Unit D Human Systems Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Catabolic metabolism

A

large chemicals are broken into smaller ones
Energy is released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Anabolic metabolism

A

complex chemicals are built from smaller ones
Energy is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Neutral:

A

pH ~7
Neutralization reaction (acid + base → salt + water)
Hydrogen ions = hydroxide ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acidic:

A

pH < 7
Hydrogen ions > hydroxide ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Basic:

A

pH > 7
Hydrogen ions < hydroxide ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Inorganic Molecules -

A

no carbon bound to hydrogen:
Minerals
Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Organic Molecules

A

contain carbon and hydrogen bound
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Nucleic Acids
Lipids (Fats)
Vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most large biological molecules are

A

polymers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Polymers are long chains of repeating molecular subunits, or building blocks, called

A

monomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Monosaccharides:

A

1 sugar (eg. glucose, fructose, galactose)
Used as monomers to build more complex sugars (polymers / polysaccharides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Disaccharides:

A

Two monosaccharides put together by dehydration synthesis
Can be broken down into the monosaccharides by hydrolysis to break the bond joining the two monosaccharides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Polysaccharides:

A

many sugar units/monosaccharides put together (eg. starch, glycogen, cellulose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in dehydration synthesis,

A

large biological molecules assemble.

A water molecule is released in the process (dehydration = remove water) and this allows for two monomers to join with a covalent bond. This is an anabolic reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In hydrolysis,

A

polymers are broken down into monomers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Carbohydrates are ____ We can identify them by their suffix ___

A

sugars, “-ose”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

carbohydrates have a ratio of…

A

a carbon-hydrogen-oxygen ratio of 1:2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

glucose, fructose, and galactose are all examples of

A

monosaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lipids

A

non-polar molecules (insoluble in water)
often made of a glycerol backbone and a fatty acids combined through dehydration synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

lipid Functions:

A

structural materials (cell membranes, cushion delicate organs, carrier for fat soluble vitamins [A, D, E, K], raw materials of hormones)
energy reservoirs (excess glycogen in animals is converted into fat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

four Groups:

A

Triglycerides: fats, oils
Phospholipids: membranes
Waxes
Sterols: cholesterol, steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Animal triglycerides (fats)

A

(Saturated fats)
Saturated fats have single bonds throughout and are quite stable so these fats are difficult for our bodies to break down.
Solid (fat) or semi-solid (oil) at room temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Plant triglycerides (oils)

A

(Unsaturated fats)
Polyunsaturated meaning they have some double bonds that are more reactive than single bonds, so they are easier for our bodies to break down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sterols include..

A

Cholesterol
Steroids (hormones; chemical messengers)
Male sex hormones are called androgens
Female sex hormones are called estrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Liposome is…

A

double layered sphere used to:
Carry drugs throughout the body
Gene therapy: introduce new DNA to cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Essential Amino Acids:

A

are amino acids that our bodies cannot produce. We get these amino acids from the foods we eat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The ____ is what the protein is made up of

A

primary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The _____ are the initial coils and folds that occur, based on the hydrogen bonds between amino acids

A

secondary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The ____ is the irregular folding that occurs as a result of the interactions between the R-groups [chains/branches on amino acid].

A

tertiary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The ____ occurs when there is clustering of two or more polypeptides into one macromolecule.

A

quarternary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Denature means…

A

bonds are disrupted causing temporary change. The protein can resume its original shape once the factor is removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Coagulation means…

A

results in a permanent change in the protein shape. (Eg. boiling an egg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Exposing a protein to excessive heat, radiation, or pH change can alter the protein’s…

A

shape or function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

testing for Carbohydrates…

A

to test for simple sugars, test with Benedict’s reagent and heat. A colour change will be present if a reducing sugar is present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

testing for Starch…

A

to test for complex sugars, we test with iodine. If starch is present, there will be a dark purple colour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

testing for proteins…

A

to test for proteins we do a biuret test which will react with peptide bonds. The more bonds, the darker the purple colour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

testing for lipids…

A

a common way to test for lipids is using a brown paper bag to do a translucence test. The brown paper bag will absorb lipids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Enzymes are…

A

catalysts. This means they are able to speed up the rate of reactions WITHOUT being consumed/changed in the process.
permit low temperature reactions by reducing the activation energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A good indication that you have an enzyme is that it will end in

A

“-ase”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Enzyme Parts:

A

Active Site: site of reaction
Substrate: substance changed by enzyme, can be built or split (anabolic or catabolic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Enzyme Models:

A

Lock & Key Model: Active site is rigid and fits only the properly shaped substrate

Induced Fit Model: Active site is flexible and can change to fit the substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Enzyme reaction rate (activity) is affected by:

A

Substrate Molecule Concentration,
Temperature,
Competitive Inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Substrate Molecule Concentration is..

A

the more substrate molecules that are available, the greater the number of interactions between the substrate and enzyme = increase in reaction rate!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ingestion is…

A

act of eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Digestion is..

A

process of food breakdown (enzymatic hydrolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Absorption…

A

the uptake of small molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Egestion is …

A

removal of undigested material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Mechanical [Physical] Digestion is…

A

involves physically breaking the food into smaller pieces. Mechanical digestion includes chewing (mastication), churning of food in the stomach, and segmentation in the small intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Chemical Digestion is…

A

involves breaking down the food into simpler nutrients with enzymes. Chemical digestion begins in the mouth with salivary amylase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

salivary glands contain…

A

contains salivary amylase which breaks down starch (chemical digestion).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The ____ is a muscular tube that carries food to the stomach.

A

esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Food is moved by ____ which are rhythmic contractions that force food down to the stomach.

A

peristalsis,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

At the distal end of the esophagus there is a sphincter called the ___ that leads to the stomach.

A

cardiac sphincter or lower esophageal sphincter (LES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Food remains in the stomach for about ____, before exiting the____ into the Small Intestine.

A

2-4 hours, Pyloric Sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pepsin is..

A

an enzyme that is used to break down proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Rennin (Chymosin) is ….

A

a milk clotting protein that is important in digestion for babies (tapers off early in place of pepsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Endoscope is..

A

a flexible tube shaped instrument with a lens and light source that can be fitted with a laser to diagnose problems and/or perform surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The small intestine is…

A

the primary site of chemical digestion and nutrient absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

three segments to the small intestine:

A

Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The small intestines ridges have finger like projections called____ that help with absorption and mixing food with enzymes.

A

Villi (singular = villus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The villi have small hair-like projections called ___ to help with absorption even more!

A

microvilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Blood vessels (capillary network) absorbs..

A

absorb amino acids and monosaccharides. Will also absorb some water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Lacteal is…

A

a small vessel within the small intestine villi that absorbs fatty acids (digested fats) into the lymphatic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The large intestine is responsible for…

A

storing leftover organic material (feces) and some absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The pocket and small extension at the start of the long intestine are called the ___ and ___

A

cecum and appendix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

the colon and has three parts called..

A

(ascending, transverse, descending).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

the major part of the long intestine is referred to as the…

A

colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The last part of the long intestine is the ___

A

rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Functions of the large intestine:

A

Absorb water and electrolytes
Produces and absorbs vitamins [Vitamin B & K]
Forms and propels feces to rectum for elimination
Home to E. coli and other bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

the function of the rectum is

A

storing feces before egestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Functions of cecum:

A

Absorb fluids and salts that remain after intestinal digestion and absorption. Mixes contents with mucus, to lubricate

71
Q

organs that secrete substances that aid in the digestion and absorption of nutrients include..

A

Pancreas
Liver
Gallbladder

72
Q

Functions of appendix:

A

House “good” bacteria (probiotics) that aid in vitamin synthesis & digestive health

73
Q

The pancreas is an ____, meaning it secretes substances via ducts.

A

exocrine gland

74
Q

The gallbladder is

A

a small organ that is very closely linked to the liver.

75
Q

The gallbladder stores..

A

bile, and a combination of fluids, fats, and cholesterol.

76
Q

Bile enters into the small intestine via the ___ when proteins are detected

A

bile duct

77
Q

an emulsifier means it….

A

breakins large fat globules into smaller droplets [mechanical digestion]

78
Q

Bile is made of 2 main components:

A

Bile Salts: help breakdown fat globules
Bile Pigments: liver breaks down Red Blood Cells and stores in gallbladder for removal

79
Q

Gallstones are..

A

bile salts and cholesterol that form large crystals in the gallbladder that block the bile duct

80
Q

Jaundice is..

A

yellowing of skin and other tissues
(eg. eyes). Can be caused by a blocked bile duct.

81
Q

Cirrhosis is..

A

chronic liver inflammation. Damaged liver tissue gets replaced by non-functioning fat and connective tissue decreasing normal liver functioning.

82
Q

Bile helps to….

A

break down lipids in your intestine. It is an emulsifier

83
Q

Ventilation (Breathing) is…

A

the process by which air enters and leaves the lungs.
air goes in and air comes out

84
Q

Gas Exchange (Respiration) is…

A

the process of diffusion of O2 and CO2
O2 from lungs → circulatory system → cells
CO2 from cells → circulatory system → lungs

85
Q

Cellular Respiration is…

A

the oxidation of glucose in the production of ATP.
Glucose + O2 → CO2 + H2O + ATP

86
Q

The Flow of Air from Nose to Blood

A

Nostrils
Nasal Cavity
Pharynx
Epiglottis
Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchioles
Alveoli
Capillaries

87
Q

structures and functions of the Nasal Cavity:

A

2 nostrils; connects to pharynx
Filter the air, and trap particles (eg dust) using tiny hairs and mucus
Warms and moistens the air

88
Q

structures and functions of the Pharynx:

A

Air filled channel at the back of the mouth
Passageway for food and air; will branch out to the esophagus or towards the trachea

89
Q

structures and functions of the Epiglottis:

A

Flap that covers the trachea when swallowing to prevent food from entering.
If epiglottis does not close, the reflex is a cough

90
Q

structures and functions of the Larynx: AKA “voicebox”

A

Contains 2 elastic ligaments. When air passes through the ligaments vibrate producing sound
Larynx surrounded by layer of thick cartilage which forms the “Adam’s Apple” [more pronounced in males]

91
Q

structures and functions of the Trachea: AKA “windpipe”

A

Lined with mucus-producing cells and cilia
Mucus traps particles/debris that made it past the nasal filtration
Cilia help “sweep” particles back up towards the mouth
Surrounded by rings of cartilage and smooth muscle to prevent collapsing (keep trachea open)
Connects larynx to the two bronchi

92
Q

structures and functions of the Bronchi:

A

Trachea branches into 2 tubes called the bronchi (singular: bronchus)
Left & Right bronchi
Contain cartilage bands to prevent collapse
Carry air into the right and left lung

93
Q

structures and functions of the Bronchioles:

A

Bronchi split into smaller branches called bronchioles
There are NO cartilage bands
Contains rings of muscle to control diameter of airway (dilate and constrict)
Wheezing (eg. asthma) can be caused by the constriction of bronchioles

94
Q

structures and functions of the Alveoli:

A

Tiny air sacs (0.20µm) at the end of the bronchioles
Each lung contains ~150 MILLION alveoli
Contains a thin film of lipoprotein (to prevent alveoli from sticking together)
Very thin (one cell thick) surrounded by capillary network
HUGE surface area
Site of gas exchange
Diffusion with concentration gradient; O2 into capillaries; CO2 out of capillaries

95
Q

structures and functions of the Pleural Membrane:

A

2 thin membranes
One surrounds the outer surface of lung
One surrounds the inner surface of thoracic cavity (ribs)
Between the membranes is a lubricant to reduce friction

96
Q

structures and functions of the Diaphragm:

A

Dome-shaped band of muscle
Separates thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity
Helps with inhalation & exhalation as a result of changing pressure

97
Q

structures and functions of the Intercostal Muscles

A

Muscles attached to rib cage that help with breathing
Muscles contract (flex): pulls rib cage up and out, increasing volume of chest
Muscles relax: chest wall pushes against lungs to help force air

98
Q

Inhalation:

A

Diaphragm contracts (the diaphragm will flatten down)
Intercostal muscles contract (pulling ribs up and out)

99
Q

Exhalation:

A

Diaphragm relaxes (the diaphragm will return to dome position)
Intercostal muscles relax (ribs spring down and in)

100
Q

The amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each breath can be measured with a …

A

spirograph.

101
Q

Tidal Volume is…

A

volume of air that can be inhaled and exhaled in a normal breath

102
Q

Inspiratory Reserve Volume is…

A

additional volume of air that can be taken into the lung

103
Q

Expiratory Reserve Volume is …

A

additional volume of air that can be forced out of the lungs

104
Q

Vital Capacity is…

A

The total volume of air that can be moved in and out of the lungs

105
Q

Residual Volume is…

A

the amount of air that remains in the lungs

106
Q

oxygen is,..

A

Constantly being used by cells in the tissues
Always a LOW partial pressure of O2 in the cells, so it is able to move INTO the cells
Required for cellular respiration

107
Q

carbon dioxide is…

A

Constantly being produced by cells in the tissues
Always a HIGH partial pressure of CO2 in the cells, so it is able to move OUT OF the cells
Product of cellular respiration

108
Q

Hemoglobin is….

A

an oxygen-carrying molecule, consisting of iron and protein that forms a weak bond with dissolved O2 molecule.

109
Q

Carbon dioxide is ___ more soluble than oxygen

A

20X

110
Q

carbon dioxide can move through the body by:

A

Dissolved in the plasma (~9%)
Attached to hemoglobin (~27%) → carbaminohemoglobin
As carbonic acid with water (~64%) → bicarbonate ions in the blood for pH buffering

111
Q

Chemoreceptors is..

A

specialized nerve receptors that are sensitive to specific chemicals.

112
Q

the two types of chemoreceptors are…

A

Carbon dioxide chemoreceptors
Oxygen chemoreceptors

113
Q

Carbon Dioxide Chemoreceptors:

A
  • MAIN regulators of breathing
  • Located in the medulla oblongata of the brain
  • Detects increased amount of CO2 in the form of an acid in blood
  • Nerves cells in medulla oblongata send nerve impulses to diaphragm and intercostal muscles to increase breathing rate
  • Increases exchange of CO2 and O2
  • When CO2 levels decrease, the chemoreceptors inactivate
114
Q

Oxygen Chemoreceptors:

A
  • BACKUP regulators of breathing
  • Located in the carotid and aortic arteries
  • Detects decreased levels of O2 [but normal CO2]
    Eg. high altitudes, carbon monoxide poisoning
  • Sends nerve impulses to the medulla oblongata, which send nerve impulses to diaphragm and intercostal muscles to increase breathing rate
  • Increases exchange of CO2 and O2
  • Able to also detect increases in CO2, but the medulla is more sensitive to these changes
115
Q

Factors That INCREASE Breathing rate

A

CO2 Increase
O2 Decrease:
[H+] Increase:

116
Q

CO2 Increase:

A

Medulla Oblongata detects high CO2 levels
Medulla Oblongata sends nerve signal to diaphragm and intercostal muscles to INCREASE breathing

117
Q

O2 Decrease:

A

Carotid and Aortic arteries detect low O2 levels and sends message to Medulla Oblongata
Medulla Oblongata sends nerve signal to diaphragm and intercostal muscles to INCREASE breathing

118
Q

[H+] Increase:

A

Hydrogen ion concentration related to pH. Lots of H+ = low pH (acid)
H+ level increases when CO2 increases

119
Q

Bronchitis is caused by…

A

Caused by bacterial or viral infections or by reactions to environmental chemicals
“-itis” means an inflammation of so Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchioles causing:
Narrowing of air passages
Increased mucus secretions
Difficulty with air movement

120
Q

Asthma is…

A

Reversible narrowing of the bronchial passage
Tissues that line the walls of the bronchioles swell and may spasm
Increase in mucus secretions causing difficulty with breathing
May hear wheezing as flow is restricted

121
Q

Emphysema is..

A

Over-inflation of the lungs cause the walls of the alveoli to stretch and rupture
Loss of alveoli = less surface area for gas exchange = lower O2 level
Usually accompanied by chronic bronchitis in a condition called Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

122
Q

Lung Cancer is…

A

Uncontrolled growth of cells = tumor
Causes decrease in surface area for gas diffusion
Tumors may even block the bronchioles, reducing the airflow to the lungs (potentially causing lung collapse)

123
Q

Pneumothorax means a..

A

Collapsed lung

124
Q

Laryngitis is..

A

Inflammation of the larynx

125
Q

Respiratory Distress Syndrome

A

When the lipoprotein on the alveoli is missing in some newborns (especially premature babies) the force to overcome the surface tension is so great that the alveoli are collapsed. May result in death.

126
Q

Blood is considered a ____ because it links all cells and organs in the body.

A

connective tissue

127
Q

Plasma is..

A

the fluid component of blood

128
Q

__% of blood volume is plasma

A

55%

129
Q

3 types of proteins:

A

Albumins: maintain osmotic balance by drawing water back into the capillaries
Globulins: produce antibodies to fight infection, and transport fats
Fibrinogen: helps with blood clotting

130
Q

The remaining 45% of blood volume is made up of several cell types:

A

Erythrocytes: red blood cells (RBCs)
Leukocytes: white blood cells (WBCs)
Thrombocytes: platelets

131
Q

qualities of Erythrocytes: red blood cells (RBCs)

A
  • Make up 99% of all blood cells
  • Specially designed to carry oxygen using the iron-containing compound hemoglobin
  • Lack a nucleus (enucleated)
  • Can’t reproduce, but increases the O2 carrying capacity
  • Biconcave shape (increases the amount of surface area than a spherical cell)
132
Q

Anemia is..

A

A condition characterized by a lack of RBCs and hemoglobin, decreasing oxygen delivery to cells.
Can be caused by iron deficiency or hemorrhage (loss of blood)

133
Q

qualities of Leukocytes: white blood cells (WBCs)

A
  • Make up ~1% of blood cells
  • Responsible for immune system responses
  • Have a nucleus (nucleated)
  • Produced in bone marrow
  • There are many types: Leukocytes,
    Phagocytes, Granulocytes
134
Q

qualities of Thrombocytes: platelets…

A

Less than 1% of blood cells
- Responsible for blood clotting reactions
- No nucleus (enucleated)
- Produced in bone marrow
- Irregularly shaped
- Platelets float through blood vessels and catch on broken vessel walls causing a tear in the platelet, which initiates blood clotting

135
Q

a Thrombus is…

A

a blood clot that blocks a blood vessel.
In the brain this causes a stroke
In the heart this causes a heart attack

136
Q

a Embolus is…

A

a blood clot that dislodges and travels through the circulatory system to vital organs. Can be life threatening.

137
Q

blood type A: have..

A

the “A” antigen on the cells

138
Q

blood type B: have..

A

the “B” antigen on the cells

139
Q

blood type AB have…

A

have BOTH A & B antigen

140
Q

blood type O have..

A

do not have either antigen

141
Q

Antigen is..

A

protein markers on the surface of all cells that are used to help identify the cell. Antigens are like a “fingerprint”

142
Q

Antibodies are…

A

Y-shaped proteins produced by white blood cells when a foreign antigen enters the body. Antibodies work like “handcuffs,” immobilizing the invader. Each antibody is unique for a particular antigen

143
Q

A blood transfusion will work ONLY if…

A

a person who is going to receive blood has a blood group that does not have antibodies against the donor blood antigens.

144
Q

Blood type _ is the Universal Donor and blood type __ is the Universal Recipient

A

O, AB

145
Q

Cardiac Output is…

A

measurement of the amount of blood that is pumped by the heart each minute. It can be used to judge fitness of a person and is determined by the stroke volume and heart rate.

146
Q

Stroke Volume is…

A

the quantity of blood pumped with each heartbeat

147
Q

Heart Rate is…

A

number of times the heart beats in one minute

148
Q

Blood Pressure is…

A

measurement of the force exerted by blood upon the walls of the arteries.

149
Q

Blood pressure is measured using a…

A

sphygmomanometer.

150
Q

The average pressure in adults per heartbeat is…

A

120 mmHg.

151
Q

Average diastolic pressure in adults is

A

80 mmHg.

152
Q

Blood pressure (BP) depends on two factors:

A

Cardiac Output
Arterial Resistance

153
Q

The baroreceptors will send nerve impulses to the ____when blood pressure is too high or too low.

A

medulla oblongata

154
Q

Special baroreceptors (baro = pressure) in the walls of the ___ and ____ arteries detect changes in __

A

aorta and carotid arteries detect changes in BP

155
Q

Issues with chronic high blood pressure:

A

weakens arteries, ruptures blood vessels causes organ damage

156
Q

Issues with chronic low blood pressure:

A

poor nutrient and oxygen circulation

157
Q

Exchange of matter is between the _____ and the ____

A

extracellular fluid (ECF) and the blood.

158
Q

Extracellular fluid is the…

A

fluid that surrounds the tissue cells and blood; it is also known as interstitial fluid

159
Q

Lymphatic System:

A

a system of fluid drainage in the body connected by a network of vessels (like veins), nodes, ducts, and organs, used to transport lymph.

160
Q

Lymph:

A

a colourless fluid found in lymph vessels that contains some proteins, waste, debris, and carries cells to help fight infections.

161
Q

Lymphocytes:

A

a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies. Produced in the bone marrow.

162
Q

Functions of the Lymphatic System:

A
  • Maintenance of Fluid Balance - collects and returns extracellular fluid to the blood
  • Immunity - transports foreign particles and cellular debris to the lymph nodes where they can be filtered out and removed
  • Transport Fats - absorb products of lipid digestion from the small intestine (lacteals) and transport through the body
163
Q

Lymph Nodes:

A

bean-shaped structures that act as filters to trap foreign particles, and store lymphocytes.

164
Q

Lymphoid organs..

A

Spleen: reservoir for blood and filtering site for lymph
Thymus: site of lymphocyte maturation

165
Q

Metabolic wastes include:

A

CO2
Na+
Cl-
H+
Nitrogenous wastes, such as NH3 [most immediately toxic]

166
Q

Excretion is…

A

the process of separating wastes from the body fluids and eliminating them

167
Q

The kidneys play a crucial role in: (3)

A

Removing wastes
Balancing blood pH
Maintaining water balance

168
Q

deamination is when…

A

The liver removes an amino group from proteins, forming ammonia (toxic!).

169
Q

after deamination, the liver combines ammonia with ___ to create ____

A

combines ammonia with Carbon Dioxide to create Urea

170
Q

Uric Acid is formed by the breakdown of…

A

nucleic acids

171
Q

Renal arteries branch from the ____ and enter the ____

A

aorta, kidneys.

172
Q

The kidney has three different structures/layers:

A

Cortex = outside
Medulla = middle
Renal Pelvis = hollow inner chamber which funnels urine to the ureter

173
Q
A