
kidney’s autoregulation and _____; thus, filtration is _____.

A

decrease blood flow to the

glomerulus; decreased

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9
Q

Renal clearance tests measure the _____ per minute, and are used to diagnose
glomerular damage or monitor kidney disease.

A

volume of plasma from which a

solute is removed

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10
Q

If a renal clearance test is done using a solute that enters the filtrate but which is neither
resorbed nor secreted by the nephron, then the renal clearance rate equals the _____.
(_____ is often administered and used for this purpose.)

A

glomerular filtration rate (GFR);

Inulin

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11
Q

. Most solutes and water are resorbed in the _____.

A

PCT

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12
Q

Most or all of the organic nutrients such as glucose which are present in the filtrate are
_____.

A

resorbed in the PCT

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13
Q

Resorption of sodium and potassium is controlled by _____.

A

aldosterone

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14
Q

Resorption of calcium is controlled by _____; it is not unusual, in that the resorption of
most minerals is _____.

A

PTH; hormonally controlled

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15
Q

Water resorption is regulated by two hormones, _____ and _____: both of these act only
on the _____ and _____.

A

aldosterone; ADH; DCT;

collecting duct

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16
Q

Most resorption involves the movement of molecules _____ the tubule cells. This, in turn,
almost always requires the presence of _____ in the cell membrane.

A

through; carrier proteins

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17
Q

Under certain conditions, so much of a particular solute may be present in the filtrate that
the _____ responsible for its resorption aren’t sufficient for the task. In such cases, the
concentration in the plasma is said to be above the _____.

A

carrier proteins; renal threshold

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18
Q

_____ join tubule cells to one another and prevent the passage of most substances
between cells; however, it is thought that water and a few ions are able to be resorbed by
this _____ route.

A

Tight junctions; paracellular

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19
Q

A large volume of water is resorbed in the PCT, simply because the _____ creates
enough osmotic pressure to cause the water to follow. (Sodium in particular contributes to
this effect.)

A

transfer of solutes to the

interstitial fluid

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20
Q

As water is resorbed in the PCT, the concentration of the solutes left behind _____. This
in turn makes it easier for them to be resorbed.

A

increases

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21
Q

Water movements out of the proximal tubule and loop of Henle is driven by osmotic
pressure and sodium concentrations, and is referred to as _____ because it is not
regulated directly.

A

obligatory water resorption

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22
Q

Water resorption in the DCT and collecting duct is hormonally controlled, and is referred
to as _____.

A

facultative water resorption

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23
Q

Resorption of most substances in the PCT depends on a large _____ gradient between
the filtrate and the tubule cells. This gradient is created by _____ at the basal membrane.

A

sodium; sodium-potassium

ATPases

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24
Q

Most substances in the PCT are resorbed using _____: that is, _____ enters the cell
along with the substance being resorbed, and in fact provides the driving force.

A

sodium cotransport; sodium

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25
Q

_____ during solute resorption in the PCT directly involves ATP hydrolysis, and is the step
performed by the _____. _____ occurs when energy stored in a gradient is used to
transport a solute.

A

Primary active transport;
sodium-potassium ATPase;
Secondary active transport

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26
Q

Solutes that have been resorbed leave the tubule cells via _____ or _____ diffusion.

A

simple; facilitated

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27
Q

Water and solutes that have been resorbed enter the _____ and are carried from the
kidney.

A

peritubular capillaries

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28
Q

The concentration of a solution can be increased in either of two ways: _____ can be
added or _____ can be removed.

A

solutes; solvent

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29
Q

The major difference between the permeabilities of the descending and ascending loops
of Henle is that the descending loop is permeable to _____ but not to _____, while the
reverse is true in the ascending loop.

A

water; NaCl

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30
Q

In the descending loop of Henle, the filtrate becomes _____ concentrated
due to the removal of _____; in the ascending loop, it becomes _____
concentrated due to the removal of _____.

A

more; water; less; NaCl

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31
Q

Removal of NaCl from the filtrate in the ascending loop of Henle requires _____.

A

active transport OR ATP

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32
Q

_____ is able to diffuse from the collecting duct into the deep medullary tissue,
contributing to the increasing osmotic gradient encountered by filtrate as it moves through
the loop.

A

Urea

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33
Q

In the medulla, the interstitial fluid is 4 times more concentrated near the _____ than near
the _____. This allows juxtamedullary nephrons to produce urine that is _____.

A

renal papillae; cortex; very

concentrated

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34
Q

By transporting the filtrate through a region of _____, the kidney maximizes the movement
of water out of the filtrate due to osmosis.

A

high osmolarity

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35
Q

Systems such as the vasa recta which rely on exchange between currents flowing in
opposite directions in order to maintain a gradient are called _____.

A

countercurrent systems

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36
Q

Blood enters the renal medulla in the descending branch of the _____, and loses _____
and gains _____ in the process. However, the gradient is not disturbed, because blood is
carried out along the same route and these processes _____.

A

vasa recta; water; salt; reverse

37
Q

Although independent, secretion and resorption are not separated _____ (that is, they
occur _____).

A

chronologically; together

38
Q

The sodium gradient used by the PCT to cotransport solutes during resorption can also be
used for _____. In this process, a molecule or ion is secreted. The membrane protein
performing the task is referred to as a(n) _____

A

countertransport; antiporter

39
Q

Some organic acids and bases (including some drugs) are secreted in the _____ and
_____. These pathways are not specific, and so secretion of one generally competes with
_____.

A

PCT; DCT; secretion of the

others

40
Q

The concentration of nitrogen-containing wastes (ammonium ions, urea and uric acid) in
urine is increased by secretion in the _____, _____ and _____.

A

PCT; DCT; collecting duct

41
Q

In addition to their obvious function (collecting urine), collecting ducts in the kidney also
control the concentration of the urine by changing their _____ in response to ADH.

A

permeability to water

42
Q

When the hypothalamus detects that the osmolarity of the blood is too high, _____ is
released from the neurohypophysis to conserve water.

A

antidiuretic hormone

43
Q

ADH acts on the _____ to increase water permeability: this increases _____ water
reabsorption.

A

DCT and collecting ducts;

facultative

44
Q

The heart produces _____, which reduces blood pressure, blood volume, and blood
sodium concentration by inhibiting _____ release; it also dilates the afferent arteriole to
increase _____ and inhibits sodium resorption in the DCT and collecting duct.

A

atrial natriuretic peptide or
hormone (ANP or ANH); renin;
GFR

45
Q

Solutes which exceed the _____ of their carriers (or in the case of some drugs, which are
not recognized by any carriers) act as _____.

A

transport maximum; osmotic

diuretics

46
Q

Chemicals (drugs) which increase GFR, decrease water resorption, or increase the
osmolarity of the filtrate reaching the collecting duct act as _____.

A

diuretics

47
Q

Calcium resorption is controlled by _____ hormone; in response to this hormone, calcium
resorption in the _____ is increased.

A

parathyroid; DCT

48
Q

Aldosterone acts on the DCT and collecting duct to increase _____.

A

sodium resorption

49
Q

Excess potassium is toxic, and so secretion is sometimes necessary: this occurs in the
_____ and _____ and is controlled by the hormone _____.

A

DCT; collecting duct;

aldosterone

50
Q
K+
 and H+
 ion secretion in the DCT and collecting ducts uses Na+
 antiporters, and so an 
increase in Na+
 transport out of the filtrate results in an increase in K+
 or H+
 ion transport 
\_\_\_\_\_.
A

into the filtrate

51
Q

An increase in plasma potassium levels results in the secretion of _____, which indirectly
leads to secretion of potassium by the DCT and collecting duct.

A

aldosterone

52
Q

Hydrogen ions are secreted or resorbed (depending on the _____) in the _____, _____
and _____.

A

pH of the blood; PCT; DCT;

collecting duct

53
Q

Bicarbonate ions are secreted or resorbed (depending on the _____) in the _____.

A

pH of the blood; collecting duct

54
Q

Amino acids can be catabolized in the liver; but the nitrogen must be eliminated from the
body. If blood pH is normal, the liver makes _____ (which contains two nitrogen atoms) to
dispose of nitrogen.

A

urea

55
Q

Amino acids can be catabolized in the liver; but the nitrogen must be eliminated from the
body. If blood pH is acidic, the liver transfers some of the nitrogen to glutamate to make
_____.

A

glutamine

56
Q

If blood pH is acidic, the kidney uses nitrogen from _____ to form _____, which combines
with a hydrogen ion and allows it to be disposed of in the urine

A

glutamine; ammonia

57
Q

The kidneys can secrete hydrogen ions in several ways: directly by _____ dependent
primary active transport, by countertransport with _____, or in combination with _____
(whose secretion also depends on countertransport).

A

ATP; sodium; ammonia

58
Q

When peritubular cells in the kidney become hypoxic, they secrete _____ to stimulate the
formation of more oxygen-carrying red blood cells.

A

erythropoietin

59
Q

Like the liver, the renal cortex can produce glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors.
The kidney uses _____ as the starting material for this purpose. The process is called
_____.

A

glutamine; gluconeogenesis

60
Q

Once the urine is formed, it leaves the kidneys and travels to the bladder through the
_____, which are muscular tubes with three tissue layers: the lumenal _____, the _____,
and the outer _____.

A

ureters; mucosa; muscularis;

adventitia

61
Q

The ureters enter the bladder at the base and at an angle. Because of this, increases in
bladder pressure cause _____ which prevents _____.

A

the ureters to close; urine from
being pushed back into the
kidney

62
Q

The muscularis of the ureters contracts in _____.

A

peristaltic waves

63
Q

The bladder is a hollow, distensible ball of muscle lined with _____ and surrounded by a
fibrous _____. (On its superior surface, the outer layer is actually the _____.) It stores
urine until its disposal is convenient.

A

mucosa; adventitia; peritoneum

64
Q

The mucosa of the bladder consists of _____ epithelium, which allows it to stretch easily
and far, supported by a(n) _____.

A

transitional; lamina propria

65
Q

The muscular layer which comprises the bulk of the bladder is the _____ muscle, and
consists of _____ muscle whose fibers are arranged in three layers.

A

detrusor; smooth

66
Q

At the base of the bladder, the two ureteric openings and the urethral opening for a
triangle: the region of the bladder encompassed by this triangle is called the _____

A

trigone

67
Q

Bladder distension is sensed by stretch receptors in the _____. Ordinarily, the urge to
urinate is felt after _____ ml are present; this can be inhibited voluntarily,
but it returns periodically as more urine enters the bladder.

A

detrusor muscle; ~200

68
Q

The maximum bladder capacity is 3/4 to 1 liter; if circumstances force urine retention to (or
above) this level, urination _____ or (much more serious) _____.

A

may occur involuntarily; the
bladder may burst (especially if
an abdominal impact occurs)

69
Q

Urine leaves the bladder through the _____. This tube is _____ times longer in males
than in females.

A

urethra; five

70
Q

Urine is prevented from leaving the bladder prematurely by two rings of muscle: one is the
voluntarily controlled _____, which can be assisted by contraction of the _____.

A

external urethral sphincter;

levator ani

71
Q

Urine is prevented from leaving the bladder prematurely by two rings of muscle: the
involuntary _____ is formed continuous with the detrusor muscle.

A

internal urethral sphincter

72
Q

In females, the outer urethral opening is immediately _____ to the vaginal opening

A

anterior

73
Q

In males, the urethra has three regions: the _____ urethra just under the bladder, the
_____ urethra within the penis, and the _____ urethra which connects them.

A

prostatic; spongy OR penile;

membranous

74
Q

_____ is another word for urination.

A

Micturition

75
Q

The lowest level of bladder control, and first to develop, is the _____: filling of the bladder
sends a signal to the sacral spinal cord, and an efferent signal is sent in response which
triggers _____.

A

sacral micturition reflex;

micturition

76
Q

As development progresses, the sacral micturition reflex comes under the control of the
_____, which is located in the pons.

A

pontine micturition center

77
Q

The micturition center in the _____ inhibits the pontine micturition center in the _____ to
prevent socially inappropriate urination, but this control does not develop until 2-4 years of
age.

A

frontal lobe; pons

78
Q

Bladder filling is an active process which depends on sympathetic fibers which leave the
spinal cord in the _____. These inhibit the detrusor muscle and excite the internal urethral
sphincter, allowing _____.

A

lumbar region; the bladder to

stretch

79
Q

_____ control the contraction and relaxation of the external sphincter in response to
signals from the _____ and from the stretching of the _____.

A

Sacral nerves; pons OR
pontine micturition center;
detrusor muscles

80
Q

Contraction of the detrusor muscle (which is necessary to fully empty the bladder) is
controlled by _____.

A

sacral nerves

81
Q

_____ carry most of the afferent signals of detrusor stretch; if the spinal cord is intact,
these signals are relayed to the pons and from there to higher brain regions.

A

Sacral nerves

82
Q

Involuntary urination is called urinary incontinence. If it occurs only in small volumes when
the bladder is placed under pressure, it is _____. If it is due to involuntary contractions of
the detrusor muscle, it is _____.

A

stress incontinence; urge

incontinence

83
Q

Normally, urine is sterile. If bacteria invade the urinary system, the infection is called a(n)
_____.

A

urinary tract infection (UTI)

84
Q

Inflammation of components of the urinary system is common in response to bacterial or
fungal infections: _____ is inflammation of the bladder.

A

cystitis

85
Q

Inflammation of components of the urinary system is common in response to bacterial or
fungal infections: _____ is inflammation of the urethra.

A

urethritis

86
Q

_____ is inflammation that results when an infection reaches the pyelum (pelvis) of the
kidney.

A

Pyelonephritis

87
Q

Various health and dietary factors may lead to the formation of _____, which if small may
pass on their own (with much pain!) or if large may require medical intervention.

A

kidney stones OR renal calculi

88
Q

_____ refers to an abnormally low rate of urine formation caused by low _____ or kidney
_____.

A

Anuria; glomerular hydrostatic

pressure (HPg); disease