Unit III Flashcards

1
Q

Congenital AML translocations (5)

A
  1. t(8,21)
  2. inv(16) or t(16;16)
  3. t(15;17)
  4. t91;22)
  5. 11q23
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

t-AML (2)

A
  1. alkylating reagent or radiation (whole/partial loss of 5/7)
  2. Topo II inhib (rearrangement of MLL) 11q23
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

NOS-AML (3)

A
  1. FLT3 (ITD)
  2. NPM1
  3. CEBPA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Markers for B-ALL (4)

A
  1. CD19
  2. 22
  3. 79a
  4. Lack CD20
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3 B-ALL

A
  1. t(9;22)- p190
  2. MLL, 11q23
  3. t(12,21)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Markers for T-ALL (7)

A
  1. cd2
  2. 3
  3. 7
  4. 4/8 + or -
  5. 99
  6. 1a
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CML

A
  1. t(9,22), p210
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PV

A

JAK2 mutation (V617F), nearly all have this mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MPNs (4)

A
  1. CML- neutrophilia
  2. polycythemia vera-erythrocytosis
  3. Primary myelofibrosis- granu/megakaryocytic lineages
  4. Essential thrombocytopenia- thrombocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Burkett’s positive (5)

A

GC B cell

  1. cd19
  2. 20
  3. 10
  4. BCL6
  5. c-myc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Burkett’s neg (4)

A
  1. BCL2
  2. CD5
  3. CD23
  4. TdT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Follicular lymphoma + (5)

A
  1. 19
  2. 20
  3. BCL-2
  4. 10
  5. BCL-6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma + (6)

A
  1. 19
  2. 20
  3. 5 ***
  4. BCL-1 **
  5. 10
  6. BCL-6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SLL/CLL + (3)

A

5
23
19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Signs/sympt of anemia (4)

A

fatigue, malaise, pallor, dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Signs/symptoms of thrombocytopenia (3)

A

bruising, petechial, hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Signs/symptoms of neutropenia

A

fever, infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The genetic perturbations that cause AML appear to occur at the level of the

A

pluripotential stem cell

one of committed progenitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The genetic perturbations that cause ALL appear to occur at the level of the

A

lymphoid stem cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

WBC in ALL

A

increased, normal, or decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CML philias

A

neutrophils

sometime baso and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

OV philias

A

RBC

neutrophils and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Thinking PV but no JAK2 mutation->

A

secondary erythrocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Splenomegaly in ET

A

NOT COMMON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
CD20
mantle cell B-cells and germinal center B-cells
26
CD3
T cells in paracortex
27
Smudge cell
CLL
28
CD38-, ZAP-70-, germline IGH@ V, pre-germinal center | in CLL
Favorable
29
Neg mantle cell lymphoma
CD23
30
T cell deficiencies infection (2)
candida albicans | pneumocystis jirovecci
31
(2) complement mediated damage Type II diseases
1. myasthenia gravis | 2. goodpasture
32
Many drugs, such as | ___ ____ _____ ____ can induce AIHA,
penicillin, methyldopa, chlorpromazine and quinidine,
33
Two steps of Type IV hypersensitivity
1. Initiation | 2. Elicitation
34
mantoux skin test is injected
intradermally (necessary to see bubble)
35
+ PPD test, you will see which cell predominantly if biopsied
macrophages | Th1 can attract 1000
36
Anergy
lack of reaction by the body's defense mechanisms to foreign substances, and consists of a direct induction of peripheral lymphocyte tolerance.
37
2 ways to get a false positive TB test
1. exposure to other species of mycobacteria | 2. BCG vaccine
38
Monoclonal antibody to CD20 on B cells in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
rituximab
39
TH2 cells in immunopathology
asthma and chronic worm infestation
40
Mycobacterium leprae
- leprosy | some people have TH1 responses and others have Th2 responses
41
TH1 response to mycobacterium leprae
tuberculoid leprosy but control infection
42
TH2 response to mycobacterium leprae
lepromatous leprosy | uncontrolled with small granulomas
43
PRR present in the gut that detects foreign bacterium
NOD2
44
NOD2
- detects muramyl dipeptide (component of bacterial cells walls) - Activates NFKB
45
Diagnosing celiacs
1/ small intestine biopsy | 2. antibody to transglutaminase 2
46
Autoantibody to transglutaminase 3->
dermatitis herpetiformis
47
HLA chronis beryllium disease
HLA-Dp
48
HLA Psoriasis
HLA-Cw*06:02
49
Psoriasis common in
African American | - not Africans though-> environmental factors
50
anti-IL-23 antibody for psoriasis treatment
tildrakizumab
51
Pseudo-pelger-Huet cells
neutrophils with bi-lobed nuclei *** dysgranulopoiesis
52
Dysmegakaryopoiesis
megakaryocytes w/ hypolobated or non-lobated nuclei. hyperchromatic nuclei. small
53
Signs/ symptoms of ET
- transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) (these are essentially small strokes causing no permanent damage) - digital ischemia with paresthesias - thrombosis of major arteries or veins (less common than in PV) - splenomegaly is not common in PV, and is more suggestive of another MPN
54
Common genetic findings of CLL
1. deletion of 13q14- most common 2. trisomy 12 3. deletion of 11q22-23 4 deletion 17p13
55
M protein
monoclonal protein
56
Extraosseous plasmacytomas are present where?
upper respiratory tract
57
Binucleated plasma cells in marrow->
Plasma cell myeloma
58
NLPHL
type of hodgkins lymphoma - indolent malignancy - popcorn or lymphocyte predominant cells
59
Hodgkin cell
Mononuclear variant of reed-Sternberg cells
60
Sudden onset of TB->
think HIV OR targeted immunity to IFN gamma
61
Neutralization example
In SE asia-> neutralizing antibodies to IFN gamma-> makes T cells worthless
62
Poison ivy toxic compound
urushirol
63
CVID-> increased risk of
lymphoma, enteropathy, autoimmunity
64
Memory T cells have a lower
activation threshold (takes less antigen)
65
Shogren syndrome involves what type of t cells
CTL
66
Symptoms of acute GvHD
- maculopapular skin rash - diarrhea - hepatic inflammation w/ jaundice - infections
67
TGF beta favors differentiation of ___ to ___
Tho into Treg
68
Peyers path composition
- Lots of TGFbeta - dendritic cells make Il-10-> Treg - Lots of Treg cells - Tfh cells that drive B cells to IgA
69
Symptoms of Type III hypersens
1. arthralgia/arthritis 2. pleurisy/pleural effusion 3. sterile peritonitis 4. skin rash- esp on shins 5. CNS- confusion 6. glomerulonephritis
70
In plasma cell myeloma, M proteins are typically:
IgG, and sometimes IgA
71
Chronic spontaneous urticaria
- IgG to FcR1 receptor on mast cells-> chronic release of histamine Test: inject their own serum intradermally Treat: omalizumab- binds to Fc of IgE
72
Nucala (mepolizumab)
interleukin 5 agonist | reduces sever asthma attacks by reducing levels of eosinophils
73
Size of immune complexes that activate complement but are too small to be removed by the RE system
about a million daltons
74
Serum sickness like symptoms can be seen with
patients with viral infections-> especially hepatitis
75
In hypersensitivity pneumonitis (farmer's lung) Type III progresses to ->
Type IV
76
Distinct features of IgA1
- long hinge region | - terminal sugars of the carbohydrate chain in the hinge are missing
77
Carbohydrate epitope in IgA1
N-acetyl-galactosamine (frequent in bacteria and viruses)
78
Low levels of complement C1 and C4
Lupus