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Unit III Flashcards

1
Q

Thickness of epidermis

A

1-4 mm

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2
Q

Procollagen structure

A

3 separate chains arranged in alpha helical structure

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3
Q

Inherited disorder of elastin

A

pseudoxanthoma elasticum

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4
Q

Pseudoxanthoma elasticum

A

mutation in multidrug resistance complex

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5
Q

In PXE the dermis becomees

A

enlarged, tangled and calcified-> purple-blue color

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6
Q

Sucquet-Hoyer canal

A

control of homeostasis

- shunts blood to skin during overheating and away in hypothermia

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7
Q

Identification of a verruca

A

central thrombosed capillary loop

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8
Q

Most common cause of leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

strep infection

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9
Q

in alopecia-> conversion of ___ to ___

A

test-> 5 dihydrotestosterone

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10
Q

5 alpha reductase inhibitor

A

finasteride

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11
Q

Drug that promotes anagen phase of hair growth

A

minoxidil

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12
Q

Drug that decreases sebum production

A

isotretinoin (Accutane)

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13
Q

3 main components of eccrine gland

A
  • The coiled secretory portion deep in the dermis
    • The intradermal duct (coiled and straight duct)
    • The intraepidermal portion (called the acrosyringium
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14
Q

Cells that surround the apocrine coiled gland

A

myoepithelial cells

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15
Q

___ pigment is responsible for colored sweat in chromohidrosis

A

lipofuscin pigment

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16
Q

Basal cell carcinomas have mutations in the

A

patched 1 gene (part of hedgehog pathway)

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17
Q

Treatment for BCC

A

Vismodegib

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18
Q

SCC begins in what part of the skin

A

upper part of the epidermis

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19
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma in situ AKA

A

Bowen’s disease

- confined to epidermis

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20
Q

They usually appear as a solitary lesion in sun exposed skin.
They can develop fairly quickly over 6 to 8 weeks with sizes of 1-3 cm.
Histopathologically, there is a cup-shaped invagination of the epidermis with keratinfilled
central crater. Most cells are large with pale, eosinophilic “glassy” cytoplasm

A

Keratoacanthoma

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21
Q

Important anti-microbial peptides on skin (5)

A
  1. alpha defensins (hNP1, hNP2)
  2. beta defensins (hBD1,2,3)
  3. cathelicidin (hCAP-18)
  4. psoriasin
  5. RNase7
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22
Q

3 types of dermatophytes

A
  1. epidermophyton- socks and jocks
  2. microsporum- tinea corporus, cat
  3. Trichophyton
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23
Q

child with gray patch/ scaling of scalp w/ occipital lymphadenopathy

A

tinea capitis

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24
Q

Hyperkaratotic foot

A

tinea pedis

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25
Q

Candidiasis effects

A

mucous membranes and skin

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26
Q

Cardida infection on corners of mouth

A

angular chelitis (perleche)

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27
Q

tinea versicolor age

A

post pubertal

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28
Q

Scabies transmission

A

person to person (rarely by fomites)

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29
Q

Norwegian scabies

A

crusted scabies

immunocompromised and diminished sensory function

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30
Q

Super antigen to atopic dermatitis

A

staphylococcus aureus

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31
Q

Associatedd with psoriasis

A
  • arthritis
  • crohns
  • obesity, metabolic syndrome
  • cardiovascular disease
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32
Q

Most common adverse effect of glucocorticosteroids

A

skin atrophy

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33
Q

Vitamin D synthesis reaction

A

7-dehydrocholesterol-> cholecalciferol by UVB

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34
Q

Meissner’s corpuscles made of

A

Schwann cells and sensory nerve terminals

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35
Q

Embryology of dermal structures

A
  • underlying mesenchyme (will become dermal papillae) induces primitive ectodermal germ (PEG, follicular unit) in overlying fetal skin
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36
Q

Lower bulge

A

attachment for arrector pili

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37
Q

Middle bulge

A

sebaceous gland

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38
Q

upper bulge

A

apocrine gland

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39
Q

blocked pores

A

comedones

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40
Q

Eccrine gland derived from

A

eccrine germ

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41
Q

Chromohidrosis is exclusively ___ in origin

A

apocrine

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42
Q

Small molecule inhibitor of smoothened in BCC

A

vismodegib

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43
Q

SCC that begins within scars, ulcers

A

marjolin’s ulcer

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44
Q

Smoking is a risk factor for ___ but not ___

A

SCC

BCC

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45
Q

Development of nodularity (blue or black papule or nodule) in melanoma

A

Deep tumor

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46
Q

Two types of melanoma not associated with intense, intermittant sun exposure

A
  • lentigo maligna melanoma

- acral lentiginous melanoma

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47
Q

Breslow depth greater than 4mm

A

Bad prognosis

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48
Q

Infantile hemangiomas more common in ___

49
Q

Treat infantile hemangiomas with ___

A

beta blockers

50
Q

Will dermatofibros grow if left untreated?

51
Q

Sign of Leser Trelat

A

sudden onset of multiple seborrheic keratosis-> adenocarcinoma of the stomach

52
Q

Ephelides

53
Q

Lentigo

54
Q

Port wine stains are a mutation in

55
Q

Complications of dermatofibromas

A

pain, pruritus

56
Q

Seborrheic keratosis is a benign tumor of

A

hair follicle

57
Q

THe only appropriate treatment options for nevocellular nevi (3)

A
  • shave biopsy
  • punch
  • excision
58
Q

Incubation perios of erysipelas

59
Q

CBC cellulitis

A

Leukocytosis

60
Q

Majocchi’s granuloma

A

variant of tinea corporis characterized by follicular pustules and granulomas

61
Q

Test for irritant contact dermatitis

A

NOnedrug eruption

62
Q

Differential diagnosis for drug eruption

A

Viral exanthem

63
Q

Intertrigo

A

contact dermatitis caused by friction

64
Q

Flaky, greasy scales on head->

A

sebhorreic dermatitis

65
Q

AAD guideline for max use of class I topical steroids

A

don’t exceed 50 g per week

66
Q

Examples of intracellular restriction factors

A
  • Trim5: blocks retroviruses

- APOBEC: blocks HIV and HCV

67
Q

Similar to TLRs that recognize viral nucleic acids

68
Q

alpha subfamily: HSV-1,2 and VZV establish dormancy in

A

sensory ganglia

69
Q

Beta subfamily: CMV, HHV-6, 7 establish latency in

A

monocytes and lymphocytes

70
Q

gamma subfamily: EBV, KSHV establish latency in

71
Q

Incubation period of Herpesviruses

A

2-12 days: average 4 days

72
Q

Definitive diagnosis for herpes simplex

A
  • viral culture of lesions
  • direct fluorescent antibody
  • PCR- most expensive
73
Q

3 groups of patients that should be treated with IV acyclovir

A
  • neonatal herpes
  • immunocompromised hosts
  • encephalitis or meningoencephilitis
74
Q

Incubation period of chickenpox

A

10-21 days after exposure

75
Q

Varivax dosing regimen

A
  • Initial dose: 12-15 months

- Booster dose- 4-6 years

76
Q

Incubation period CMV

A

2 weeks to 2 month

77
Q

Reactivation of CMV-> (5)

A
  1. pneumonia
  2. colitis
  3. hepatitis
  4. encephalitis
  5. Retinitis
78
Q

Congenital CMV

A
  • mothers contract PRIMARY CMV during pregnancy
79
Q

Blueberry muffin spots

A

extramedullary hematopoiesis in skin-> Congenital CMV

80
Q

Tricky point about diagnosis of CMV

A

many people with old disease shed virus intermittantly

81
Q

Telangiectasias are common in what type of skin cancer?

82
Q

Sebhorreic dermatoses + onchymyocis + rapid onset psoriasis->

83
Q

Fever of unknown origin + splinter hemorrages + janeway lesions + osler nodes + roth spots->

A

infective endocarditis

84
Q

Skin tightening + Raynaud’s + esoph/gi dysmotlity ->

A

scleroderma

85
Q

Porhyria cutanea tarda

A

associated with hepatitis

86
Q

Herpesvirus: E genes encode

A

transcriptional activators

87
Q

Herpesvirus: L genes encode

A

structural proteins, such as capsid and glycoprotein

88
Q

Herpesviruses acquire envelope from

A

Golgi complex

89
Q

More severe in herpesvirus infection: primary or secondary infection?

90
Q

Encephalitis is primarily caused by HSV-1 or HSV-2? Childhood, adult, neonate

A

Childhood and adults- HSV-1

Neonate- HSV-2

91
Q

3 forms of neonatal herpes

A
  1. Skin eye and mucous membrane
  2. CNS
  3. Disseminated- most severe
92
Q

Who to not give live attenuated virus to

A

immunocompromised patients

93
Q

CMV infects epithelial cells of ___ and ___

A

salivary gland or genital tract

94
Q

Most frequent clinical manifestations of CMV (4)

A

pneumonia
colitis
retinitis
hepatitis

95
Q

Influenza lives on the hand for

96
Q

Influenza lives on steel or plastic for

A

24-48 hours

97
Q

Influenza lives on cloth or paper for

A

8-12 hours

98
Q

Flu symptoms in adolescents and adults

A
  • fever
  • chills
  • myalgias
  • headache
  • cough
99
Q

Flu symptoms in neonates

A
  • lethargy
  • decreased eating
  • mottling
  • apnea
100
Q

Flue symptoms in infants and toddlers

A
  • GI
  • fever
  • anorexia
  • respiratory symptoms
101
Q

CDC recommendation for influenza vaccination

A

anyone older than 6 months without a contraindication

102
Q

Most common cause of encephalitis in US

103
Q

Diagnosis of herpes keratitis

A

Fluorescein stain

104
Q

HSV establish latency in

A

sensory ganglia

105
Q

stages of vzv

A

blister-> pustules-> scab

106
Q

Treatment of VZV

A 
- acyclovir within 48-72 hrs
immune globulin (varazig) within 48 hours
107
Q

Treat of PHN (post herpetic neuralgia)

A

NSAIDs or corticosteroids

108
Q

Eye involvement with no pain

109
Q

Temporal lobe involvement

A

Think encephalitis-> HSV

110
Q

Bowen’s disease (SCC) in anal and genital area indicative of

A

HPV infection

111
Q

People with EB are at increased risk of

112
Q

Spongiotic dermatitis

A

Irritant contact dermatitis

113
Q

What type of target molecule receptors for viruses are the least specific

A

Carbohydrate

114
Q

Humoral response is critical for ___ of viruses

A

recognition

115
Q

Cell mediated response is critical for ___ and ___ of microbes

A

recognizing and eliminating

116
Q

When necrotizing fasciitis occurs in chicken pox, it is most often due to

A

Group A strep

117
Q

Only test for CMV that can distinguish primary and recurrent infections

118
Q

Neonatal acyclovir clearance

A

only 1/3 of adults

119
Q

2 RSV immunoprophylaxis

A
  • Palivizumab: monoclonal anti-RSV

- Motavizumab- binds to F protein

Disease and defense random (6 decks)

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