Unit 8: NURSING CARE OF MALE AND FEMALE CLIENTS WITH GENERAL AND SPECIFIC PROBLEMS IN REPRODUCTION AND SEXUALITY Flashcards

1
Q

Most abundant male sex hormone

A

Testosterone

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2
Q

Normal acidic pH of vagina

A

4-5

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3
Q

Oviduct is aka

A

Fallopian Tube

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4
Q

Common Fertilization Site

A

Ampulla

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5
Q

Not being pregnant after at least one year of unprotected sex

A

Infertility

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6
Q

Inability to conceive because of a known condition

A

Sterility

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7
Q

Normal BMI Range

A

18.5-24-9

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8
Q

_______ is a noncancerous condition resulting from fibrous scar tissue that develops on the penis and causes curved, painful erections

A

Peyronie’s (pay-roe-NEEZ) disease

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9
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that has a vasoconstricting effect

A

Viagra

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10
Q

Most common cause of subfertility in women

A

Anovulation

Absence of ovulation

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11
Q

A belief that the human body is not something one should be ashamed of but should be exposed in the public

A

Nudism

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12
Q

On what part of the testes is sperm made?

A

Convoluted seminiferous tubules

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13
Q

It is where the sperm is stored

A

Epididymis

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14
Q

How many days does the sperm stay in the epididymis before moving to the vas deferens?

A

2-10 days

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15
Q

Vas deferens aka

A

Ductus Deferens

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16
Q

Secrete a viscous alkaline liquid with a high sugar, protein, and prostaglandin content.

A

Seminal vesicles

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17
Q

Secretes a thin, alkaline fluid, which further protects sperm by increasing the naturally low pH level of the urethra.

A

Prostate Gland

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18
Q

Bulbourethral Glands are aka

A

Cowper’s glands

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19
Q

Supplies one more source of alkaline fluid to help ensure the safe passage of spermatozoa

A

Bulbourethral Glands

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20
Q

Consists of the seminal vesicles, the prostate gland, and the bulbourethral glands

A

Accessory Glands

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21
Q
  • Nourishes the sperm
  • Protects the sperm from the acidic environment of the woman’s vagina
  • Enhances the motility (movement) of the sperm
A

Accessory Glands

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22
Q

Is a tubular structure made of muscle and membranous tissue that connects the external genitalia to the uterus

A

Vagina

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23
Q

Normal Acidic pH of the vagina

A

4-5

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24
Q
  • Provides a passageway for sperm to enter the uterus
  • Allows drainage of menstrual fluids and other secretions
  • Provides a passageway for the infant’s birth
A

Vagina

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25
Q

is a hollow muscular Organ in which a fertilized ovum is implanted, an embryo forms, and a fetus develops

A

Uterus

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26
Q

3 parts of the Uterus

A

Fundus
Corpus
Cervix

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27
Q

The neck of the uterus

A

Cervix

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28
Q

Inner or mucosal layer that is functional during menstruation and implantation of the fertilized ovum

A

Endometrium

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29
Q

The fallopian tube is aka ____ and _____

A

Uterine Tube

Oviduct

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30
Q

4 sections of the fallopian tube

A

Interstitial portion

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31
Q

Section of the fallopian tube that extends into the uterine cavity and lies within the wall of the uterus

A

Interstitial portion

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32
Q

Section of the fallopian tube which is a narrow area near the uterus

A

Isthmus

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33
Q

Section of the fallopian tube which is the wider area of the tube and is the usual site of fertilization

A

Ampulla

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34
Q

Section of the fallopian tube which is the funnel-like enlarged distal end of the tube

A

Infundibulum

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35
Q

How frequent does one ovum mature and released from the ovary?

A

Every month

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36
Q

Are two almond-shaped glands, each about the size of a walnut

A

Ovaries

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37
Q
  • Production of hormones, chiefly estrogen and progesterone

- Stimulation of an ovum’s maturation during each menstrual cycle

A

Ovaries

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38
Q

Inability to conceive a child or sustain a pregnancy to birth

A

Infertility

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39
Q

A couple is said to be ____if they have not become pregnant after at least 1 year of unprotected sex

A

infertile

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40
Q

Infertility is considered to be a diagnosis for couples who have not achieved pregnancy after 1 year of regular, unprotected intercourse when the woman is less than ____years of age or after____ months when the woman is older than ____

A

35
6
35

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41
Q

Term more often used rather than Infertility

A

Subfertility

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42
Q

Type of subfertility when there have been no previous conceptions

A

Primary Subfertility

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43
Q

Type of subfertility for when there has been a previous viable pregnancy
but the couple is unable to conceive at present

A

Secondary Subfertility

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44
Q

The chance of achieving pregnancy and subsequent live birth within one menstrual cycle

A

Fecundity

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45
Q

Is a condition related to infertility and refers to women who have difficulty getting pregnant or carrying a pregnancy to term.

A

Impaired fecundity

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46
Q

If a woman is younger than 35 years of age, it is usually suggested she have an evaluation after ____ of subfertility

A

1 year

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47
Q

If a woman is older than 35 years, she should be seen after ____ of subfertility

A

6 months

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48
Q

Fertility testing can be scheduled, such as not before age ___years and not after age ___years

A

18

45

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49
Q

3 Assessments for Subfertility Investigation (SOT)

A
Semen analysis (M)
Ovulation monitoring (F)
Tubal patency (F)
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50
Q

sperm count is the number of sperm in a single ejaculation or in a ____ of semen

A

milliliter

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51
Q

The minimum sperm count considered normal has:

___ to ___ million sperm per ml of seminal fluid, or ___million per ejaculation

A

33
46
50

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52
Q

The minimum sperm count considered normal has:

____ of sperm that are motile

A

50%

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53
Q

The minimum sperm count considered normal has:

___ of sperm that are normal in shape and form

A

30%

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54
Q

Type of sperm motility where the sperm swims in mostly straight line or large circles.

A

Progressive Motility

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55
Q

Type of sperm motility where the sperm do not travel in straight lines or that swim in very tight circles.

A

Non-Progressive Motility

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56
Q

Healthy sperm motility -sperm with forward progressions of at least ___micrometers per second

A

25

57
Q

Is diagnosed when less than 32 percent of the sperm are able to move efficiently

A

Poor sperm motility or asthenozoospermia

58
Q
  • absence of sperm

- absence of spermatozoa in the semen or the inability to ejaculate semen.

A

Aspermia

59
Q

-fewer than 20 million sperm per milliliter

A

Oligospermia-

60
Q

Basic test for male infertility

A

Semen Analysis

61
Q

In semen analysis, a male should produce a minimum of ___ to ____ of semen

A

1.4-1.7 mL

62
Q

Medical treatment for premature ejaculation

A

Dapoxetine

63
Q

2 phosphodiesterase inhibitors for the treatment of Premature ejaculation

A

Sildenafil (Viagra)

Tadalafil (Cialis)

64
Q

Most common cause of subfertility in women

A

Anovulation

65
Q

The most frequent cause of anovulation is the naturally occurring variations in _____ or _____

A

Ovulatory patterns

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome

66
Q

a sonographic examination of the fallopian tubes and uterus using an ultrasound contrast agent introduced into the uterus through a narrow catheter inserted into the uterine cervix followed by intravaginal scanning

A

Sonohysterosalpingogram

67
Q

a radiopaque contrast medium is used and the fallopian tubes are revealed by X-ray

A

Hysterosalpingogram

68
Q

allows direct visualization of the female peritoneal cavity

A

Transvaginal Hydrolaparoscopy

69
Q

most effective therapy in younger women with distal tubal damage

A

laparoscopic surgery

70
Q

fibroids that grow within the muscular uterine wall

A

Intramural fibroids

71
Q

fibroids that bulge into the uterine cavity

A

Submucosal fibroids

72
Q

fibroids that project to the outside of the uterus.

A

Subserosal fibroids

73
Q

refers to the implantation of uterine endometrium, or nodules, that have spread from the interior of the uterus to locations outside the uterus

A

Endometriosis

74
Q

most common type of abnormal uterine development

A

Septate Uterus

75
Q

therapy to increase mucus production during days 5 to 10 of the cycle

A

low-dose estrogen therapy

76
Q

is the instillation of sperm from a masturbatory sample into the female reproductive tract by means of a cannula to aid conception at the time of ovulation

A

IUI

77
Q

Instead of waiting for fertilization to occur in the laboratory, both ova and sperm are instilled, within a matter of hours, using a laparoscopic technique, into the open end of a patent fallopian tube.

A

Gamete intrafallopian transfer

78
Q

the egg is fertilized in the laboratory, and the fertilized egg is transferred by laparoscopic technique into the end of a waiting fallopian tube.

A

zygote intrafallopian transfer

79
Q

the oocyte is fertilized in the laboratory by the recipient woman’s partner’s sperm (or donor sperm) and placed in the recipient woman’s uterus by embryonic transfer

A

surrogate embryo transfer

80
Q

Donor sperm are used to inseminate the female partner.

A

Therapeutic donor

insemination (TDI)

81
Q

One sperm cell is selected to be injected directly into the

egg to achieve fertilization. It is used with IVF.

A

Intracytoplasmic sperm

injection

82
Q

The zona pellucida is penetrated chemically or manually
to create an opening for the dividing embryo to hatch
and implant into the uterine wall.

A

Assisted hatching

83
Q

an individually expressed and highly personal phenomenon that evolves from life experiences.

A

Sexuality

84
Q

how one values oneself as a sexual being

A

Sexual self-concept

85
Q

a central part of the sense of self

A

Body image

86
Q

one’s self-image as a

female or male

A

Gender identity

87
Q

is the outward expression of a person’s

sense of maleness or femaleness as well as the expression of what is perceived as gender-appropriate behavior

A

Gender-role behavior

88
Q

flexibility in gender roles

is the belief that most characteristics and behaviors are human qualities that should not be limited to one specific gender or the other.

A

Androgyny

89
Q

one’s attraction to people of the same sex, other sex, or both sexes

A

Sexual orientation

90
Q

strong and persistent feelings of discomfort with one’s assigned gender or gender identity disorder

A

gender dysphoria

91
Q

involves emotionally committed romantic partners engaging in sex with others, typically in the presence of one’s partner

A

swinging

92
Q

constant, unremitting burning that is localized to the vulva with an acute onset.

A

Vulvodynia

93
Q

causes severe pain only on touch or attempted vaginal entry

A

Vestibulitis

94
Q

Counseling for Altered sexual Function (PLISSIT)

A

P -Permission giving
LI -Limited information
SS -Specific suggestions
IT -Intensive therapy

95
Q

more frequent chlamydia screening at __ intervals is indicated for MSM,

A

3-month

96
Q

all pregnant women should be screened for chlamydia at their __prenatal visit

A

first

97
Q

pregnant women under 25 and those at increased risk for chlamydia (e.g., women who have a new or more than one sex partner) should be screened again in their __trimester

A

third

98
Q

pregnant women with chlamydial infection should be retested __weeks and __months after completion of recommended therapy.

A

3 …3

99
Q

an inflammation of the liver capsule and surrounding peritoneum, which is associated with right upper quadrant pain

A

PID that develop perihepatitis, or “Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome”

100
Q

triad of symptoms (reactive arthritis, urethritis and conjunctivitis)

A

Reiter’s Syndrome

101
Q

caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum

A

Syphilis

102
Q

transmitted from person to person by direct contact with a sore, known as a chancre

A

Syphilis

103
Q

Type of Syphilis has a sore or sores at the original site of infection

A

Primary Syphilis

104
Q

Type of Syphilis

sores are usually firm, round, and painless.

A

Primary Syphilis

105
Q

Type of Syphilis

sore usually lasts 3 to 6 weeks and heals regardless of whether or not the person received treatment

A

Primary Syphilis

106
Q

Type of Syphilis

the rash can look like rough, red, or reddish brown spots on the palms of hands and/or the bottoms of feet

A

Secondary Syphilis

107
Q

Type of Syphilis
the rash usually won’t itch and it is sometimes so faint
fever, swollen lymph glands, sore throat, patchy hair loss, headaches, weight loss, muscle aches, and fatigue (feeling very tired)

A

Secondary Syphilis

108
Q

is a period of time when there are no visible signs or symptoms of syphilis

A

Latent Stage

109
Q

Type of Syphilis

can affect many different organ systems (heart and blood vessels, and the brain and nervous system)

very serious and would occur 10–30 years after the infection began

damages the internal organs and can result in death

A

Tertiary Syphilis

110
Q

most common curable STD

A

Trichomoniasis

111
Q

Trichomoniasis is caused by infection with

a protozoan parasite called _____

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

112
Q

white, yellowish, or greenish
copious watery, frothy vaginal discharge.
is a sign of ____ in females

A

Trichomoniasis

113
Q

Trichomoniasis is treated with ___ or ____

A

Metronidazole

Tinidazole

114
Q

thick, white, cheesy or curd-like discharge in females is a sign of ___

A

candidiasis

115
Q

plaque of cheesy material under foreskin of males is __

A

candidiasis

116
Q

type of VVC which is not usually acquired through sexual intercourse

A

Uncomplicated VVC

117
Q

type of VVC can occur concomitantly with STDs

A

Uncomplicated VVC

118
Q

Vaginal cultures should be obtained from women with complicated VVC to confirm clinical diagnosis and identify unusual species, including nonalbicans species, particularly ___

A

Candida glabrata

119
Q

first line maintenance regimen for RVVC

A

Fluconazole

120
Q

Oral herpes is usually caused by the virus ____

A

HSV-1

121
Q

Gonorrhea an STD caused by infection with the _____

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacterium

122
Q

white, yellow, or green discharge from the penis that usually appears one to fourteen days after infection is a sign of

A

Gonorrhea

123
Q

urethritis with watery white discharge, which may become purulent. in men is a sign of ___

A

Gonorrhea

124
Q

yellowish vaginal discharge

painful or burning sensation when urinating

vaginal bleeding between periods

is a sign of

A

Gonorrhea

125
Q

most common sexually transmitted infection (STI)

A

human papillomavirus infection

126
Q

most recognized sign of genital human papillomavirus (HPV) infection

A

Genital warts

127
Q

Genital warts is aka

A

Condyloma Acuminatum

128
Q

HPV types___and ___are usually associated with genital warts

A

6

11

129
Q

on dry skin areas, lesions are hard and yellow-gray in males

A

HPV

130
Q

on moist areas, lesions are pink orred and soft with a cauliflower-like appearance in males

A

HPV

131
Q

caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovarsL1, L2, or L3

A

Lymphogranuloma Venereum

132
Q

Most common clinical manifestation among heterosexuals is tender inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy that is typically unilateral

A

Lymphogranuloma Venereum

Pathognomonic Sign

133
Q

LGV rectal exposure in women or MSM can result in ___mimicking inflammatory bowel disease (mucoid and/or hemorrhagic rectal discharge, anal pain, constipation, fever, and/or tenesmus)

A

proctocolitis

134
Q

if it is not treated early, LGV proctocolitis can lead to ___and ___

A

chronic colorectal fistulas

strictures

135
Q

What stage of LGV?

a self-limited painless papule in the genital mucosa or in the rectum, which can often go unnoticed

A

Initial Stage

136
Q

What stage of LGV?

a florid and painful inguinal or femoral lymphadenopathy, or an acute hemorrhagic proctitis

A

Secondary

137
Q

What stage of LGV?

rectal discharge or pain, feel an urge to defecate or incomplete defecation, or have rectal bleeding and anal itching

A

Secondary

138
Q

What stage of LGV?

Systemic symptoms such as fevers, chills or malaise

A

Secondary

139
Q

What stage of LGV?

chronic inflammatory changes, such as lymphatic obstruction causing genital elephantiasis

A

Tertiary