Unknown Practice Test

Question 1

Total Quality Management (TQM)

Answer 1

Quality improvement method. A core definition of total quality management (TQM) describes a management approach to long-term success through customer satisfaction. In a TQM effort, all members of an organization participate in improving processes, products, services, and the culture in which they work.

Question 2

Six Sigma

Answer 2

Quality improvement method. A set of management techniques intended to improve business processes by greatly reducing the probability that an error or defect will occur.

Question 3

Lean Six Sigma

Answer 3

Quality improvement method. Lean Six Sigma is a method that relies on a collaborative team effort to improve performance by systematically removing waste[1] and reducing variation.

Question 4

Lean Manufacturing

Answer 4

Quality improvement method. Lean manufacturing attempts to make obvious what adds value, through reducing everything else (because it is not adding value).

Question 5

Plan-do-check-act

Answer 5

Quality improvement method. PDCA is an iterative four-step management method used in business for the control and continuous improvement of processes and products. It is also known as the Deming circle/cycle/wheel, the Shewhart cycle, the control circle/cycle, or plan–do–study–act.

Question 6

Design for X

Answer 6

Design for X (DfX) is a set of technical guidelines that may be applied during the design of a product for the optimization of a specific aspect of the design. DfX can control or even improve the product’s final characteristics. The X in DfX can be different aspects of product development, such as reliability, deployment, assembly, manufacturing, cost, service, usability, safety, and quality. Using the DfX may result in cost reduction, quality improvement, better performance, and customer satisfaction.

Question 7

Directions of Influence

Answer 7

Classifies stakeholders according to their influence on the work of the project or the project team itself. Stakeholders can be classified in the following ways:

Upward (senior management of the performing organization or customer organization, sponsor, and steering committee)

Downward (the team or specialists contributing knowledge or skills in a temporary capacity),

Outward (stakeholder groups and their representatives outside the project team, such as suppliers, government departments, the public, end-users, and regulators)

Sideward (the peers of the project manager, such as other project managers or middle managers who are in competition for scarce project resources or who collaborate with the project manager in sharing resources or information).

Question 8

Prioritization

Answer 8

Prioritizing stakeholders may be necessary for projects with a large number of stakeholders, where the membership of the stakeholder community is changing frequently, or when the relationships between stakeholders and the project team or within the stakeholder community are complex.

Question 9

Brain Writing

Answer 9

A refinement of brainstorming that allows individual participants time to consider the question(s) individually before the group creativity session is held. The information can be gathered in face-to-face groups or using virtual environments supported by technology.

Question 10

Power/Interest Grid

Answer 10

Power/interest grid, power/influence grid, or impact/influence grid. Each of these techniques supports a grouping of stakeholders according to their level of authority (power), level of concern about the project’s outcomes (interest), ability to influence the outcomes of the project (influence), or ability to cause changes to the project’s planning or execution. These classification models are useful for small projects or for projects with simple relationships between stakeholders and the project, or within the stakeholder community itself.

Question 11

Stakeholder Cube

Answer 11

This model combines the grid elements into a three-dimensional model that can be useful to project managers and teams in identifying and engaging their stakeholder community. It provides a model with multiple dimensions that improves the depiction of the stakeholder community as a multidimensional entity and assists with the development of communication strategies.

Question 12

Salience Model

Answer 12

Describes classes of stakeholders based on assessments of their power (level of authority or ability to influence the outcomes of the project), urgency (need for immediate attention, either time-constrained or relating to the stakeholders’ high stake in the outcome), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate). There is an adaptation of the salience model that substitutes proximity for legitimacy (applying to the team and measuring their level of involvement with the work of the project). The salience model is useful for large complex communities of stakeholders or where there are complex networks of relationships within the community. It is also useful in determining the relative importance of the identified stakeholders.

Question 13

Simulation

Answer 13

Simulation. Simulation models the combined effects of individual project risks and other sources of uncertainty to evaluate their potential impact on achieving project objectives. The most common simulation technique is Monte Carlo analysis, in which risks and other sources of uncertainty are used to calculate possible schedule outcomes for the total project.

Question 14

Cultural Awareness

Answer 14

Cultural awareness is an understanding of the differences between individuals, groups, and organizations and adapting the project’s communication strategy in the context of these differences. This awareness and any consequent actions minimize misunderstandings and miscommunication that may result from cultural differences within the project’s stakeholder community. Cultural awareness and cultural sensitivity help the project manager to plan communications based on the cultural differences and requirements of stakeholders and team members.

Question 15

Political Awareness

Answer 15

Political awareness helps the project manager to plan communications based on the project environment as well as the organization’s political environment. Political
awareness concerns the recognition of power relationships, both formal and informal, and also the willingness to operate within these structures. An understanding of the strategies of the organization, knowing who wields power and influence in this arena, and developing an ability to communicate with these stakeholders are all aspects of political awareness.

Question 16

Change Control Board(CCB)

Answer 16

A formally chartered group who has the responsibility of approving, rejecting, or deferring changes to the project

Question 17

Virtual Teams/Distributed Teams

Answer 17

Teams that work on the same project but are not colocated at the same site.

Question 18

Self Organizing Teams

Answer 18

The increase in using agile approaches mainly for the execution of IT projects has given rise to the self-organizing team, where the team functions with an absence of centralized control. In projects that have self-organizing teams, the project manager (who may not be called a project manager) role provides the team with the environment and support needed and trusts the team to get the job done.

Question 19

Schedule Network Analysis

Answer 19

Schedule network analysis is the overarching technique used to generate the project schedule model. It employs several other techniques such as critical path method, resource optimization techniques, and modeling techniques

Question 20

Resource Breakdown Structure

Answer 20

The resource breakdown structure includes information on the composition of the team and may help to understand what knowledge is available as a group and what knowledge is missing.

Question 21

Agreements

Answer 21

Agreements are used to define initial intentions for a project. Agreements may take the form of contracts, memorandums of understanding (MOUs), service level agreements (SLA), letters of agreement, letters of intent, verbal agreements, email, or other written agreements. Typically, a contract is used when a project is being performed for an external customer.

Question 22

Resource Assignment Matrix(RAM)

Answer 22

A RAM shows the project resources assigned to each work package. It is used to illustrate the connections between work packages, or activities, and project team members. On larger projects, RAMs can be developed at various levels. For example, a high-level RAM can define the responsibilities of a project team, group, or unit within each component of the WBS. Lower-level RAMs are used within the group to designate roles, responsibilities, and levels of authority for specific activities. The matrix format shows all activities associated with one person and all people associated with one activity. This also ensures that there is only one person accountable for any one task to avoid confusion about who is ultimately in charge or has authority for the work. One example of a RAM is a RACI (responsible, accountable, consult, and inform) chart. A RACI chart is a useful tool to use to ensure clear assignment of roles and responsibilities when the team consists of internal and external resources.

Question 23

Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

Answer 23

The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix, displays gaps between current and desired engagement levels of individual stakeholders, it can be further analyzed in this process to identify additional communication requirements (beyond the regular reports) as a method to close any engagement level gaps.

Question 24

Ground Rules

Answer 24

Ground rules, defined in the team charter set the expected behavior for project team members, as well as other stakeholders, with regard to stakeholder engagement.

Question 25

Metrics

Answer 25

The direct and indirect measurements used to show the benefits realized.

Question 26

Quality Metric

Answer 26

A quality metric specifically describes a project or product attribute and how the Control Quality process will verify compliance to it. Some examples of quality metrics include percentage of tasks completed on time, cost performance measured by CPI, failure rate, number of defects identified per day, total downtime per month, errors found per line of code, customer satisfaction scores, and percentage of requirements covered by the test plan as a measure of test coverage.

Question 27

Lessons Learned Register

Answer 27

The lessons learned register can include the category and description of the situation. The lessons learned register may also include the impact, recommendations, and proposed actions associated with the situation. The lessons learned register may record challenges, problems, realized risks and opportunities, or other content as appropriate.

Question 28

Prompt List

Answer 28

A prompt list is a predetermined list of risk categories that might give rise to individual project risks and that could also act as sources of overall project risk. The prompt list can be used as a framework to aid the project team in idea generation when using risk identification techniques. The risk categories in the lowest level of the risk breakdown structure can be used as a prompt list for individual project risks. Some common strategic frameworks are more suitable for identifying sources of overall project risk, for example PESTLE (political, economic, social, technological, legal, environmental), TECOP (technical, environmental, commercial, operational, political), or VUCA (volatility, uncertainty, complexity, ambiguity).

Question 29

Assumption Log

Answer 29

The assumption log is updated with assumptions regarding the types and quantities of resources required. Additionally, any resource constraints are entered including collective bargaining agreements, continuous hours of operation, planned leave, etc.

Question 30

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)

Answer 30

The seller is reimbursed for all legitimate costs, but the majority of the fee is earned based on the satisfaction of certain broad subjective performance criteria that are defined and incorporated into the contract. The determination of fee is based solely on the subjective determination of seller performance by the buyer and is generally not subject to appeals.

Question 31

Cost Plus Incentive Fee(CPIF)

Answer 31

The seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and receives a predetermined incentive fee based on achieving certain performance objectives as set forth in the contract. In CPIF contracts, if the final costs are less or greater than the original estimated costs, then both the buyer and seller share costs from the departures based upon a prenegotiated cost-sharing formula, for example, an 80/20 split over/under target costs based on the actual performance of the seller.

Question 32

Cost Plus Fixed Fee(CPFF)

Answer 32

The seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and receives a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs. Fee amounts do not change unless the project scope changes.

Question 33

Interactive Communication

Answer 33

Between two or more parties performing a multidirectional exchange of information in real time. It employs communications artifacts such as meetings, phone calls, instant messaging, some forms of social media, and videoconferencing.

Question 34

Push Communication

Answer 34

Sent or distributed directly to specific recipients who need to receive the information. This ensures that the information is distributed but does not ensure that it actually reached or was understood by the intended audience. Push communications artifacts include letters, memos, reports, emails, faxes, voice mails, blogs, and press releases.

Question 35

Pull Communication

Answer 35

Used for large complex information sets, or for large audiences, and requires the recipients to access content at their own discretion subject to security procedures. These methods include web portals, intranet sites, e-learning, lessons learned databases, or knowledge repositories.

Question 36

Functional Organization

Answer 36

An organizational structure in which staff is grouped by areas of specialization and the project manager has limited authority to assign work and apply resources.

Question 37

Organic or Simple Organizational Structure

Answer 37

An organic organizational structure is characterized by an extremely flat reporting structure within an organization. In this organization, the span of control of the typical manager encompasses a large number of employees. Interactions among employees tend to be horizontally across the organization, rather than vertically between layers of managers and their direct reports.

Question 38

Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB)

Answer 38

Integrated scope, schedule, and cost baselines used for comparison to manage, measure, and control project execution.

Question 39

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

Answer 39

A component of the project management plan that identifies the strategies and actions required to promote productive involvement of stakeholders in project or program decision making and execution.

Question 40

Communications Management Plan

Answer 40

A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated.

Question 41

Risk Data Quality Assessment

Answer 41

Technique to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management.

Question 42

Multi-Divisional Organization

Answer 42

Multi-divisional form refers to an organizational structure by which the firm is separated into several semi autonomous units which are guided and controlled by targets from the center

Question 43

Regression Analysis

Answer 43

An analytical technique where a series of input variables are examined in relation to their corresponding output results in order to develop a mathematical or statistical relationship.

Question 44

Variance Analysis

Answer 44

A technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance.

Question 45

Trend Analysis

Answer 45

An analytical technique that uses mathematical models to forecast future outcomes based on historical results.

Question 46

Configuration Management Plan

Answer 46

A component of the project management plan that describes how to identify and account for project artifacts under configuration control, and how to record and report changes to them.

Question 47

Fixed Budget

Answer 47

The fixed-budget method requires disclosing the available budget to invited sellers in the RFP and selecting the highest-ranking technical proposal within the budget. Because sellers are subject to a cost constraint, they will adapt the scope and quality of their offer to that budget. The buyer should therefore ensure that the budget is compatible with the SOW and that the seller will be able to perform the tasks within the budget. This method is appropriate only when the SOW is precisely defined, no changes are anticipated, and the budget is fixed and cannot be changed.

Question 48

Sole Source

Answer 48

The buyer asks a specific seller to prepare technical and financial proposals, which are then negotiated. Since there is no competition, this method is acceptable only when properly justified and should be viewed as an exception.

Question 49

Least Cost

Answer 49

The least cost method may be appropriate for procurements of a standard or routine nature where well-established practices and standards exist and from which a specific and well-defined outcome is expected, which can be executed at different costs.

Question 50

Qualifications Only

Answer 50

The qualifications only selection method applies when the time and cost of a full selection process would not make sense because the value of the procurement is relatively small. The buyer establishes a short list and selects the bidder with the best credibility, qualifications, experience, expertise, areas of specialization, and references.

Question 51

Quality Based/Highest Technical Proposal Score

Answer 51

The selected firm is asked to submit a proposal with both technical and cost details and is then invited to negotiate the contract if the technical proposal proves acceptable. Using this method, technical proposals are first evaluated based on the quality of the technical solution offered. The seller who submitted the highest-ranked technical proposal is selected if their financial proposal can be negotiated and accepted.

Question 52

Quality and Cost Based

Answer 52

The quality and cost based method allows cost to be included as a factor in the seller selection process. In general, when risk and/or uncertainty are greater for the project, quality should be a key element when compared to cost.

Question 53

Workaround

Answer 53

Workarounds are responses that were not planned initially but are required to deal with emerging risks that were previously unidentified or accepted passively. In other words, workarounds are responses to any unidentified risks that occur during your project execution. It also covers the response to risks you have identified but did not make a plan to manage or accepted passively. Workarounds are also responses to unidentified risks or passively accepted risks if they occur.

Question 54

Contingency Reserve

Answer 54

Time or money allocated in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks with active response strategies.

Question 55

Control Account

Answer 55

A management control point where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement. The unique code or account number for each WBS component.

Question 56

Earned Value Management

Answer 56

Budget At Completion, Planned Value, Earned Value, Actual Cost.

Question 57

Variances From the Approved Baseline

Answer 57

Schedule Variance, Cost Variance, Schedule Performance Index, Cost Performance Index.

Question 58

Forecasting Values

Answer 58

Estimate at Completion, Estimate to Completion, Variance at Completion, To-Complete Performance Index.

Question 59

Prevention Costs

Answer 59

Costs related to the prevention of poor quality in the products, deliverables, or services of the specific project.

Question 60

Appraisal Costs

Answer 60

Costs related to evaluating, measuring, auditing, and testing the products, deliverables, or services of the specific project.

Question 61

Failure Costs

Answer 61

(internal/external). Costs related to nonconformance of the products, deliverables, or services to the needs or expectations of the stakeholders.

Question 62

Iteration Burndown Chart

Answer 62

A burn down chart is a graphical representation of work left to do versus time. The outstanding work is often on the vertical axis, with time along the horizontal. That is, it is a run chart of outstanding work. It is useful for predicting when all of the work will be completed.

Question 63

Project Management Information System (PMIS)

Answer 63

An information system consisting of the tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management processes.

Question 64

Corrective Action

Answer 64

An intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan.

Question 65

Defect Repair

Answer 65

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component.

Question 66

Preventative Action

Answer 66

An intentional activity that ensures the future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan.

Question 67

Servant Leadership

Answer 67

Servant leadership is a leadership philosophy in which the main goal of the leader is to serve. This is different from traditional leadership where the leader's main focus is the thriving of their company or organizations. A Servant Leader shares power, puts the needs of the employees first and helps people develop and perform as highly as possible.

Question 68

Charismatic Leadership

Answer 68

Charismatic leadership is basically the method of encouraging particular behaviors in others by way of eloquent communication, persuasion and force of personality. Charismatic leaders motivate followers to get things done or improve the way certain things are done.

Question 69

Transactional Leadership

Answer 69

Transactional leadership is a style of leadership in which leaders promote compliance by followers through both rewards and punishments. Through a rewards and punishments system, transactional leaders are able to keep followers motivated for the short-term.

Question 70

Accuracy

Answer 70

Within the quality management system, accuracy is an assessment of correctness.

Question 71

Affinity Diagrams

Answer 71

A technique that allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis.

Question 72

Attribute Sampling

Answer 72

Method of measuring quality that consists of noting the presence (or absence) of some characteristic (attribute) in each of the units under consideration.

Question 73

Bar Chart

Answer 73

A graphic display of schedule-related information. In the typical bar chart, schedule activities or work breakdown structure components are listed down the left side of the chart, dates are shown across the top, and activity durations are shown as date-placed horizontal bars. See also Gantt chart.

Question 74

Checklist Analysis

Answer 74

A technique for systematically reviewing materials using a list for accuracy and completeness.

Question 75

Claim

Answer 75

A request, demand, or assertion of rights by a seller against a buyer, or vice versa, for consideration, compensation, or payment under the terms of a legally binding contract, such as for a disputed change.

Question 76

Conformance

Answer 76

Within the quality management system, conformance is a general concept of delivering results that fall within the limits that define acceptable variation for a quality requirement.

Question 77

Context Diagram

Answer 77

A visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it.

Question 78

Control

Answer 78

Comparing actual performance with planned performance, analyzing variances, assessing trends to effect process improvements, evaluating possible alternatives, and recommending appropriate corrective action as needed.

Question 79

Discrete Effort

Answer 79

An activity that can be planned and measured and that yields a specific output. [Note: Discrete effort is one of three earned value management (EVM) types of activities used to measure work performance.]

Question 80

Discretionary Dependency

Answer 80

A relationship that is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or an aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired.

Question 81

Early Finish Date (EF)

Answer 81

In the critical path method, the earliest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can finish based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule constraints.

Question 82

Early Start Date (ES)

Answer 82

In the critical path method, the earliest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule constraints.

Question 83

Free Float

Answer 83

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any successor or violating a schedule constraint.

Question 84

Gantt Chart

Answer 84

A bar chart of schedule information where activities are listed on the vertical axis, dates are shown on the horizontal axis, and activity durations are shown as horizontal bars placed according to start and finish dates.

Question 85

Grade

Answer 85

A category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use but do not share the same requirements for quality.

Question 86

Influence Diagram

Answer 86

A graphical representation of situations showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes.

Question 87

Invitation for Bid (IFB)

Answer 87

Generally, this term is equivalent to request for proposal. However, in some application areas, it may have a narrower or more specific meaning.

Question 88

Knowledge

Answer 88

Knowledge. A mixture of experience, values and beliefs, contextual information, intuition, and insight that people use to make sense of new experiences and information.

Question 89

Late Finish Date (LF)

Answer 89

In the critical path method, the latest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can finish based on the schedule network logic, the project completion date, and any schedule constraints.

Question 90

Late Start Date (LS)

Answer 90

In the critical path method, the latest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the project completion date, and any schedule constraints.

Question 91

Level of Effort (LOE)

Answer 91

An activity that does not produce definitive end products and is measured by the passage of time.

Question 92

Mandantory Dependency

Answer 92

A relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work.

Question 93

Master Schedule

Answer 93

A summary-level project schedule that identifies the major deliverables and work breakdown structure components and key schedule milestones. See also milestone schedule.

Question 94

Matrix Organization

Answer 94

Any organizational structure in which the project manager shares responsibility with the functional managers for assigning priorities and for directing the work of persons assigned to the project.

Question 95

Monitor

Answer 95

Collect project performance data, produce performance measures, and report and disseminate performance information.

Question 96

Network Path

Answer 96

A sequence of activities connected by logical relationships in a project schedule network diagram.

Question 97

Path Convergence

Answer 97

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one predecessor.

Question 98

Path Divergence

Answer 98

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one successor.

Question 99

Planning Package

Answer 99

A work breakdown structure component below the control account with known work content but without detailed schedule activities.

Question 100

Plurality

Answer 100

Decisions made by the largest block in a group, even if a majority is not achieved.

Question 101

Practice

Answer 101

A specific type of professional or management activity that contributes to the execution of a process and that may employ one or more techniques and tools.

Question 102

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

Answer 102

A technique used for constructing a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed.

Question 103

Probabliity and Impact Matrix

Answer 103

A grid for mapping the probability of occurrence of each risk and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs.

Question 104

Procedure

Answer 104

An established method of accomplishing a consistent performance or result, a procedure typically can be described as the sequence of steps that will be used to execute a process.

Question 105

Process

Answer 105

A systematic series of activities directed towards causing an end result such that one or more inputs will be acted upon to create one or more outputs.

Question 106

Quality

Answer 106

The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.

Question 107

Resource Smoothing

Answer 107

A resource optimization technique in which free and total float are used without affecting the critical path. See also resource leveling and resource optimization technique.

Question 108

Risk Enhancement

Answer 108

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity.

Question 109

Risk Escalation

Answer 109

A risk response strategy whereby the team acknowledges that a risk is outside of its sphere of influence and shifts the ownership of the risk to a higher level of the organization where it is more effectively managed.

Question 110

Risk Exploition

Answer 110

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to ensure that an opportunity occurs.

Question 111

Risk Exposure

Answer 111

An aggregate measure of the potential impact of all risks at any given point in time in a project, program, or portfolio.

Question 112

Risk Mitigation

Answer 112

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to decrease the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat.

Question 113

Risk Sharing

Answer 113

A risk response strategy whereby the project team allocates ownership of an opportunity to a third party who is best able to capture the benefit of that opportunity.

Question 114

Risk Transference

Answer 114

A risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response.

Question 115

Sponsor

Answer 115

A person or group who provides resources and support for the project, program, or portfolio and is accountable for enabling success.

Question 116

Tailoring

Answer 116

Determining the appropriate combination of processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, and life cycle phases to manage a project.

Question 117

Tornado Diagram

Answer 117

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables.

Question 118

Trigger Condition

Answer 118

An event or situation that indicates that a risk is about to occur.

Question 119

Variance

Answer 119

A quantifiable deviation, departure, or divergence away from a known baseline or expected value.

Question 120

Variation

Answer 120

An actual condition that is different from the expected condition that is contained in the baseline plan.

Question 121

Planning Package

Answer 121

A portion of the scope statement that defines work that could not be added to the WBS because there was not enough information about it.

Question 122

Scope Baseline

Answer 122

Contains: Project Scope Statement, WBS, WBS Dictionary, Work Package, and Planning Package.

Question 123

Organizational Theory

Answer 123

Tool to provide infomation on how team members and organizations behave.

Question 124

Pre-Assignment

Answer 124

When team members are named in advance of the project starting.

Question 125

Process Analysis

Answer 125

Process analysis, in project management, is all about following the steps that are outlined in process improvement plan. It is used to identify the necessary improvements needed in the project plan. This type of analysis looks into the problems experienced and other non-value added activities that are identified during the process operation.

Question 126

Configuration Management Plan

Answer 126

Describes how the information about the items of the project (and which items) will be recorded and updated so that the product, service, or result of the project remains consistent and/or operative.

Question 127

Performance Measurement Baseline

Answer 127

An integrated scope-schedule-cost plan for the project work against which project execution is compared to measure and manage performance. Part of the project management plan.

Question 128

Management Reviews

Answer 128

Identifies the points in the project when the project manager and relevant stakeholders will review the project progress to determine if performance is as expected, or if preventive or corrective actions are necessary. Part of the project management plan.