urinalysis (done) Flashcards

1
Q

define micurate

(1 mark)

A

to urinate

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2
Q

define polyuria

(1 mark)

A

excessive production of urine

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3
Q

define oliguria

(1 mark)

A

reduced urine output

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4
Q

define anuria

(1 mark)

A

complete suppression of urine production

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5
Q

define dysuria / stranguria

(1 mark)

A

painful / difficult urination

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6
Q

define proteinuria

(1 mark)

A

protein in the urine

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7
Q

define urolithiasis

(1 mark)

A

uroliths / urinary crystals present

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8
Q

define haematuria

(1 mark)

A

blood in the urine

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9
Q

define glucosuria

(1 mark)

A

glucose in the urine

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10
Q

why might a urine exam be performed?

(1 mark)

A

assess kidney function, behaviour changes in the animal

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11
Q

what diseases can urinalysis help diagnose?

(5 marks)

A
  • kidney disease
  • liver disease
  • FLV
  • uroliths
  • diabetes insipidus / mellitus
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12
Q

patient prep for urine sample?

(5 marks)

A
  • ask owner to obtain morning sample as more conc
  • obtain sample without meds if poss
  • ask when last had meds
  • obtain sample before IVFT
  • prep owner for transportation + storgae - give them container
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13
Q

sample collection methods?

(4 marks)

A
  • natural urination (free catch / litter tray)
  • manual expression
  • catheterisation
  • cytocentesis
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14
Q

equipment needed for natural urination collection?

(5 marks)

A
  • gloves
  • commercial, sterile urine collection kit
  • clean, sterilised litter pan
  • commercial, sterile, non-absorbale cat litter
  • steril universal container
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15
Q

advanatges of free catch?

(5 marks)

A
  • non-traumatic
  • quick + easy
  • cheap
  • non-invasice
  • client can obtain sample if given correct instructions
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16
Q

disadvantages of free catch?

(5 marks)

A
  • poor patient compliance
  • mid stream sample different in female dogs
  • sample contamination (non-sterile)
  • only small amount urine passed may result in insufficent sample obtained (male)
  • cat litter may become contaminated if cat defecates
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17
Q

equipment for manual expression?

(4 marks)

A
  • gloves
  • patient restraint
  • commercial, sterile urine collection kit
  • sterile universal container
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18
Q

how to perform manual expression?

(3 marks)

A
  • isolate bladder
  • gentle pressure (with one / both hands)
  • squeeze cranial to caudal
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19
Q

advantages of manual expression?

(4 marks)

A
  • relativey simple method of urine collection in unconcious patient
  • minimal trauma if patient relax
  • non-invasive
  • cheap if no sedation required
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20
Q

disadvantages of manual expression?

(5 marks)

A
  • non-sterile sample will be obtained
  • can be difficult to isolate bladder id insufficient urine / large abdo
  • strong resistance in some concious patients
  • risk of bladder rupture if undue pressure exerted / urethral blockage present
  • can be distressing for patient
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21
Q

equipment needed for urinary catheterisation?

(8 marks)

A
  • sterile gloves
  • assistant to restrain patient
  • sterile 10-20ml syringe
  • sterile water soluble lubricant
  • adequately sized urinary catheter
  • sedative may be required
  • sterile container
  • speculum for female dogs
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22
Q

how to perform urinary catheterisation in male dog?

(6 marks)

A
  • clip + prep prepuce
  • assistant pull back sheath + restrain dog
  • cut packaging to keep catheter steile when advancing
  • needs lubricant
  • check for urine flush back
  • collect sample / flush bladder if needed
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23
Q

how to perform urinary catheterisation in male cat

(7 marks)

A
  • sedation / GA required
  • clip + prep prepuce
  • assistant pull back sheath
  • cut packaging to keep catheter steile when advancing
  • needs lubricant
  • check for urine flush back
  • collect sample / flush bladder if needed
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24
Q

advantages of urinary catheterisation?

(3 marks)

A
  • bladder doesnt have to be distended to sample
  • quick + easy in males
  • other tests may be carried out on bladder at same time (e.g. radiograph contrast study)
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25
Q

disadvantages of urinary catheterisation?

(5 marks)

A
  • causes discomfort to patient - commonly GA patient
  • skilled technique more difficult in female
  • risk of urological infection
  • risk of urethral / bladder wall damage
  • contamination of sample still occur even with aspectic prep of external genital area
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26
Q

what is cytocentesis?

(2 marks)

A
  • gold standard for sterile sampling
  • aseptic introduction of needle through abdomen wall into bladder
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27
Q

equipment needed for cytocentesis?

(7 marks)

A
  • electric clippers
  • detergant scrub
  • surgical spirit
  • sterile gloves
  • sterile hypodermic needle
  • sterile 10ml syringe
  • sterile container
28
Q

advantages of cystocentesis?

(6 marks)

A
  • quick
  • inexpensive, if no sedation
  • sterile sample
  • no urethral contamination
  • infection uncommon
  • preffered method for bacterial culture
29
Q

disadvantages of cysocentesis?

(5 marks)

A
  • stressful + painful for patient
  • sedation / GA may be required
  • skilled technique, training required
  • risk of internal damage of bladder / other organs
  • can result in false positive for haematuria
30
Q

urine collection + storage?

(4 marks)

A
  • avoid collection without secure lid
  • ensure sterile container
  • refridgerate 4-8 degrees for 6h
  • can freeze but damages cells - still okay for chemical testing
31
Q

what are the urine preservatives?

(and what urinalysis test it is used for?)

(8 marks)

A
  • boric acid - culture (freezes bacteria)
  • tolulene - chemistry
  • formaline 10% - cytology
  • thymol - chemistry - tablet that maintains chemistry base
31
Q

how soon after collection should urine be tested?

(2 marks)

A

40-60 mins
if left grows bacteria not present in urine + can form struvite crystals

31
Q

which methods of examination can be done once sample obtained?

(3 marks)

A
  1. physcial properties
  2. chemical properties
  3. microscopic properties
32
Q

what are the physcial properties of urine?

(5 marks)

A
  • colour
  • odour
  • turbitidy
  • pH
  • specific gravity
33
Q

normal colour of healthy cat / dog / rabbit / hamsters?

(5 marks)

A
  • dog - pale yellow
  • cat - pale yellow
  • (dictated by sex + diet - males have more conc than female and dry diet more conc)
  • rabbits - red due to beta-carotene in diet
  • hamsters - cloudy
34
Q

what pink / red / reddish brown urine colour indicates?

(1 mark)

A

prescence of intact RBCs / haemoglobin / myoglobin (uncommon)

35
Q

what orange urine colour indicates?

(1 mark)

A

bile pigmenets / bilirubin present

36
Q

what dark brown - black urine colour indicates?

(1 mark)

A

conversion of haemoglobin to methamoglobin in acidic urine myoglobinuria - paracetamol toxicity

37
Q

what yellow / brown - green / brown urine colour indicates ?

(1 mark)

A

concentrated sample, pseudomonas infection

38
Q

what green / green-blue urine colour indicates?

(1 mark)

A

methylene blue treatment

39
Q

define turbitidy

(1 mark)

A

urine contaminated with ‘stuff’ - causes cloudy appearance

40
Q

what may cause normal urine to become turbid?

(1 mark)

A

due to phosphate precipitates

41
Q

what may a turbid sample indicate?

(5 marks)

A

the presence of:
* crystals
* pus
* mucus threads
* excessive WBCs / RBCs
* prostatic / vaginal secretions

42
Q

odour of normal urine?

(1 mark)

A

slightly sour, ammonia-like odour

43
Q

what odour of urine may indicate?

(3 marks)

A
  • male - stronger smelling
  • pungent ammonia in fresh urine - bacteria
  • uncontrolled diabetes mellitus - sweet + fruity urine - prescence of ketones
44
Q

define specific gravity

(1 mark)

A

density / weight of water of a fluid compared to an equal vol of distilled water

45
Q

SG reference ranges for dogs and cats?

(2 marks)

A
  • dog = 1.050-1.045
  • cat = 1.020-1.050
46
Q

what non clinical factors may cause an animal to have a higher / lower SG?

(2 marks)

A
  • dry diet - slightly higher than wet
  • IVFT / high water intake - low SG
47
Q

what does urine dipstisk test for?

(10 marks)

A
  • glucose
  • bilirubin
  • ketones
  • SG
  • blood
  • pH
  • protein
  • urobillinogen
  • nitrate
  • leukocytes
48
Q

glucose on dipstick test?

(3 marks)

A
  • small amount present in urine - insufficient to be detected
  • usually inidcates overload but can indicate tubular dysfunction
  • can see false negatives on cold samples
49
Q

bilirubin on dipstick test?

(2 marks)

A
  • dogs (usually male) have small amount bilirubin present
  • info on liver - particularly cholestasis
50
Q

ketones on dipstick test?

(4 marks)

A
  • indicated production of excess ketones as result of negative energy balance
  • false negatives with delayed testing, interference by other chemicals / drugs
  • not usually seen in urine
  • positives associated with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, hyperthyroidism etc
51
Q

SG on dipstick test?

(2 marks)

A
  • measures conc abilities of kidneys
  • can be incorrect check with refractometer
52
Q

blood on dipstick test?

(2 marks)

A
  • false negatives if RBCs settles out
  • positives can result from haematuria, haemoglobinuria, yoglobinuria - prescence of these is abnormal
53
Q

pH on dipstick test?

(3 marks)

A
  • not very accurate
  • tells us how kidneys respond to acid-base disturbances / dealing with the normal acid load produced from amino acid metabolism
  • avoid contamination of this pad from protein pad
54
Q

protein on dipstick test?

(3 marks)

A
  • not usually present in urine
  • false positives not uncommon - can be due to alkaline urine
  • better test is creatine ratio test
55
Q

urobilinogen on dipstick test?

(3 marks)

A
  • metabolite of bilirubin
  • not useful in small animals as often false negatives + positives freq occur
  • abscence of it cannot be detected on dry reagent strip
56
Q

nitrate on dipstick test?

(3 marks)

A
  • not found in urine
  • can also be produced by some bacteria
  • not useful in small animals
57
Q

leukocytes on dipstick test?

(4 marks)

A
  • can see false negatives in dogs
  • false positives in cats
  • shows pyuria but doesnt measure conc of leukocytes in sample
  • primarily detects neutrophils
58
Q

microscopic components of urine?

(8 marks)

A
  • crystals
  • cells
  • spermatazoa
  • bacteria, fungi + yeast
  • casts
  • parasites
  • fat droplets
  • artefacts
59
Q

clinical conditions that can influence crystal production?

(5 marks)

A
  • genertic predisposition
  • bacterial infection
  • diet
  • concurrent illnesses
  • medication
60
Q

what are casts?

(6 marks)

A
  • = short, cylindrical structures with parallel sides and tapered ends
  • predominantely composed of protein secreted by epithelial cells lining the renal tubules
  • cells naturally shed over course of animal life
  • apperance of one / two per low power field considered normal
  • excessive no. may indicate renal disease process
  • waxy or granual - depend where is shed
61
Q

info of fat droplets (lypurea)?

(4 marks)

A
  • commonly seen _ vary in size
  • fat cells float up under cover slip to different plane of focus to other cells
  • can occur as artefact due to catheter lubrication.
  • prescence may indicate diabetes mellitus, obesity and hypothyroidism
62
Q

when may an artefact contaminate the urine?

(1 mark)

A

during collection, transportation or examination of the sample

63
Q

what could appear as an artefact?

(5 marks)

A
  • hair
  • bubble
  • crystals
  • dirt
  • grass