diagnostic equipment (done) Flashcards

1
Q

diagnostic lab equipment?

(12 marks)

A
  • compound light microscope
  • centrifudge / stat spin
  • micro-haemocrit spin
  • biochemistry analyser
  • haematology analyser
  • blood gas +/ electolyte machine
  • snappro analyser
  • point of care test kits
  • refractometer
  • hawksley reader / PCV reader
  • incubator
  • fridge
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2
Q

what is a compound light microscope?

(2 marks)

A

essential piece of lab equipment that commonly used for disease diagnosis
uses lenses and light to magnify the image to allow visualisation and identification.

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3
Q

info of compound microscopes?

(2 marks)

A
  • can have one (monocular) or two (binocular) eye pieces
  • commonly 3-4 objective lenses allowing varying degrees of image magnification
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4
Q

types and use of objective lenses?

(12 marks)

A
  • x4 - main scanning lens. allows detailed visualisation of macroscopic objects + overall scanning of the slide
  • x10 - low power objective. used for locating area of interest
  • x40 - high power. dry lens used for more detailed focusing
  • x100 - oil immersion. powerful lens which uses refracted through an oil layer rather than through air
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5
Q

slide examination techniques?

(2 marks)

A
  • battlement technique
  • vernier scale
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6
Q

how is battlement technique carried out?

(slide examination technique)

(2 marks)

A
  • slide examined systematically to ensure all of the slide is covered + to prevent double counting of cells.
  • two fields up, two fields along and two fields down
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7
Q

how is vernier scale technique carried out?

(slide examination technique)

(2 marks)

A
  • plate is divided into 10 divisions
  • record co-ordinates of object using both X and Y readings
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8
Q

use of a centrifuge?

(2 marks)

A
  • spins a substance at high speed using centrifugal force to seperate fluid portion (supernatant) from soild portion (sediment)
  • electric motor rotates at high speed around a fixed axis applying perpendicular force to axis
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9
Q

what are the 2 types of centrifuge?

(2 marks)

A
  1. swining arm
  2. angled head
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10
Q

how does swinging arm centrifuge work?

(3 marks)

A
  • movable specimen cups that are suspended vertically from arms
  • as rotor increases cups swing out into horizontal position
  • results in supernatant that is uniformly distributed therefore easy to remove
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11
Q

limitation of arm swinging centrifuge?

(1 mark)

A

heat build up at high speeds - damage sample

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12
Q

what is the optimum temperature control for fluid seperation?

(1 mark)

A

4 degrees C

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13
Q

info of angled head centrifuge?

(tube position, + and -)

(3 marks)

A
  • tubes positioned 25-40 degree angle
  • supernatant collects at an angle so more difficult collection
  • higher speeds can be achieved
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14
Q

info of microhaematocrit centrifuge?

(5 marks)

A
  • flat horizontal surface with slots for capillary tubes
  • rubber cushions are positioned at the outer edge of plate to prevent breakage
  • safety plate screwed down on top of tubes to firmly hold in place
  • plate can often be removed and replaced with standard horizontal buckets for multi-use
  • specifically used for separating blood cells from plasma e.g. PCV
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15
Q

centrifuge health and safety?

(7 marks)

A
  • placed on flat, sturdy surface
  • balance centrifuge - place substance opposite with similar density
  • never lift lid when in use
  • ensure safety lid secure before spinning
  • clean away spillages and breaks immediately, using correct protocols
  • service regularly to ensure quality control
  • clean and disinfect at end of each day use
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16
Q

use of incubators?

(1 mark)

A

incubation of sample for bacterial culture

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17
Q

info of incubator?

(7 marks)

A
  • double walled metal container with insulation material (e.g. fibreglass) between
  • double insulated doors: inner glass and outer metal allow contents of incubator to be veiwed without heat loss from cabinet
  • electrical heating element inside cabinet (25-100 degree C, usually maintained at 37)
  • wire shelves allow air circulation
  • thermostat, and internal thermometer
  • plates placed lid side down on wire shelves to reduce condensation on agar surface
  • require annual servicing and daily cleaning
18
Q

use of bunsen burner?

(3 marks)

A
  • during prep of agar plate for bacterial culture (loop sterilisation)
  • fixing bacteria on microscope slide prior to staining
  • heating liquid in glass beaker
19
Q

bunsen burner health and safety?

(7 marks)

A
  • long hair tied up
  • wear goggles at all times
  • ensure ventilation hole closed prior to lighting
  • always turn flame to orange safety when not in use by closing air hole
  • blue flames only used for direct heating
  • location of emergancy switch noted to turn gas supply off if needed
  • servied annually
20
Q

define refraction

(1 mark)

A

= change of velocity and resulting bending of light as it passes from one medium to another with different optical density (e.g. air into urine).

21
Q

what is a refractometer?

(1 mark)

A

cylindrical instrument with prism and calibration scale

22
Q

use of a refractometer?

(2 marks)

A
  • measures SG of urine and other fluids
  • measures protein conc of plasma and other fluids
23
Q

info of refractometer?

(how to use, info and advantages)

(4 marks)

A
  • MUST be calibrated before every use using distilled water
  • reading gtaken on granulated SG scale at blue/white line interface
  • units are temperature compensated therefore temp fluctuations unlikly to affect results
  • precise, accurate, durable, easy to use, cheap to buy and only small volume of sample required to achive result
24
Q

advantages of glucometer?

(4 marks)

A
  • fasts, reliable and accurate method of blood glucose level exam
  • small drop sample required
  • minimal trauma for patient
  • allows regular + accurate blood glucose measurements
25
Q

how to calibrate glucometer?

(2 marks)

A
  • use control solution
  • check ranges of calibration on vial match result machine reads.
26
Q

how to use glucometer?

(4 marks)

A
  • read test strip bottle as shows code that links monitor and reference ranges
  • place test strip in monitor and check code match
  • place monitor to small blep of blood until beep is heard
  • number shown is glucose reading
27
Q

what are commercial test kits?

(1 mark)

A

in house serology test kits

28
Q

use of commercial test kits?

(1 mark)

A

test for infectious disease agent and antibodies, hormones and immunoglobulin levels

29
Q

advantages of commercial test kits?

(2 marks)

A

reliable and easy to use
give immediate results

30
Q

most common type of commerical test kits?

(2 marks)

A
  • ELISA test which are microwell / membrane based
  • immunomigration and agglutination tests also available
31
Q

kits most commonly used in practice?

(11 marks)

A
  • enzyme linked immunmosorbent assay test (ELISA)
    SNAP tests:
  • 4Dx plus test
  • heartworm RT test
  • cPL test (canine pancreatitis lipase)
  • giardia
  • parvo
  • lepto
  • feline triple test
  • FIV/FeLV combo test
  • fPL
  • feline pro BNP
32
Q

what does ELISA stand for?

(1 mark)

A

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay

33
Q

how do ELISA test kits work?

(4 marks)

A
  • impregnated with appropriate antibodies for specific antigen, depending on disease being tested for
  • antibodies within the test well bind to viral antigen present in sample
  • dye is activated resulting in colour change within test well (indicate ++ result) - attaching fluorescent compound to its target antibody / antigen and observe reaction under UV light
34
Q

use of cite, combi and snap tests?

(4 marks)

A
  • detect presence of viral antibody / antigen
  • high specificity + sensitivity associated with these tests reducing risk of inaccurate results
  • direct ELISA employs antibodies to detect presence of particular antigen in sample
  • indirect ELISA determine presence of particular antibody in specimen
35
Q

why may false positives occur?

(2 marks)

A
  • animals recently vaccinated with live virus - carry viral antibodies without carrying virus
  • false FIV positives can occur in kittens as can have antibodies passed from infected mother
36
Q

why may false negative occur?

(1 mark)

A

only recently exposed - incubation period can be few months in some cases

37
Q

positive test results for FeLV should be supported with what?

(1 mark)

A

immunofluorescent antibody assay

38
Q

what do other commercial test kits test for?

(4 marks)

A
  • hormone levels
  • allergic conditions
  • blood clotting disorders
  • urinalysis
39
Q

what is urine dipstick?

(and what is it used for?)

(2 marks)

A

urinalysis reagent strips that test urine biochemistry

40
Q

urine dipstick errors?

(5 marks)

A
  • inaccurate results if test strips pass expiry date / patient recieved drug therapy
  • designed to measure human urine parameters
  • sample not fresh - sample contamination and breakdown of chemistry within
  • exposure to sunlight will oxidize bilirubin and urobilinogen - false low readings
  • erroneous reading for blood and gluocse if disinfectants present in sample container