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BIO 110 > Unknown Material Exam Four > Flashcards

Unknown Material Exam Four Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What are the four events of cell division?

A
  1. Reproductive signal - initiates cell division (intracellular or extracellular)
    -this signal is most always extracellular in prokaryotes
  2. Complete replication of DNA
  3. Segregation - the distribution of DNA into each of the cells
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2
Q

What are the steps of binary fission?

A
  1. Reproductive signal - things outside the cell signal to start the cycle, examples include nutrient concentration and environmental conditions
  2. Replication - it occurs as DNA moves through a replication complex of proteins; replication starts at the ori (origin) and ends at the ter (terminus)

in rapidly dividing prokaryotes, this process occupies the entire time between divisions

  1. Segregation - when the ori regions move towards the opposite ends of the cell, the ter ends are in the center most part, and the daughter DNA molecules are segregated
  2. Cytokinesis - the cell membrane is pinched in and protein fibers form a z ring, then the cell walls / membranes are synthesized to form two new cells.
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3
Q

What is the first sub-phase of interphase and what happens?

A

G1 (between cytokinesis and S phase)
chromosomes are single (not yet replicated) and associated with proteins (restriction point)

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4
Q

What is the restriction point?

A

it is the checkpoint when it commits to DNA replication and subsequent cell division

checks for mutations and damage etc. after it becomes committed to replication.

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5
Q

Are the CDK’s Cyclins, and Inhibitory proteins all the same throughout the cell cycle?

A

No there are many different cyclin CDK complexes during the different stages, but they have similar mechanisms for activation/continuation of the cycle.

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6
Q

What is a nucleosome?

A

DNA molecules that are packed into bead-like units called and are formed by the interaction of proteins called histones

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7
Q

What is a chromatin?

A

the complex of DNA molecules bound with many proteins

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8
Q

What is a chromosome?

A

It is a bundle of tightly coiled DNA located in the nucleus of every eukaryotic cell

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9
Q

Explain the importance of cohesin.

A

they are proteins that hold together the newly replicated chromosomes (sister chromatid) during G2

should be separated by separase by activation of APC in anaphase

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10
Q

When mitosis happens the cohesion is removed except where?

A

the centromere (the location in the middle of the chromosomes that hold together the sister chromatid.

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11
Q

What is the first phase of mitosis and what happens?

A
  1. Prophase - when the chromosomes condense, the spindles assemble, and the centrosomes move to opposite ends of the nuclear envelope
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12
Q

What is the second phase of mitosis and what happens?

A
  1. Pro Metaphase - when the nuclear envelope breaks down and all the cohesion is removed except at the centromere

also the chromosomes attach to the spindle at the kinetochore

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13
Q

What is the third phase of mitosis?

A
  1. Metaphase - when chromosomes align on the equatorial/metaphase plate
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14
Q

What is the fourth phase of mitosis?

A
  1. Anaphase - when the sister chromatids separate and become daughter chromosomes which then start to migrate towards the poles

This is controlled by M - phase cyclin cdk

when cyclins are created, they allosterically activate the cdks which in turn activate APC by phosphorylation

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15
Q

What is the fifth phase of mitosis?

A
  1. Telophase - when the daughter chromosomes reach the poles - the actual segregation of mitosis

When telophase ends, the nuclear envelopes and nucleoli reform, and the chromatin (previously daughter chromosomes) decondense and the microtubules detach here

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16
Q

What is the difference between daughter chromosomes and sister chromatids?

A

sister chromatids share a centromere, while daughter chromosomes have their own centromere

i.e daughter chromosomes are separate, sister are together

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17
Q

Explain animal cell cytokinesis.

A

when a contractile ring of microfilaments of actin and myosin forms to pinch the cell membrane between the daughter cells

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18
Q

Explain plant cell cytokinesis.

A

when vesicles from the Golgi apparatus appear along the plane of the cell division, and the vesicles fuse to form a new plasma membrane

the contents of the vesicles also form a cell plate, the beginning of a new cell wall

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19
Q

What are homologous pairs?

A

they are matching pairs of chromosomes that carry same sequence of genes for the same traits.

“a pair of chromosomes” one from mom and one from dad

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20
Q

What is the first phase of meiosis I and what happens?

A
  1. Prophase I - the chromatin begins to condense and the centromeres align

Synapsis also happens which is specific parallel alignment (pairing) of homologous chromosomes

Tetrads also form which are four chromatid that make up the pair of homologous chromosomes

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21
Q

What is the second phase of meiosis I and what happens?

A
  1. Prometaphase I - or (late prophase) when crossing over happens at the chiasmata and recombinant chromatids form and the microtubules attach to the kinetochore
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22
Q

What is the third phase of meiosis I and what happens?

A
  1. Metaphase I - when the homologous pairs line up at the equatorial (metaphase) plate
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23
Q

What is the fourth phase of meiosis I and what happens?

A
  1. Anaphase I - when the homologous chromosomes (each with two chromatids) after separation move to opposite poles of the cell
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24
Q

What is the fifth phase of meiosis I and what happens?

A
  1. Telophase I - when the chromosomes gather into nuclei and the original cell divides through cytokinesis
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25
Q

What is crossing over?

A

it is the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids at the chiasmata

this results in recombinant chromatids (re combined two things into something new) chromatids and increases the genetic variability

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26
Q

What is independent assortment?

A

when chromosome pairs align randomly during metaphase one

i.e one side could be all blue and the other all red or it could be a random mixture of the pairs

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27
Q

What is the first phase of meiosis II and what happens?

A
  1. Prophase II - chromosomes condense again after a brief interphase but there is NO replication of DNA
28
Q

What is the second phase of meiosis II and what happens?

A
  1. Prometaphase II - the chromosomes are attached to kinetochores microtubules at the kinetochore
29
Q

What is the third phase of meiosis II and what happens?

A
  1. Metaphase II - the centromeres of the paired chromatids line up along the equatorial plate of each cell
30
Q

What is the fourth phase of meiosis II and what happens?

A
  1. Anaphase II - the sister chromatids separate and become chromosomes, moving to opposite poles
31
Q

What is the fifth phase of meiosis II?

A
  1. Telophase II - when the chromosomes gather into nuclei and the cells divide in cytokinesis

product of cytokinesis in meiosis II is four separate cells with a nucleus with a haploid number of chromosomes

32
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

non- disjunction literally means no separation

it is when homologous pairs fail to separate at anaphase I (APC) and as a result, sister chromatids fail to separate in meiosis II

which results in aneuploidy - chromosomes that lacking or present in excess

33
Q

Why is apoptosis important?

A

It can get rid of cells that are no longer needed
(like the connective tissue of the hand of a fetus)

Or other old cells that are prone to genetic damage and are beyond repair, so they don’t cause cancer

34
Q

What initiates apoptosis?

A

hormones, growth factors, viral infections toxins, and extensive DNA damage all do

the signals act through signal transduction pathways

35
Q

What is a benign tumor?

A

they are masses of cells that

  1. grow slowly
  2. resemble the tissue they grow from
  3. are encapsulated and remain localized
36
Q

What is a malignant tumor?

A

are masses of cells that:
1. do not resemble the parent tissue
2. often have irregular structures
3. are not encapsulated which leads to metastasis

37
Q

What are oncogenes?

A

positive regulators in cancer cells

normal regulators become mutated to be overactive or present in excess

38
Q

What are tumor suppressors?

A

they are negative regulators such as RB that fail to inhibit the cell cycle and become inactive in cancer cells

39
Q

What is an allele?

A

they are alternate forms of a gene

example is R and r, which are the same gene but just different forms

40
Q

Explain the (P), (F1), and (F2) generations in Mendel’s original round and wrinkled seeds.

A

generation started with a dominant homozygous and a recessive homozygous

F1 the resulting offspring of P is all heterozygous, which are self-bred

F2 the result of two heterozygotes gives the 3 to 1 phenotypic ratio of and the 1 to 2 to 1 genotypic ratio

41
Q

Explain the P, F1 and F2 in the dihybrid cross of seed shape and color.

A

P in this scenario was the homozygous dominant RRYY and the homozygous recessive rryy

F1 resulting from P was all heterozygotes RrYy

F2 shows a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio, but 9 different genotypes show in a 16 punnet square in which the RY, Ry, rY, and ry gametes are bred

42
Q

What was the significance of Mendel’s first law?

A

that our genes occur in pairs and segregate from each other during formation of gametes

the law of segregation entails that two copies of a gene separate during gamete formation (one copy per sex cell)

43
Q

What was Mendel’s second law?

A

the law of independent assortment which states that copies of different genes on the gametes assort independently (shown by the dihybrid cross)

44
Q

What is the multiplication rule?

A

the probability of two independent events happening together can be found by multiplying the probabilities of the events together

eg. getting a heads two times flipping coins is a 1/4 odds (1/2 x 1/2)

45
Q

What is the addition rule?

A

the probability that an event can occur in two different ways is just the sum of the separate probabilities

eg. chances of getting a heads OR a tails in one turn (1/2 + 1/2) = 1

46
Q

What is true breeding?

A

when the parental generation has the same exact genotype in order to show the same phenotype in the next generation

e.g would be HH with another HH or yy with yy

47
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A

when alleles are neither dominant or recessive, so heterozygotes have a new intermediate phenotype,

alleles have not blended and the original phenotypes will show up later down the road

MORE PHENOTYPIC DIVERSITY

48
Q

what is co-dominance?

A

when more than one allele codes for a functional protein,

dominant R red allele and dominant W white allele come together to have red and white spots or vice versa

MORE PHENOTYPIC DIVERSITY

49
Q

What is a mutation?

A

it is a stable inherited change in genetic material

-alleles that are not wild types are mutant alleles.

50
Q

What is a locus?

A

it is the specific location of a gene on a chromosome

51
Q

What are linked genes?

A

since many genes are found on a single chromosome, when genes are physically linked they reveal inheritance patterns that aren’t mendelian

example is the fruit flies where color of bodies and size wings were linked genes and so the recessive pairs and dominant pairs showed a different ratio than the 1 to 1 to 1 to 1 predicted

52
Q

What is Pleiotropy?

A

is when one allele has multiple phenotypic effects

example would be Marfan syndrome, which is caused by variation in the FBN1 gene, people with Marfan syndrome tend to be tall with long thin fingers, toes and limbs.

53
Q

What is epistasis?

A

is when the phenotypic expression of one gene is influenced by another gene

example is that alleles for black and brown dogs aren’t expressed unless the E allele is expressed bbEe and BbEE are brown and black dogs respectively

54
Q

What is the effect of the environment on phenotype?

A

Light, temperature, nutrition, etc. effect the expression of genotype

55
Q

What is significant about Siamese cats and rabbits in reference to environmental effect?

A

There is point restriction coat patterns in them where enzymes that produce dark fur are inactive at higher temps

therefore the nose ears are cooler so they appear darker

56
Q

How can prokaryotes exchange genes?

A

they exchange genes when the DNA of a donor cell passes to recipient cell through “conjugation”

DNA often lines up and crossing over occurs, changing the makeup.

57
Q

What are plasmids?

A

they are small circular chromosomes that can
1. move between cells during DNA transfer
2. can replicate independently of main chromosome

58
Q

What kind of genes do plasmids contain?

A
  1. genes that code for unusual metabolic functions, like breaking down hydrocarbons
  2. genes that code for antibiotic resistance
  3. genes that code for making a sex pilus
59
Q

What are the purines?

A

they are nitrogenous bases that are two rings fused and are adenine and gUanine

60
Q

What are the pyrimidines?

A

they are single ringed nitrogenous bases and they include cytosine and thYmine (and in RNA also Uracil)

61
Q

When does replication start?

A

when the pre-replication complex of proteins bind to the origin of replication

62
Q

What are the single stranded binding proteins?

A

they work with the DNA helicase to keep the separate strands from folding back

63
Q

What are primers?

A

the primer is a short starter strand, usually RNA, that is complementary to the DNA template so the polymerase can grab onto it

64
Q

What are the three DNA repair mechanisms?

A
  1. Proofreading: DNA polymerase recognizes mismatched pairs and removes incorrectly paired bases
  2. Mismatch repair: newly replicated DNA is scanned for
    mistakes by other proteins, and mismatches can be corrected
  3. Excision repair: enzymes scan DNA for damaged bases –they’re excised and DNA polymerase I adds the correct ones
65
Q

What is PCR?

A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR): an automated process that makes multiple copies of short DNA sequences for genetic manipulation and research i.e amplifying small amounts of DNA

BIO 110 (19 decks)

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