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1
Q
  1. Observing a patient’s general appearance and demeanor can give hints about:
a) Their favorite food.
b) Their education.
c) Their health.
d) Their hobbies.
A

c) Their health.

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2
Q
  1. If a patient adopts the tripod position, it might indicate:
a) Marfan’s Syndrome.
b) COPD or pericarditis.
c) Holt Oram Syndrome.
d) Down’s Syndrome.
A

b) COPD or pericarditis.

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3
Q
  1. Chest deformity in a patient might suggest:
a) An orthopedic issue.
b) A pulmonary origin.
c) Marfan’s Syndrome.
d) Holt Oram Syndrome.
A

b) A pulmonary origin.

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4
Q
  1. Emaciation in a patient can suggest:
a) A recent surgery.
b) Excessive exercise.
c) Long-standing heart failure or cancer.
d) Recent weight loss program.
A

c) Long-standing heart failure or cancer.

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5
Q
  1. Which genetic syndrome is associated with long limbs, tall stature, and skeletal deformities?
a) Holt Oram Syndrome.
b) Down’s Syndrome.
c) Marfan’s Syndrome.
d) COPD.
A

c) Marfan’s Syndrome.

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6
Q
  1. Trisomy 21 is also known as:
a) Holt Oram Syndrome.
b) Marfan’s Syndrome.
c) Down’s Syndrome.
d) Pulmonary Syndrome.
A

c) Down’s Syndrome.

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7
Q
  1. Most patients with genetic syndromes often have associated:
a) Breathing problems.
b) Congenital heart diseases.
c) Skeletal deformities.
d) Eye conditions.
A

b) Congenital heart diseases.

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8
Q
  1. Holt Oram Syndrome is also known as:
a) Pulmonary Limb Syndrome.
b) Cardiac Limb Syndrome.
c) Genetic Limb Syndrome.
d) Marfan Limb Syndrome.
A

b) Cardiac Limb Syndrome.

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9
Q
  1. In Holt Oram Syndrome, which side is typically more affected?
a) Right side.
b) Left side.
c) Both sides equally.
d) Neither side.
A

b) Left side.

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a cardiac feature of Holt Oram Syndrome?
a) ASD.
b) VSD.
c) Arrhythmias.
d) Aortic aneurysms.
A

d) Aortic aneurysms.

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11
Q
  1. Which syndrome can lead to complications like aortic aneurysms?
a) Down’s Syndrome.
b) Holt Oram Syndrome.
c) Marfan’s Syndrome.
d) COPD.
A

c) Marfan’s Syndrome.

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12
Q
  1. A patient appearing in pain and sweating excessively may indicate:
a) A recent workout.
b) Pain or diaphoresis.
c) A hot environment.
d) A recent shower.
A

b) Pain or diaphoresis.

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13
Q
  1. Which syndrome is associated with abnormalities in the wrist, thumb, and forearm?
a) Down’s Syndrome.
b) Marfan’s Syndrome.
c) Holt Oram Syndrome.
d) COPD.
A

c) Holt Oram Syndrome.

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14
Q
  1. If a patient asks about their breathing, it can hint at potential:
a) Asthma.
b) Emaciation.
c) Chest deformity.
d) Pericarditis.
A

d) Pericarditis.

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following syndromes affects connective tissue?
a) Holt Oram Syndrome.
b) Down’s Syndrome.
c) Marfan’s Syndrome.
d) COPD.
A

c) Marfan’s Syndrome.

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16
Q
  1. What does the skin assessment mainly involve?
a) Inspection and palpation of the skin.
b) Blood tests and x-rays.
c) Temperature measurements.
d) Heart rate monitoring.
A

a) Inspection and palpation of the skin.

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17
Q
  1. Central Cyanosis primarily affects which areas?
a) The core, lips, and tongue.
b) The extremities.
c) The lower extremities.
d) Various body parts.
A

a) The core, lips, and tongue.

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18
Q
  1. Peripheral Cyanosis is mainly caused by:
a) Right-to-left shunts in the heart or lungs.
b) Small blood vessel constriction.
c) Lipid disorders.
d) Advanced mitral stenosis.
A

b) Small blood vessel constriction.

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19
Q
  1. Hereditary Telangiectasia is a part of which syndrome?
a) Sarcoidosis.
b) Rheumatic Heart Disease.
c) Osler-Weber Rendu Syndrome.
d) Carney’s syndrome.
A

c) Osler-Weber Rendu Syndrome.

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20
Q
  1. Tan or Bronze Skin is an indication of:
a) Hemochromatosis.
b) Cardiac cirrhosis.
c) Erythema Marginatum.
d) Scleroderma.
A

a) Hemochromatosis.

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21
Q
  1. Jaundice can be caused by:
a) Lipid disorders.
b) Liver congestion due to heart failure.
c) Specific heart conditions.
d) Severe mitral stenosis.
A

b) Liver congestion due to heart failure.

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22
Q
  1. Xanthomas indicate:
a) Premature atherosclerosis.
b) Bleeding abnormalities.
c) Lipid disorders.
d) Rheumatic Heart Disease.
A

c) Lipid disorders.

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23
Q
  1. What is Myxoma?
a) A benign tumor in the left atrium.
b) A type of skin texture.
c) A manifestation of Sarcoidosis.
d) A symptom of Carney’s syndrome.
A

a) A benign tumor in the left atrium.

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24
Q
  1. Erythema Marginatum is found in patients with:
a) Hemochromatosis.
b) Scleroderma.
c) Rheumatic Heart Disease.
d) Osler-Weber Rendu Syndrome.
A

c) Rheumatic Heart Disease.

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25
Q
  1. Lupus Pernio is specific to:
a) Sarcoidosis.
b) Osler-Weber Rendu Syndrome.
c) Hemochromatosis.
d) Carney’s syndrome.
A

a) Sarcoidosis.

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26
Q
  1. Extensive Lentiginosis is seen in which syndrome?
a) Hemochromatosis.
b) Carney’s syndrome.
c) Rheumatic Heart Disease.
d) Scleroderma.
A

b) Carney’s syndrome.

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27
Q
  1. Malar Telangiectasia is seen in:
a) Advanced mitral stenosis and scleroderma.
b) Lupus Pernio.
c) Erythema Marginatum.
d) Osler-Weber Rendu Syndrome.
A

a) Advanced mitral stenosis and scleroderma.

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28
Q
  1. Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum is characterized by:
a) Specific heart conditions.
b) Specific skin texture.
c) Right-to-left shunting in the lungs.
d) Lipid disorders.
A

b) Specific skin texture.

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29
Q
  1. Differential Cyanosis primarily affects which areas?
a) The extremities.
b) The core, lips, and tongue.
c) Only the lower extremities.
d) Various body parts.
A

c) Only the lower extremities.

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30
Q
  1. Which condition is linked to premature atherosclerosis?
a) Hemochromatosis.
b) Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum.
c) Lupus Pernio.
d) Erythema Marginatum.
A

b) Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum.

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31
Q
  1. Cyanosis is caused by:
a) Excessive deoxyhemoglobin.
b) Lipid disorders.
c) Liver congestion.
d) Small blood vessel constriction.
A

a) Excessive deoxyhemoglobin.

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32
Q
  1. Ecchymoses are associated with:
a) Certain medications.
b) Lipid disorders.
c) Advanced mitral stenosis.
d) A benign tumor in the left atrium.
A

a) Certain medications.

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33
Q
  1. Palmar Crease Xanthomas are seen in:
a) Mild cases.
b) Severe cases.
c) Rheumatic Heart Disease.
d) Lupus Pernio.
A

b) Severe cases.

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34
Q
  1. Which condition is associated with heart failure leading to liver congestion?
a) Erythema Marginatum.
b) Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum.
c) Jaundice.
d) Myxoma.
A

c) Jaundice.

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35
Q
  1. Hereditary Telangiectasia can cause:
a) Right-to-left shunting in the lungs.
b) Lipid disorders.
c) Bleeding abnormalities.
d) Advanced mitral stenosis.
A

a) Right-to-left shunting in the lungs.

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36
Q
  1. What does Blue Sclera indicate?
a) Tangier disease.
b) Loeys-Dietz syndrome.
c) Osteogenesis Imperfecta.
d) Wegener’s Granulomatosis.
A

c) Osteogenesis Imperfecta.

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37
Q
  1. Orange Tonsils are suggestive of:
a) Loeys-Dietz syndrome.
b) Relapsing Polychondritis.
c) Marfan’s Syndrome.
d) Tangier disease.
A

d) Tangier disease.

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38
Q
  1. Saddle Nose Deformity could be due to:
a) Osteogenesis Imperfecta.
b) Relapsing Polychondritis or Wegener’s Granulomatosis.
c) Loeys-Dietz syndrome.
d) Marfan’s Syndrome.
A

b) Relapsing Polychondritis or Wegener’s Granulomatosis.

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39
Q
  1. Bifid Uvula is seen in:
a) Tangier disease.
b) Loeys-Dietz syndrome.
c) Marfan’s Syndrome.
d) Osteogenesis Imperfecta.
A

b) Loeys-Dietz syndrome.

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40
Q
  1. Exophthalmos is a feature of:
a) Hyperthyroidism.
b) Tangier disease.
c) Wegener’s Granulomatosis.
d) Loeys-Dietz syndrome.
A

a) Hyperthyroidism.

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41
Q
  1. Which condition is associated with low HDL and an increased risk of early atherosclerosis?
a) Loeys-Dietz syndrome.
b) Relapsing Polychondritis.
c) Tangier disease.
d) Osteogenesis Imperfecta.
A

c) Tangier disease.

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42
Q
  1. High-Arched Palate is seen in:
a) Wegener’s Granulomatosis.
b) Marfan’s Syndrome.
c) Tangier disease.
d) Hyperthyroidism.
A

b) Marfan’s Syndrome.

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43
Q
  1. Which condition is characterized by potential aortic and vasculitis problems?
a) Marfan’s Syndrome.
b) Relapsing Polychondritis or Wegener’s Granulomatosis.
c) Loeys-Dietz syndrome.
d) Osteogenesis Imperfecta.
A

b) Relapsing Polychondritis or Wegener’s Granulomatosis.

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44
Q
  1. Severe signs like proptosis and optic nerve compression are symptoms of:
a) Tangier disease.
b) Loeys-Dietz syndrome.
c) Hyperthyroidism.
d) Marfan’s Syndrome.
A

c) Hyperthyroidism.

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45
Q
  1. Which syndrome is notably associated with aortic valve issues?
a) Loeys-Dietz syndrome.
b) Osteogenesis Imperfecta.
c) Marfan’s Syndrome.
d) Tangier disease.
A

c) Marfan’s Syndrome.

46
Q
  1. A Midline Sternotomy is indicative of:
a) Pacemaker implantation.
b) Superior Vena Cava Syndrome.
c) Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) surgery.
d) Mitral valve prolapse.
A

c) Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) surgery.

47
Q
  1. Infraclavicular Scars are suggestive of:
a) Thoracic deformities.
b) Pacemaker implantation.
c) Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) surgery.
d) Superior Vena Cava Syndrome.
A

b) Pacemaker implantation.

48
Q
  1. Which condition is characterized by unilateral swelling of the face and upper extremity?
a) Straight-Backed Syndrome.
b) Superior Vena Cava Syndrome.
c) Mitral valve prolapse.
d) Thoracic deformities.
A

b) Superior Vena Cava Syndrome.

49
Q
  1. Superior Vena Cava Syndrome is commonly seen in which patients?
a) Those with diabetes.
b) Those with hypertension.
c) Those with lung or breast cancer.
d) Those with osteoporosis.
A

c) Those with lung or breast cancer.

50
Q
  1. Thoracic Deformities are related to:
a) Respiratory and cardiac health.
b) Mitral valve prolapse.
c) Pacemaker implantation.
d) Superior Vena Cava Syndrome.
A

a) Respiratory and cardiac health.

51
Q
  1. Straight-Backed Syndrome is associated with:
a) Superior Vena Cava Syndrome.
b) Pacemaker implantation.
c) Mitral valve prolapse.
d) Thoracic deformities.
A

c) Mitral valve prolapse.

52
Q
  1. A primary complaint from patients with mitral valve prolapse is:
a) Chest pain.
b) Shortness of breath.
c) Swelling.
d) Palpitation.
A

d) Palpitation.

53
Q
  1. In Straight-Backed Syndrome, the heart and great vessels appear:
a) Normal in size.
b) Enlarged.
c) Reduced in size.
d) Occluded.
A

b) Enlarged.

54
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a hole but an elongation of one of the mitral valve flaps?
a) Thoracic deformities.
b) Superior Vena Cava Syndrome.
c) Mitral valve prolapse.
d) Straight-Backed Syndrome.
A

c) Mitral valve prolapse.

55
Q
  1. Which syndrome is characterized by loss of the normal kyphosis of the thoracic spine?
a) Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) surgery.
b) Superior Vena Cava Syndrome.
c) Thoracic deformities.
d) Straight-Backed Syndrome.
A

d) Straight-Backed Syndrome.

56
Q
  1. Splenomegaly is observed in cases of:
a) Chronic heart failure.
b) Advanced right-sided heart failure.
c) Infective pericarditis persisting for weeks to months.
d) Hypoalbuminemia.
A

c) Infective pericarditis persisting for weeks to months.

57
Q
  1. The obliteration of Traube’s space is a clinical sign used to detect:
a) Ascites.
b) Tender liver.
c) Splenomegaly.
d) Aortic aneurysm.
A

c) Splenomegaly.

58
Q
  1. A tender liver indicates:
a) Advanced obstructive lung disease.
b) Constrictive pericarditis.
c) Chronic heart failure.
d) Infective pericarditis.
A

c) Chronic heart failure.

59
Q
  1. What is Ascites?
a) Tender liver.
b) Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
c) Obliteration of Traube’s space.
d) Point of Maximal Impulse at Epigastric Area.
A

b) Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.

60
Q
  1. Ascites can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Advanced obstructive lung disease.
b) Constrictive pericarditis.
c) Hepatic cirrhosis.
d) Intraperitoneal malignancy.
A

a) Advanced obstructive lung disease.

61
Q
  1. The normal location of the PMI should be:
a) 5th intercostal space (ICS), right midclavicular line.
b) 4th intercostal space (ICS), left midclavicular line.
c) 5th intercostal space (ICS), left midclavicular line.
d) Epigastric area.
A

c) 5th intercostal space (ICS), left midclavicular line.

62
Q
  1. If the PMI is located in the epigastric area, it may indicate:
a) Splenomegaly.
b) Chronic heart failure.
c) Advanced obstructive lung disease.
d) Hepatic cirrhosis.
A

c) Advanced obstructive lung disease.

63
Q
  1. Visible pulsations on the abdomen are suggestive of:
a) Ascites.
b) Infective pericarditis.
c) An aortic aneurysm.
d) Chronic heart failure.
A

c) An aortic aneurysm.

64
Q
  1. Which method is best to visualize and localize an aortic aneurysm?
a) MRI.
b) CT scan.
c) X-ray.
d) Ultrasound.
A

d) Ultrasound.

65
Q
  1. A bruit can be heard over:
a) Tender liver.
b) Ascites.
c) Splenomegaly.
d) An aortic aneurysm.
A

d) An aortic aneurysm.

66
Q
  1. Clubbing is an indication of:
a) Holt Oram Syndrome.
b) Right-to-left shunting or endocarditis.
c) Marfan’s Syndrome.
d) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).
A

b) Right-to-left shunting or endocarditis.

67
Q
  1. Finger-Size Thumb is characteristic of:
a) Marfan’s Syndrome.
b) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).
c) Infective Endocarditis.
d) Holt Oram Syndrome.
A

d) Holt Oram Syndrome.

68
Q
  1. Janeway lesions are:
a) Tender nodules on finger or toe pads.
b) Slightly raised hemorrhages on palms and soles.
c) Linear petechiae in the nail bed’s mid-position.
d) Positive wrist signs.
A

b) Slightly raised hemorrhages on palms and soles.

69
Q
  1. Osler’s nodes are found on the:
a) Palms and soles.
b) Thumb and fifth finger.
c) Finger or toe pads.
d) Wrist.
A

c) Finger or toe pads.

70
Q
  1. Splinter Hemorrhages are a sign of:
a) Marfan’s Syndrome.
b) Holt Oram Syndrome.
c) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).
d) Infective Endocarditis.
A

d) Infective Endocarditis.

71
Q
  1. Positive Thumb Sign is indicative of:
a) Marfan’s Syndrome.
b) Holt Oram Syndrome.
c) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).
d) Right-to-left shunting.
A

a) Marfan’s Syndrome.

72
Q
  1. Wrist sign involves the overlap of:
a) Thumb and fourth finger.
b) Thumb and fifth finger.
c) Second and third fingers.
d) First and third fingers.
A

b) Thumb and fifth finger.

73
Q
  1. Lower Extremity or Presacral Edema without jugular venous hypertension suggests:
a) Calcium channel blockers.
b) Hypoalbuminemia from nephrotic syndrome or liver failure.
c) Marfan’s Syndrome.
d) Venous insufficiency syndrome.
A

b) Hypoalbuminemia from nephrotic syndrome or liver failure.

74
Q
  1. Varicosities are surface manifestations of:
a) Arterial insufficiency.
b) Neuromuscular disorder.
c) Venous insufficiency syndrome.
d) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).
A

c) Venous insufficiency syndrome.

75
Q
  1. Homan’s Sign suggests:
a) Marfan’s Syndrome.
b) Holt Oram Syndrome.
c) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).
d) Infective Endocarditis.
A

c) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).

76
Q
  1. Muscular Atrophy indicates:
a) Calcium channel blockers.
b) Severe arterial insufficiency or a primary neuromuscular disorder.
c) Venous insufficiency syndrome.
d) Hypoalbuminemia.
A

b) Severe arterial insufficiency or a primary neuromuscular disorder.

77
Q
  1. Janeway Lesions and Osler’s Nodes are indicators of:
a) Marfan’s Syndrome.
b) Holt Oram Syndrome.
c) Infective Endocarditis (IE).
d) Venous insufficiency syndrome.
A

c) Infective Endocarditis (IE).

78
Q
  1. If a patient has a thumb overlapping beyond the hand’s ulnar aspect, they may exhibit the:
a) Wrist sign.
b) Homan’s Sign.
c) Thumb sign.
d) Positive finger sign.
A

c) Thumb sign.

79
Q
  1. Which sign involves posterior calf pain on active foot dorsiflexion?
a) Homan’s Sign.
b) Thumb sign.
c) Wrist sign.
d) Janeway lesion.
A

a) Homan’s Sign.

80
Q
  1. The absence of hair on the extremities may indicate:
a) Calcium channel blockers.
b) Venous insufficiency syndrome.
c) Severe arterial insufficiency or a primary neuromuscular disorder.
d) Infective Endocarditis.
A

c) Severe arterial insufficiency or a primary neuromuscular disorder.

81
Q
  1. Pulse Pressure is defined as:
a) The sum of systolic and diastolic pressures.
b) The difference between systolic and diastolic pressures.
c) The average of systolic and diastolic pressures.
d) The peak during the cardiac cycle.
A

b) The difference between systolic and diastolic pressures.

82
Q
  1. Which of the following factors does NOT affect Blood Pressure (BP)?
a) Left ventricular stroke volume.
b) Heart rate.
c) Peripheral vascular resistance.
d) Aorta and large artery distensibility.
A

b) Heart rate.

83
Q
  1. A blood pressure cuff that’s too small can lead to:
a) An underestimated BP reading.
b) A BP reading that’s accurate.
c) An overestimated BP reading.
d) A BP reading that’s too low.
A

c) An overestimated BP reading.

84
Q
  1. Before taking a BP reading, patients should rest for:
a) 1-2 minutes.
b) 3-4 minutes.
c) 5-10 minutes.
d) 15-20 minutes.
A

c) 5-10 minutes.

85
Q
  1. A difference of more than 10mmHg between arms in BP readings may indicate:
a) Diabetes mellitus.
b) Masked Hypertension.
c) Atherosclerosis or aortic dissection.
d) Orthostatic Hypotension.
A

c) Atherosclerosis or aortic dissection.

86
Q
  1. White Coat Hypertension is characterized by:
a) BP higher at home than in a clinical setting.
b) BP higher in a clinical setting than at home.
c) BP that drops significantly upon standing.
d) BP that remains consistent in all settings.
A

b) BP higher in a clinical setting than at home.

87
Q
  1. Masked Hypertension is suspected in patients who:
a) Have consistent BP readings in all settings.
b) Show signs of advanced atherosclerotic disease but have normal or low BP in clinical settings.
c) Have higher BP in a clinical setting than at home.
d) Experience a significant drop in BP upon standing.
A

b) Show signs of advanced atherosclerotic disease but have normal or low BP in clinical settings.

88
Q
  1. Orthostatic Hypotension is characterized by:
a) A rise in BP when standing.
b) A drop in systolic BP of more than 20mmHg or a drop in diastolic BP of more than 10mmHg within 3 minutes of standing up.
c) A consistent BP in all positions.
d) A higher BP when lying down compared to standing.
A

b) A drop in systolic BP of more than 20mmHg or a drop in diastolic BP of more than 10mmHg within 3 minutes of standing up.

89
Q
  1. Orthostatic Hypotension can be caused by:
a) White Coat Hypertension.
b) Atherosclerosis.
c) Dehydration.
d) High salt intake.
A

c) Dehydration.

90
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions can lead to Orthostatic Hypotension?
a) Masked Hypertension.
b) Parkinson’s disease.
c) Aortic dissection.
d) High cholesterol levels.
A

b) Parkinson’s disease.

91
Q
  1. Before palpating the carotid artery, one should always:
    a) Check the radial pulse.
    b) Check the femoral pulse.
    c) Auscultate for a bruit.
    d) Measure blood pressure.
A

c) Auscultate for a bruit.

92
Q
  1. The aortic pulse is best felt at which location?
    a) Below the umbilicus level.
    b) Just below the chest.
    c) At the epigastrium, above the umbilicus level.
    d) At the carotid.
A

c) At the epigastrium, above the umbilicus level.

93
Q
  1. The temporal arteries should be checked in cases of suspected:
    a) Aortic aneurysm.
    b) Pericardial tamponade.
    c) Temporal arteritis or polymyalgia rheumatica.
    d) Hypertensive crisis.
A

c) Temporal arteritis or polymyalgia rheumatica.

94
Q
  1. Allen’s Test is used to check the integrity of:
    a) Carotid arteries.
    b) Femoral arteries.
    c) Temporal arteries.
    d) The arcuate system of the hands.
A

d) The arcuate system of the hands.

95
Q
  1. Pulsus Paradoxus is seen in conditions such as:
    a) Temporal arteritis.
    b) Pericardial tamponade.
    c) Marfan’s syndrome.
    d) Ischemic heart disease.
A

b) Pericardial tamponade.

96
Q
  1. Pulsus Alternans is characterized by:
    a) Alternating strong and weak pulses.
    b) Strong pulses only.
    c) Weak pulses only.
    d) No change in pulse strength.
A

a) Alternating strong and weak pulses.

97
Q
  1. Claudication helps in identifying:
    a) Strength of pulse.
    b) Pulse regularity.
    c) Obstruction location.
    d) Pulse duration.
A

c) Obstruction location.

98
Q
  1. Which diagnostic tool provides information about the heart’s electrical activity?
    a) MRI.
    b) Echocardiography.
    c) ECG.
    d) CT scan.
A

c) ECG.

99
Q
  1. A decrease in pulse amplitude between arterial pulses is indicative of:
    a) Polymyalgia rheumatica.
    b) Marfan’s syndrome.
    c) Obstruction.
    d) Pericardial tamponade.
A

c) Obstruction.

100
Q
  1. Genetic Testing is specifically used for conditions like:
    a) Hypertensive heart disease.
    b) Myocardial infarction.
    c) Marfan’s syndrome.
    d) Pericardial tamponade.
A

c) Marfan’s syndrome.

101
Q
  1. The character and contour of the pulse depend on all EXCEPT:
    a) Stroke volume.
    b) Ejection fraction.
    c) Heart rate.
    d) Vascular compliance.
A

c) Heart rate.

102
Q
  1. The presence of a bruit:
    a) Always indicates an obstruction.
    b) Doesn’t always correlate with the degree of obstruction.
    c) Indicates a healthy artery.
    d) None of the above.
A

b) Doesn’t always correlate with the degree of obstruction.

103
Q
  1. For which of the following conditions is coronary angiography used?
    a) Evaluating the heart’s electrical activity.
    b) Checking the arterial pulse.
    c) Imaging the heart’s anatomy.
    d) Determining the blood vessels’ patency.
A

d) Determining the blood vessels’ patency.

104
Q
  1. A person diagnosed with a valve issue showing regurgitation is dealing with:
    a) A chamber issue.
    b) A valve issue.
    c) A pericardium issue.
    d) An arrhythmia.
A

b) A valve issue.

105
Q
  1. The Functional Capacity of a heart condition is evaluated using:
    a) ECG.
    b) NYHA Functional Classification.
    c) Echocardiography.
    d) CT scan.
A

b) NYHA Functional Classification.

106
Q
  1. Etiology of a heart condition can be:
    a) Congenital.
    b) Ischemic.
    c) Hypertensive.
    d) All of the above.
A

d) All of the above.

107
Q
  1. Which pulse point is NOT found in the upper extremity?
    a) Subclavian.
    b) Brachial.
    c) Femoral.
    d) Ulnar.
A

c) Femoral.

108
Q
  1. If you are suspecting a case of advanced atherosclerotic disease, which hypertension might be present?
    a) White Coat Hypertension.
    b) Masked Hypertension.
    c) Orthostatic Hypotension.
    d) None of the above.
A

b) Masked Hypertension.

109
Q
  1. Which of the following pulse points should be checked when suspecting temporal arteritis?
    a) Radial.
    b) Brachial.
    c) Temporal.
    d) Femoral.
A

c) Temporal.

110
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a pulse checkpoint?
    a) Dorsalis pedis.
    b) Subclavian.
    c) Carotid.
    d) Ulnar.
A

c) Carotid.

MED 1 (13 decks)

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