Urinary Flashcards

1
Q

What is the single underlying cause of renal papillary necrosis?

A

Ischemia.

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2
Q

What are 3 potential sources for emboli that could lead to renal infarction (i.e., that originated outside the kidney)?

A

(1) Emboli from cardiac valvular endocarditis. (2) Thromboembolism due to sepsis. (3) Emboli from neoplasms. (4) Bacterial emboli.

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3
Q

Explain how renal failure leads to renal fibrous osteodystrophy.

A

Renal disease –> Reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR) –> Phosphorus retained in body –> Ca and P interact and precipitate –> Decreased available calcium –> Increased parathyroid hormone release in response –> Calcium resorption from bone –> Renal osteodystrophy (“rubberjaw”)

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4
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a dog and notice gritty, white, horizontal (ladder-like) streaks in the pleura of the intercostal spaces. What does this suggest?

A

These lesions occur due to soft tissue deposition of calcium secondary to uremia / renal failure. Intercostal mineralization is characterized, particularly in dogs, by calcification of the subpleural connective tissue of the cranial intercostal spaces.

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5
Q

Explain the difference between primary and secondary renal papillary necrosis in terms of the cause.

A

(1) Primary: Caused by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS). (2) Secondary: Caused by reduction of renal medullary blood flow for some reason other than NSAIDS, such as fibrosis, calculi in renal pelvis or lower urinary tract obstruction.

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6
Q

Draw a flow chart explaining the pathogenesis of soft tissue mineralization in animals in renal failure.

A

Renal disease –> Reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR) –> Phosphorus retained in body –> Ca and P interact and precipitate –> Soft tissue mineralization.

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7
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of the oral ulceration that may be seen in a uremic animal.

A

(1) Endothelial damage (vasculitis) caused by azotemia leads to thrombosis and infarction of blood vessels. (2) Caustic injury to epithelium is secondary to the production of large concentrations of ammonia after splitting of salivary urea by bacteria.

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8
Q

Compare the appearance of an acute versus chronic renal infarct caused by blockage of an interlobar artery.

A

(1) Acute: Red, swollen and hemorrhagic. (2) Chronic: Pale, shrunken and fibrotic.

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9
Q

Describe the gross appearance of the characteristic subpleural lesions seen in a uremic dog or cat.

A

Gritty, white, horizontal (ladder-like) streaks of mineralization are seen in the subpleural connective tissue of the intercostal spaces.

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10
Q

What is the characteristic renal lesion in a puppy that has died of herpesviral infection?

A

Ecchymotic hemorrhages are common in the renal cortex of neonatal puppies infected with herpesvirus.

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11
Q

What, in general terms, causes post-renal failure/disease?

A

Inadequate discharge of urine from the kidney.

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12
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of the gastric ulceration that may be seen in a uremic animal.

A

(1) Endothelial damage (vasculitis) caused by azotemia leads to thrombosis and infarction of blood vessels. (2) Caustic injury to epithelium is secondary to the production of large concentrations of ammonia after splitting of gastric urea by bacteria.

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13
Q

Describe the characteristic shape of a renal infarct caused by blockage of glomerular capillary tuft.

A

Pinpoint.

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14
Q

What are the two major factors that determine the gross appearance of a renal infarct?

A

(1) The size of the blocked vessel. (2) The age of the lesion.

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15
Q

What is the term for enlargement of the parathyroid glands seen in animals in renal failure?

A

Renal secondary hyperparathyroidism.

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16
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of the pulmonary edema that may be seen in a uremic animal.

A

Endothelial damage (vasculitis) caused by azotemia leads to edema.

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17
Q

Describe the characteristic shape of a renal infarct caused by blockage of an interlobar artery.

A

Wedge-shaped, with the point at the interlobar artery and the wide base at the renal surface.

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18
Q

Give two reasons why the kidneys are prone to infarction.

A

(1) Kidneys have an end-arterial supply, with little collateral circulation. (2) Kidneys receive 25% of cardiac output and, therefore, emboli are likely to reach the renal arteries.

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19
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of the large intestinal hemorrhage and ulceration that may be seen in a uremic horse or cow.

A

Endothelial damage (vasculitis) caused by azotemia leads to (1) edema and (2) thrombosis and infarction of blood vessels.

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20
Q

Explain, in terms of the unique vasculature of the kidney, why the medullary tubules are so susceptible to ischemic injury.

A

The blood supply to medullary tubules is entirely dependent on an intact glomerular circulatory system. For example, a thrombus near a glomerulus may lead to ischemic necrosis of the tubules associated with that glomerulus.

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21
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of the bone softening that may be seen in a uremic animal.

A

Renal disease –> Reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR) –> Phosphorus retained in body –> Ca and P interact and precipitate –> Decreased available calcium –> Increased parathyroid hormone release in response –> Calcium resorption from bone –> Renal osteodystrophy (“rubberjaw”)

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22
Q

Are lesions of uremia more or less severe in acute renal failure (when compared with chronic renal failure)? Why?

A

Less severe. The severity of lesions of uremia depends on the length of time that the animal has survived in the uremic state. Therefore, in acute renal failure, non-renal lesions are few, whereas many lesions can be present in chronic renal failure.

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23
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of the soft tissue mineralization that may be seen in a uremic animal.

A

Renal disease –> Reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR) –> Phosphorus retained in body –> Ca and P interact and precipitate –> Soft tissue mineralization.

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24
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a pig and notice numerous renal cortical petechial hemorrhages. What, in general terms, does this suggest?

A

Petechial hemorrhages are common in the renal cortex of pigs that die of viremia or septicemia, e.g.,: hog cholera (swine fever), African swine fever, erysipelas, streptococcal infections, salmonellosis, other embolic bacterial diseases (e.g., Actinobacillus spp.)

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25
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a horse and notice several discrete to coalescing areas of coagulative necrosis in the inner renal medulla. What is the most likely (a) diagnosis and (b) cause?

A

(a) Renal papillary necrosis. (b) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS), especially phenylbutazone or flunixin meglumine.

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26
Q

What, in general terms, causes pre-renal failure/disease?

A

Inadequate perfusion of the kidney.

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27
Q

Describe the gross appearance of an end-stage kidney.

A

The characteristic end-stage kidney is pale tan to white, is shrunken & pitted, is firm (fibrosis) to gritty (mineral), has adhesions between the cortex and capsule and has a thinned cortex.

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28
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of the enlarged parathyroid glands that may be seen in a uremic animal.

A

Renal disease –> Reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR) –> Phosphorus retained in body –> Ca and P interact and precipitate –> Decreased available calcium –> Increased parathyroid hormone release in response –> Parathyroid glands enlarge to achieve this (i.e., renal secondary hyperparathyroidism)

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29
Q

Explain how renal failure leads to renal secondary hyperparathyroidism.

A

Renal disease –> Reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR) –> Phosphorus retained in body –> Ca and P interact and precipitate –> Decreased available calcium –> Increased parathyroid hormone release in response –> Parathyroid glands enlarge to achieve this (i.e., renal secondary hyperparathyroidism).

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30
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of the atrial, aortic or pulmonary arterial thrombosis that may be seen in a uremic animal. (2)

A

Endothelial damage (vasculitis) caused by azotemia leads to thrombosis. In addition, loss of the anticoagulant antithrombin III by glomerular leakage is conducive to the formation of large mural thrombi at these sites.

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31
Q

What is uremia?

A

The clinical syndrome (toxicosis) of renal failure.

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32
Q

True or false: uremia refers to an increase in urea and other nitrogenous waste products in the blood.

A

False. This statement describes azotemia, not uremia.

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33
Q

Explain why the lesions of uremia are more severe in an animal with chronic renal failure than in an animal with acute renal failure.

A

The severity of lesions of uremia depends on the length of time that the animal has survived in the uremic state. Therefore, in acute renal failure, non-renal lesions are few, whereas many lesions can be present in chronic renal failure.

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34
Q

Name two drugs that commonly cause renal papillary necrosis in horses.

A

(1) Phenylbutazone. (2) Flunixin meglumine.

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35
Q

What, in general terms, are the three requirements for a functioning kidney?

A

(1) Adequate blood supply. (2) Adequate volume of functional renal tissue. (3) Adequate drainage of urine from the kidney.

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36
Q

What is an end-stage kidney?

A

End-stage kidneys show changes related to nephron loss that are not specific to the original disease or insult, but are common end-stage responses to many disease processes. At the time of diagnosis/necropsy the original inciting cause of disease is usually not evident and may never be known.

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37
Q

Approximately what percentage of renal function must be lost before renal failure results?

A

Approximately 75%.

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38
Q

What is the term for loss of bone mineral seen in animals in renal failure?

A

Renal fibrous osteodystrophy.

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39
Q

The various lesions of uremia are generally attributable to one of three mechanisms. What are these three mechanisms?

A

(1) Endothelial damage. (2) Caustic injury by ammonia. (3) Altered Calcium:Phosphorus ratios.

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40
Q

What typically causes primary renal papillary necrosis in small animals?

A

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS), especially ibuprofen, aspirin, or acetaminophen.

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41
Q

True or false: an azotemic animal is, by definition, in renal failure.

A

False. Azotemia is simply an increase in nitrogenous wastes in the blood. An azotemic animal does not necessarily show any clinical signs.

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42
Q

Should you use the terms “dit-dots”, “thingies” and “ugly bits” in your exam answers?

A

No.

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43
Q

What is azotemia?

A

An increase in nitrogenous wastes in the blood.

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44
Q

What typically causes primary renal papillary necrosis in horses?

A

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS), especially phenylbutazone or flunixin meglumine.

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45
Q

What are the two broad categories of disorder that cause renal hemorrhages?

A

(1) Endothelial damage. (2) Clotting disorders.

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46
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of the pericarditis and endocarditis that may be seen in a uremic animal.

A

Endothelial damage (vasculitis) caused by azotemia leads to (1) edema and (2) thrombosis and infarction of blood vessels.

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47
Q

Name 6 common lesions that may be seen in a uremic animal.

A

[Any six] (1) Ulcerative stomatitis & glossitis. (2) Gastric ulceration & mineralization. (3) Ulcerative and hemorrhagic colitis (cattle and horses). (4) Fibrinous pericarditis / ulcerative endocarditis. (5) Atrial and aortic thrombosis. (6) Pulmonary edema (uremic pneumonitis). (7) Various soft tissue mineralization. (8) Fibrous osteodystrophy. (9) Renal secondary hyperparathyroidism.

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48
Q

Aside from NSAIDs, what other factors or diseases can lead to renal papillary necrosis?

A

Anything that causes a reduction of renal medullary blood flow, such as fibrosis, calculi in renal pelvis or lower urinary tract obstruction.

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49
Q

True or false: renal papillary necrosis and renal medullary crest necrosis in dogs are the same disease.

A

t

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50
Q

Explain the difference between acute renal failure and chronic renal failure.

A

(1) ARF: Renal function is abruptly impaired such that ~75% of function is lost. ARF is potentially reversible but can rapidly cause death if untreated. (2) CRF: Renal function is progressively and irreversibly lost until failure occurs at ~75% of loss of function.

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51
Q

What information does an end-stage kidney provide about the original cause of the renal injury?

A

Very little to none. End-stage kidneys show changes that are not specific to an original disease or insult, but are common end-stage responses to many disease processes. At the time of diagnosis/necropsy the original inciting cause of disease is usually not evident and may never be known.

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52
Q

Describe the gross appearance of the kidney of a horse on long-term NSAIDs for lameness who has developed renal papillary necrosis.

A

There are discrete to coalescing areas of coagulative necrosis in the inner renal medulla. These appear greenish, and may also be accompanied by hemorrhage.

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53
Q

Name two conditions that commonly cause hemoglobinuric nephrosis in dogs.

A

(1) IMHA (immune-mediated hemolytic anemia). (2) Leptospirosis.

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54
Q

In which species of domestic animal is glomerulonephritis the most common cause of renal failure?

A

Dogs.

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55
Q

Name one dog breed that has a familial/hereditary/genetic predisposition to renal amyloidosis.

A

Shar Pei.

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56
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a dog and notice that both kidneys are very darkly stained and that the renal pelvic fat is yellow. This dog has a history of passing red-brown urine. What is the most likely cause of this?

A

Hemoglobinuric nephrosis due to intravascular hemolysis (several causes, including IMHA in dogs, copper toxicity in sheep, leptospirosis in cattle & dogs & red maple toxicosis in horses). Myoglobinuric nephrosis is less likely because it tends not to stain fat yellow.

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57
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of the hypercholesterolemia that may be seen in the nephrotic syndrome.

A

Loss of plasma proteins into urine –> liver responds by generalized increased protein production, and cholesterol production is also upregulated.

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58
Q

Proteinuria, although suggestive of glomerular disease, is not exclusively caused by glomerular disease. What else can cause proteinuria?

A

Inflammation of the lower urinary tract.

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59
Q

Which type of cell in the renal corpuscle is responsible for phagocytosis of deposited immune complexes?

A

Mesangial cell.

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60
Q

How are the basement membranes of the glomerular capillary tufts different from basement membranes elsewhere in the body?

A

The glomerular basement membrane is thick (300-350 nm). Its negative charge and collagen network impede the passage of large protein molecules, most importantly albumin and hemoglobin.

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61
Q

Describe the typical gross appearance of a kidney affected by amyloidosis.

A

Grossly, kidneys affected by amyloid deposition are diffusely tan, waxy (firm), friable and of normal size or slightly enlarged.

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62
Q

What clinicopathologic finding is the hallmark of glomerular disease?

A

Proteinuria.

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63
Q

Why is it deleterious to the glomerulus having immune complexes deposited in the glomerular basement membrane? Explain the pathogenesis.

A

Deposition in glomeruli –> Complement fixation –> Chemotaxis of neutrophils –> Release of harmful mediators of inflammation –> Continued damage by release of inflammatory mediators from monocytes in chronic stages. All this leads to thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. Paradoxically, this thickening makes the GBM “leaky” probably due to changes in charge and pore size.

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64
Q

How often is the specific cause of glomerulonephritis in domestic animals identified?

A

Rarely.

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65
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a foal and notice that both kidneys contain dozens to hundreds of randomly scattered pinpoint white foci. What is the most likely bacterial cause of this?

A

Actinobacillus equuli.

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66
Q

Name a condition that commonly causes hemoglobinuric nephrosis in horses.

A

Red maple toxicity.

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67
Q

What are the two major categories of immune complex deposition in the glomerular basement membrane and which is by far the more common in domestic animals?

A

(1) Deposition of circulating antibody-antigen complexes that have formed in response to a variety of chronic diseases. (2) Autoantibodies directed at the glomerular basement membrane. Cause number 1 is by far the most common in domestic animals.

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68
Q

Name a condition that commonly causes hemoglobinuric nephrosis in cattle.

A

Leptospirosis.

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69
Q

Which parts of the lily (leaves or flowers) are nephrotoxic to cats?

A

Both leaves and flowers are toxic.

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70
Q

How are the endothelial cells lining the glomerular capillary tufts different from endothelial cells elsewhere in the body?

A

Glomerular capillary endothelial cells have pores (fenestrations) in their cytoplasm that make them “leaky” (i.e., freely permeable to most blood constituents except red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets).

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71
Q

Give two reasons why renal tubules are preferentially damaged by circulating toxins.

A

[Any two] (1) The kidneys receive 25% of cardiac output, therefore a circulating toxin inevitably reaches the kidneys. (2) Substances are filtered by the glomerulus and concentrated in the renal tubules. (3) Renal tubular epithelial cells are metabolically active (especially proximal convoluted tubules) so these are damaged first.

72
Q

What is the most common cause of renal failure in dogs?

A

Immune-mediated glomerulonephritis.

73
Q

Draw a simple flowchart explaining the pathogenesis of renal ethylene glycol (antifreeze) toxicity.

A

Antifreeze ingested –> absorbed from gut –> metabolized in liver to various toxic metabolites –> filtered by glomeruli –> directly toxic to renal tubular epithelial cells –> calcium oxalate crystals precipitate in renal tubules –> tubular obstruction & mechanical damage to lining.

74
Q

What are the five major components of the nephrotic syndrome?

A

(1) Proteinuria.
(2) Hypoalbuminemia.
(3) Edema / ascites.
(4) Hypercholesterolemia.
(5) Hypercoagulability.

75
Q

You notice that a horse passes dark red-brown urine the day after an intense training session. What pigment is most likely responsible for this urine discoloration?

A

Myoglobin. This disease is exertional rhabdomyolysis or “Monday morning disease”.

76
Q

What is the most salient clinical sign of acute tubular necrosis?

A

Oliguria or anuria (i.e., scant or no urine production).

77
Q

Where, precisely, in the kidney is amyloid typically deposited in cats?

A

The renal medulla.

78
Q

What general condition is associated with pathologic deposition of amyloid in domestic animals?

A

Chronic inflammatory disease.

79
Q

Why is hemoglobin, which is not directly toxic to renal tubules, so commonly associated with acute tubular necrosis?

A

(1) If hemoglobin is released due to intravascular hemolysis then an animal becomes anemic and hypoxic. Renal tubules are very susceptible to hypoxic damage. (2) If hemoglobin is released due to intravascular hemolysis then it passes into the glomerular ultrafiltrate. Proximal tubules, which are already hypoxic due to anemia, then attempt to resorb this hemoglobin and are placed under an increased workload.

80
Q

What type of disease, in general terms, most commonly results in immune complex deposition in the GBM in domestic animals?

A

Chronic inflammatory diseases that produce a persistent antigenemia.

81
Q

Explain in simple terms the pathogenesis of glomerulonephritis in dogs.

A

Deposition of circulating antibody-antigen complexes in the glomerular basement membrane –> Complement fixation –> Chemotaxis of neutrophils –> Release of harmful mediators of inflammation –> Glomerular damage.

82
Q

What renal disease or lesion is the single most important cause of ACUTE renal failure?

A

Acute tubular necrosis (usually due to nephrotoxins or ischemia).

83
Q

In general terms, what three characteristics of a substance prevent it from crossing the glomerular filtration barrier?

A

(1) Large size. (2) Negative charge. (3) Being bound to carrier proteins.

84
Q

What is the syndrome that may result from chronic, severe proteinuria?

A

Nephrotic syndrome.

85
Q

Grapes and raisins are toxic to which organ in dogs?

A

Kidneys.

86
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of the hypercoagulability that may be seen in the nephrotic syndrome.

A

Loss of anticoagulant antithrombin III into urine –> hypercoagulability –> thrombus formation.

87
Q

Name a condition that commonly causes hemoglobinuric nephrosis in sheep.

A

Chronic copper toxicity.

88
Q

A captured wild moose is noted to be passing red-brown discolored urine. What pigment is most likely responsible for this discoloration and what is the pathogenesis for the condition?

A

Myoglobin. This is capture myopathy. Damage to muscle caused by capture and attempts at escape –> release of myoglobin –> filtered by glomerulus –> myoglobinuria.

89
Q

What are the three components of the glomerular filtration barrier?

A

(1) Glomerular capillary endothelial cells. (2) Glomerular basement membrane. (3) Podocytes / visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule.

90
Q

Name one cat breed that has a familial/hereditary/genetic predisposition to renal amyloidosis.

A

Abyssinian.

91
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a dog and notice that both kidneys are pale tan, waxy and friable. What is the most likely cause of this?

A

Amyloidosis.

92
Q

Name the toxin in grapes and raisins that is nephrotoxic in dogs.

A

Tartaric acid

93
Q

Name four conditions or classes of condition that could lead to renal ischemia and, hence, acute tubular necrosis,

A

[Any four] (1) Decreased cardiac output (many causes of this, including heart failure, cardiac tamponade, arrhythmia etc.). (2) Intravascular volume depletion (many causes including dehydration, vomiting, blood loss etc.). (3) NSAID-induced interference with renal autoregulation during hypotension. (4) Altered renal and systemic vascular resistance (many causes, including hypothermia, anaphylaxis, sepsis, heatstroke). (5) Increased blood viscosity (e.g., polycythemia, multiple myeloma)

94
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of the ascites that may be seen in the nephrotic syndrome.

A

Loss of plasma proteins into urine –> decreased plasma oncotic pressure –> movement of fluid from circulation to interstitial space and body cavities.

95
Q

Lilies are toxic to which organ in cats?

A

Kidneys.

96
Q

Draw a simple flowchart explaining the pathogenesis of hemoglobinuric nephrosis.

A

There are two pathways, each beginning with intravascular hemolysis and ending in acute tubular necrosis. (1) Intravascular hemolysis –> Hypovolemia / Anemia / Hypoxia –> Tubular ischemia –> Acute tubular necrosis. (2) Intravascular hemolysis –> Hemoglobinemia –> Hemoglobin crosses into ultrafiltrate –> Increased demand on proximal tubules (resorption) –> Tubular ischemia –> Acute tubular necrosis.

97
Q

Explain how chronic heartworm infection in a dog may lead to glomerular disease.

A

Heartworm infection –> Chronic antigenemia –> formation of circulating antigen-antibody complexes (immune complexes) –> Deposition in glomerular basement membrane –> Complement fixation –> Chemotaxis of neutrophils –> Release of harmful mediators of inflammation –> Glomerular damage.

98
Q

What, in general terms, may give rise to the nephrotic syndrome?

A

Severe, chronic proteinuria due to glomerular disease.

99
Q

Explain how a chronic suppurative uterine infection (pyometra) in a dog may lead to glomerular disease.

A

Pyometra –> Chronic antigenemia –> formation of circulating antigen-antibody complexes (immune complexes) –> Deposition in glomerular basement membrane –> Complement fixation –> Chemotaxis of neutrophils –> Release of harmful mediators of inflammation –> Glomerular damage.

100
Q

Name the nephrotoxic compound that should be used to make plastic dinnerware instead of artificially bolstering the measured protein content of baby formula and pet food.

A

Melamine.

101
Q

Which type of amyloidosis (primary or secondary) most commonly leads to renal disease in domestic animals?

A

Secondary amyloidosis (reactive systemic amyloidosis) is the most common form of amyloidosis in animals. It is a complication of chronic inflammatory disease. The amyloid is derived from an acute phase protein synthesized by the liver in response to inflammation. [Primary amyloidosis is caused by immune dyscrasias and neoplasms. The amyloid is derived from excessive secretion of immunoglobulins, usually by a plasma cell neoplasm. Primary amyloidosis is rare in domestic animals.]

102
Q

What are the two major non-infectious categories of insult that can cause renal tubular necrosis?

A

(1) Toxins. (2) Ischemia.

103
Q

Where, precisely, in the kidney is amyloid typically deposited in dogs?

A

Glomeruli (except in the familial form in Shar Pei dogs).

104
Q

Name the organism that causes leptospirosis.

A

Leptospirosis is caused by the spirochete bacterium Leptospira interrogans.

105
Q

Which two serovars of Leptospira interrogans most commonly infect dogs?

A

(1) Leptospira interrogans serovar canicola. (2) Leptospira interrogans serovar icterohaemorrhagiae.

106
Q

What specific type of nephritis is associated with leptospirosis?

A

Tubulointerstitial nephritis / Interstitial nephritis (both terms OK).

107
Q

Approximately how many serovars of Leptospira interrogans are known?

A

~200.

108
Q

Which species are affected by leptospirosis?

A

Domestic & wild animals and humans all susceptible to infection.

109
Q

How is leptospirosis transmitted between animals?

A

Leptospires shed in urine of infected animal –> infect new animal via breaches in mucous membranes.

110
Q

Where do leptospiral organisms preferentially localize?

A

In renal tubular epithelial cells.

111
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity to leptospira antigens may be associated with which ocular condition in horses?

A

Equine recurrent uveitis (“moon blindness” or periodic ophthalmia).

112
Q

Which organism most commonly causes “white spotted kidney” in calves?

A

E. coli.

113
Q

“White spotted kidney” in calves is most commonly caused by E. coli. How does it reach the kidney, and what is the characteristic gross lesion of this disease?

A

(1) By embolic showering of the kidney. (2) Numerous pale-yellow to white 2 to 5-mm diameter nodules (foci of inflammatory cells) are scattered randomly throughout and over the surface of the kidney.

114
Q

“White spotted kidney” in calves is most commonly caused by E. coli. What are two other bacterial genera that may cause this disease?

A

Brucella and Salmonella.

115
Q

Which types of inflammatory cells form renal nodules in “white-spotted kidney” disease of calves?

A

Lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages.

116
Q

What is the most common cause by far of granulomatous nephritis in cats?

A

Mutant feline enteric coronavirus (feline infectious peritonitis is OK as an answer too).

117
Q

Describe the characteristic appearance of the kidney of a cat that has died of FIP.

A

Numerous randomly scattered to coalescing white to gray plaques (granulomas) cover the renal capsule and extend into the cortex. Often lesions on the capsular surface follow along blood vessels.

118
Q

What does “FIP” stand for?

A

Feline infectious peritonitis.

119
Q

What causes FIP?

A

Mutant feline enteric coronavirus.

120
Q

What is the key histologic lesion caused by FIP?

A

Granulomatous vasculitis.

121
Q

Which types of cells comprise the inflammatory infiltrates in granulomatous inflammation?

A

Macrophages mainly, although lymphocytes and plasma cells are also present.

122
Q

Any bacterial species that can produce a bacteremia may shower the kidney causing an embolic nephritis. However, certain bacterial species are typically responsible in different species of animal. I have only asked you to memorize two bacterial species, both of which shower the kidneys to produce hundreds of randomly scattered, predominantly cortical, white nodules. What are these two bacterial species, and which domestic animal species do they affect?

A

(1) E. coli in calves. (2) Actinobacillus equuli in foals.

123
Q

What is the correct term for inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidney?

A

Pyelonephritis (NOT pyonephritis). PyELo, not Pyo!

124
Q

How do cases of pyelonephritis typically begin?

A

Pyelonephritis usually begins as an ascending bacterial infection of the urinary tract. Ascending infections typically result from a combination of urinary bladder infection, vesicoureteral reflux, and intrarenal reflux.

125
Q

What are the two most common bacterial causes of pyelonephritis in cattle?

A

(1) Corynebacterium renale. (2) Arcanobacterium pyogenes*. [Note that Arcanobacterium pyogenes recently changed name to Trueperella pyogenes. Most textbooks still use the old name and you need to know it.]

126
Q

Why are females more prone than males to development of pyelonephritis?

A

Females’ shorter urethras predispose to bacterial infection of the lower urinary tract.

127
Q

Describe the characteristic gross lesions of pyelonephritis.

A

The renal pelvis contains suppurative exudate and the inner medulla is damaged. This damage may radiate into the outer medulla and cortex.

128
Q

What is the term for complete failure of a kidney to develop?

A

Renal aplasia.

129
Q

What is the term for the condition in which fewer nephrons than normal develop in a kidney?

A

Renal hypoplasia.

130
Q

Ectopic kidneys are typically structurally and functionally normal. Nevertheless, they may be associated with urinary tract disease. Why?

A

They frequently have malpositioned ureters, which can cause urinary tract disease.

131
Q

What is the lay-term for kidneys in which the left and right cranial poles are fused?

A

“Horseshoe kidneys”.

132
Q

Explain, in broad histologic terms, the difference between renal hypoplasia and renal dysplasia.

A

(1) Renal hypoplasia: fewer nephrons than normal are present in one or both kidneys. (2) Renal dysplasia: The microscopic architecture of the kidney is not correctly developed.

133
Q

What is the typical gross appearance of a dysplastic kidney?

A

Dysplastic kidneys are usually small and misshapen.

134
Q

Although dysplastic kidneys may retain some normal function they commonly go on to develop what lesions?

A

(1) Cysts. (2) Fibrosis.

135
Q

What is a simple summary of the disease canine progressive juvenile nephropathy?

A

Severe, progressive, bilateral renal fibrosis in young dogs with an unknown cause but a familial/breed tendency.

136
Q

Name the disease that causes severe, progressive, bilateral renal fibrosis in young dogs.

A

Progressive juvenile nephropathy.

137
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a 6 month old cocker spaniel and note severe, bilateral renal fibrosis. In addition to other renal diseases, which familial disease should be high on your differential list?

A

Progressive juvenile nephropathy.

138
Q

Dogs affected with progressive juvenile nephropathy are typically in what age range?

A

4-24 months old.

139
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a 6 month old dog and note that one kidney is grossly normal and one is shrunken, pale and multinodular. Which of the following potential causes is the LEAST likely? (a) Progressive juvenile nephropathy; (b) renal dysplasia; (c) renal fibrosis resulting from some other renal disease that developed at an early age.

A

(a) Progressive juvenile nephropathy, because this affects both kidneys.

140
Q

Name three (non-renal) organs commonly affected with cysts in polycystic kidney disease.

A

(1) Liver. (2) Biliary system. (3) Pancreas.

141
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a newborn calf and note a 1 cm diameter fluid-filled renal cortical cyst. True or false: this calf likely has polycystic kidney disease. Justify and explain your choice of answer.

A

False. PKD causes multiple cysts. This single cyst is likely just a congenital simple cyst, a common and incidental finding in calves.

142
Q

What is the typical gross appearance of a kidney with polycystic kidney disease?

A

The normal renal parenchyma contains / is replaced by numerous variably-sized, closely-packed, thin-walled fluid-filled cysts. [Just saying “Swiss cheese” isn’t enough.]

143
Q

Name three breeds of small animal commonly affected by polycystic kidney disease.

A

(1) West highland white terriers. (2) Bull terriers. (3) Persian cats.

144
Q

True or false: Severe polycystic kidney disease, although dramatic-looking, is rarely associated with clinical signs.

A

False. It can lead to renal failure.

145
Q

How do acquired renal cysts form?

A

Scarring occurs for some reason in the kidney –> Multifocal nephron blockage, with tubules “choked off” by fibrosis –> Fluid accumulation –> Tubular or urinary space dilation –> cysts.

146
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of hydronephrosis.

A

Obstruction of urinary outflow from kidney (ureteral or urethral blockage caused by calculi, chronic inflammation, neoplasia or neurogenic functional disorders) –> Accumulation of urine in renal pelvis (due to persistence of glomerular filtration in face of obstruction) –> (1) Papillary necrosis and (2) cortical atrophy [–>] Eventual reduction of the kidney to a fluid-filled, thin-walled shell.

147
Q

What kind of conditions can result in hydronephrosis?

A

[Ureteral or urethral blockage caused by …] (1) Calculi. (2) Chronic inflammation and fibrosis. (3) Neoplasia. (4) Neurogenic functional disorders.

148
Q

True or false: primary renal neoplasms, although rare, are typically benign

A

False. They are often highly malignant, quick to metastasize and associated with poor survival time.

149
Q

True or false: the most common secondary (metastatic) renal neoplasm is lymphosarcoma.

A

True.

150
Q

Name the most common malignant primary renal neoplasm.

A

Renal (adeno)carcinoma.

151
Q

Name the renal neoplasm that is sometimes seen as an incidental finding at slaughter in pigs and chickens.

A

Nephroblastoma.

152
Q

In which two species of domestic animal is renal lymphosarcoma most common?

A

(1) Cattle. (2) Cats.

153
Q

Do you need another reminder that lymphoma and lymphosarcoma are the same disease?

A

No.

154
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a cat and note numerous variably-sized (up to 8 mm diameter) discrete to confluent white renal cortical nodules. What are your top two likely diagnoses?

A

(1) Feline infections peritonitis. (2) Lymphoma.

155
Q

What type of epithelium lines the bulk of the lower urinary tract?

A

Transitional epithelium / Urothelium

156
Q

Which species of domestic animal has mucoid urine?

A

Horse.

157
Q

What is the most common developmental disorder of the ureters?

A

Ectopic ureters.

158
Q

What is the primary presenting clinical complaint in an animal with ectopic ureters?

A

Dribbling urine.

159
Q

True or false: females are more predisposed than males to ectopic ureters.

A

True.

160
Q

Which breed of dog is predisposed to ectopic ureters?

A

Siberian husky.

161
Q

The primary complaint by the owner of a dog with an ectopic ureter is “leaking.” What other, more serious conditions do ectopic ureters lead to?

A

(1) Urinary tract obstruction. (2) Urinary tract infection.

162
Q

You are presented with a 3 day old foal who has urine dribbling from his umbilicus and severe urine scalding on the ventral abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Patent (persistent) urachus.

163
Q

What is the most common developmental disorder of the urinary bladder?

A

Patent (persistent) urachus.

164
Q

True or false: the most common site for development of calculi is the urethra.

A

False. The urethra is the most common site for lodging of calculi, but not formation. The ureter is the most common site for development of calculi, followed by the bladder.

165
Q

True or false: the term calculus refers to crystals within urine while the term urolith is reserved for grossly visible concretions in the urinary passages.

A

False. The terms calculus and urolith are synonyms.

166
Q

True or false: crystalluria inevitably leads to urolithiasis.

A

False. Horses, for example, frequently have calcium carbonate crystalluria but calculi are relatively rare in this species.

167
Q

Urolithiasis may lead to obstruction of the urinary tract. Is this more common in males or females? Justify and explain your answer.

A

More common in males due to (1) a longer urethra and (2) certain species-dependent bottlenecks: the sigmoid flexure in cattle, the os penis in dogs and cats and the urethral process in small ruminants.

168
Q

Name two common causes (i.e., chemical composition) of urolithiasis in dogs and cats.

A

(1) Struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate hexahydrate, AKA triple phosphate). (2) Oxalate.

169
Q

What is the chemical that comprises “struvite”?

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate hexahydrate, AKA triple phosphate

170
Q

What type of calculus is common in pastured ruminants?

A

Silica.

171
Q

Describe the typical gross appearance of the mucosa of a bladder with chronic cystitis.

A

The mucosal surface of the bladder may be hyperemic, hemorrhagic or ulcerated. Often numerous small raised red mucosal nodules are present (these are hyperplastic lymphoid nodules surrounded by hyperemia and hemorrhage). The bladder wall may be thickened.

172
Q

What do these three have in common: (a) bracken fern; (b) cyclophosphamide; (c) cantharidin toxin in blister beetles?

A

All three are causes of toxic cystitis. [Bracken fern in cattle; Cyclophosphamide in dogs; Blister beetles in horses].

173
Q

What is enzootic hematuria, in which species is this condition seen, and what is the cause?

A

Enzootic hematuria is a disease of cattle in which chronic bracken fern ingestion leads to hematuria, cystitis and (sometimes) bladder neoplasia.

174
Q

What urinary tract lesion may be induced by cyclophosphamide use in dogs?

A

Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis.

175
Q

What plant may cause urinary bladder neoplasia in cattle?

A

Bracken fern.

176
Q

What is the connection between a horse eating hay that contains dead beetles and the horse developing severe hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

If the beetles are blister beetles, which contain the toxin cantharidin, the toxin can lead to hemorrhage and necrosis of multiple epithelial surfaces, including that of the bladder.

177
Q

What is the most common neoplasm of the canine bladder?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma.