Unit 5: Nursing care of High-Risk Infant Flashcards

1
Q

Condition with inappropriate degree of inattention, impulsiveness, and hyperactivity

A

ADHD

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2
Q

Average age of ADHD onset

A

7 years old

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3
Q

2 Criteria for Diagnosing ADHD

A

6 or more symptoms of (1) Hyperactivity-Impulsiveness
present for at least 6 months or
(2) Inattention present for at least 6 months

to an extent that is disruptive and
inappropriate for developmental level.

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4
Q
Does not like quiet activities
Fidgets and Squirms
Unlimited Talking
Constant motion
Cannot Sit Still
Dashes and Touches Everything

These are symptoms of _________

A

Hyperactivity

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5
Q
Blurts Inappropriate Comments
Acts without thinking of consequences
No emotional restraint 
Difficulty waiting
Aggressive/Unruly
Interrupts Conversations...Impatient

Are Symptoms of ________

A

Impulsivity

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6
Q
Forgetful
Easily Distracted
Looses important things
Avoids Effort
Not following instructions
Does not listen

Are Symptoms of________

A

Inattention

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7
Q

2 Types of ADHD

A

Predominantly Inattentive Type

Predominantly Hyperactive-Impulsive Type

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8
Q

Aka Rabbit Type ADHD

A

Predominantly Hyperactive-Impulsive Type

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9
Q

Aka Pooh Type ADHD

A

Predominantly Inattentive Type

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10
Q

The client has poor impulse control, difficulty sitting still, and is fidgeting or squirming. What is the type of ADHD?

A

Predominantly Hyperactive-Impulsive Type
or
Rabbit Type

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11
Q

The client is inattentive, sluggish, slow-moving, unmotivated, daydreamer

A

Predominantly Inattentive Type
or
Pooh Type

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12
Q

Behavior Disorder
Antisocial Disorder
Developmental Disorder

Disruptive Behavior Disorder
Oppositional Defiant Disorder
Conduct Disorder

6 Classifications of ____

A

ADHD

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13
Q
Preservatives
Artificial Food Coloring
Genetics
Environment
Sugar and Coffee

Are etiologies for ____

A

ADHD

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14
Q

Wellbutrin
Effexor
Tricyclic Depressants

Pamelor
Intuniv
Catapres/Tenex
Strattera

7 Drugs for Treating______

A

ADHD

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15
Q

Few Simple Rules/Firm Limits
Avoid Fatigue/Overstimulation
REgular Daily Routine
Structured Environment

Treatment Plan for _____

A

ADHD

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16
Q

1st Line of treatment for ADHD

A

Methlyphenidate (Ritalin)

Stimulant used to treat for ADHD and Narcolepsy

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17
Q

A group of Disorders with common disabilities in (1) Social awareness (2) Communication Skills (3) Imaginative Play

A

Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)

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18
Q

Withdrawal of the child into the self and into the fantasy world of his creation

A

Imaginative Play

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19
Q

Autism appears in the first __ years of life

A

3

No medical detection
No known cure

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20
Q

Autism affects the brain’s normal development of ___ and _____ skills

A

Social

Communication

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21
Q

Autism happens in ____ out of every ___ children

A

1…110

More common than pediatric cancer, AIDS, and Diabetes combined

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22
Q

Autism is ___ times as many in boys than girls

A

4

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23
Q

Parents over ___ years old can have a child with autism

A

40

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24
Q

Have distinctive abilities in art, music, mathematics or memory

A

Autistic Savants

1% of the population

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25
Q

7x as many as people as classic autism; average to higher IQ

A

Asperger’s Syndrome

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26
Q

A pervasive developmental disorder defined by same social impairments and restricted stereotyped behaviors seen in autistic disorder but no LANGUAGE and COGNITIVE delays involved

A

Asperger’s Disorder

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27
Q

Type of Autism: Severely to mildly handicapped in cognition and intellect

A

Classic or Kanner Autism

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28
Q

Classic Autism is ____ times more common in boys than in girls

A

4

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29
Q

Unusual distress in changing routines
Repeated body movements
Unusual attachment to objects
Sensitive Senses

Are Signs or Symptoms of ____

A

Autism

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30
Q

Main problem of ADHD

A

Decreased Attention Span

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31
Q

Refers to Autistic behavior wherein one gets stuck on a single topic or
task

A

Perseveration

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32
Q

During Play, a child with Autism does not _______

A

Imitate the actions of others

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33
Q

A complication of Autism wherein a child has a developmental problem including learning disabilities & cognitive impairment.

A

Fragile X Syndrome

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34
Q

Growth of numerous
noncancerous benign tumors in many parts of the
body( Kidney tumors ) - life threatening

A

Tuberous Sclerosis

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35
Q

3 Medications for Autism

A
Methylphenidate chloride (stimulant)
Opiate blockers (naltrexone/ReVia)
Antidepressants (fluvoxamine/Luvox)
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36
Q

Described by John Langdon Down in 1866: a group
of children with common traits that differed
from other children with mental retardation.

A

Down’s Syndrome or Trisomy 21

aka mongoloid

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37
Q

Most common chromosomal abnormality affecting

children today

A

Down’s Syndrome or Trisomy 21

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38
Q

Down’s Syndrome occurs from the presence of ___ copies of _____rather than the normal ___

A

3…chromosome 21…2

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39
Q

What age category/gender is at risk of giving birth to babies with Trisomy 21

A

Older women

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40
Q

51% over age 35 of individuals with Trisomy 21 presented with _______

A

Dementia

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41
Q

What gender lives longer in clients with Trisomy 21?

A

Males

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42
Q

Why is Caffeine or Sugar not allowed for clients with ADHD?

A

Because of drug interactions

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43
Q

Why is Autism more common in boys?

A

Due to x chromosome mutation

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44
Q

A client may have autism if he/she is unable to (4)

A

Gesture (12 months)
Babble (12 months)
Say a word (16 months)
Say two words (24 months)

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45
Q

Teaches a specific and comprehensive system of autism treatment & education designed to help families and caregivers enable their children to dramatically improve in all areas of learning, development, communication and skill acquisition.

A

Son-Rise Program

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46
Q

2 Nursing Management for Children with autism

A

Parents should be around as much as possible

Allow objects the client is attached to

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47
Q

The most common form of chromosomal translocation in humans. It means that two chromosomes, the structures that make up a person’s DNA, join together in an abnormal way.

A

Robertsonian Translocation

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48
Q

3 Types of Down Syndrome

A

Trisomy 21 Mosaicism
Trisomy 21
Robertsonian Translocation

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49
Q

Difference between Trisomy 21 and Robertsonian Translocation in terms of Maternal Aging

A

Trisomy 21 - frequency of trisomy
increases with increasing maternal age

Robertsonian translocation- not related
to maternal age

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50
Q

Inherited Robertsonian Translocation can result in (4):

A

Monosomy
Normal Chromosomes
Trisomy
Carrier of the Translocation

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51
Q

Protruding Tongue is a clinical feature of ______

A

Down’s Syndrome

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52
Q

Children with Down’s Syndrome Sit, creep, and Walk approximately at the age _____ the normal age

A

Twice

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53
Q

Typical Heart Disease in Down’s Syndrome

A

AV Septal Defect

50% of those with DS have heart disease

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54
Q

4 Common eye problems with Down’s Syndrome

A

Strabismus
Refractory Error

Glaucoma
Cataract

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55
Q

In Down’s Syndrome which occurs more frequently? Hypothyroidism
Hyperthyroidism

A

Hypothryoidism

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56
Q

People with Down’s Syndrome are at an increased risk of excessive mobility of atlas (C1) and the axis (C2), which may lead to spinal cord compression injury, this is called ______

A

Atlantoaxial

instability

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57
Q

Due to Atlantoaxial

instability what should nurses say to the parents of children with Down’s Syndrome?

A

Avoid participation in contact sports

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58
Q

Common Sleep Disorder in Down’s Syndrome

A

Sleep Apnea

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59
Q
Palmoplantar hyperkeratosis
Seborreic dermatitis
Fissured tongue
Cutis marmorata
Xerosis
...are skin disorders common in clients with \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Down’s Syndrome

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60
Q
Prenatal screening (amniocentesis, chorionic
villus sampling (CVS), or percutaneous umbilical
cord blood sampling, ultrasound) are diagnosis methods for\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Down’s Syndrome

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61
Q

Growth Measurements for children with Down’s Syndrome will help in the prevention of _______ and early diagnosis of ______ and _______.

A

Obesity…Celiac Disease…Hypothyroidism

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62
Q

An eye exam should be
performed in the newborn period or at least
before____ of age to detect ______
and ______.

A

6 months…strabismus…cataracts

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63
Q

Hearing Screening should be done in the newborn
period, every ____ until ____of age and then
____

A

6 months…3 yrs…annually

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64
Q

Thyroid Function assessment should be done in newborn period and should be repeated at ___ and ___months , and then _____

A

6…12…annually

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65
Q

Celiac Disease
Screening should begin at ___
yrs. Repeat screening if signs/Sx develop.

A

2

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66
Q

Is inadequate growth resulting from inability

to obtain or use calories required for growth

A

Failure to Thrive (FTT)

Described as a condition rather than a
specific disease.

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67
Q

For FTT, measurements drop more than ____percentiles from baseline

A

2

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68
Q

For FTT weight and height persistently falls below the ____ to ____percentile on a standard growth
chart

A

3rd…5th

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69
Q

Type of FTT where weight is below standard

A

Acute FTT

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70
Q

Type of FTT where Weight, Height, and Length are below standard

A

Chronic FTT

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71
Q

Types of FTT

A

Acute FTT

Chronic FTT

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72
Q

_____ is the single most common cause

of FTT that results from___ and___

A

Under feeding…parental poverty…ignorance.

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73
Q

2 Categories for FTT Etiology

A

Organic causes

Inorganic causes

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74
Q

Cardiac Disease, celiac, chron’s, hepatic, etc. are what type of FTT cause?

A

Organic cause

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75
Q

Disturbance in the parent-child
relationship resulting in maternal role
insufficiency is what type of FTT cause?

A

Inorganic cause

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76
Q

4 FTT Pathophysiology Classifications

A
  1. Inadequate caloric intake
  2. Inadequate absorption
  3. Increased metabolism
  4. Defective utilization of calories
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77
Q
Premature birth
Maternal Vices
Mechanical problems
Poor appetite
Inadequate Intake
Metabolic Abnormalities
Poor Food Absorption
Increased Nutrient Loss

…are what type of FTT cause

A

Organic cause

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78
Q

Causes due to caregiver’s actions are what type of FTT cause?

A

Inorganic Cause

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79
Q

The most common cause of FTT

A

Malnutrition

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80
Q

Prenatal factors such as Prematurity,
Exposure in utero to toxic agents,
and Intrauterine growth restriction from any cause may result to ________

A

FTT

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81
Q
Postnatal factors such as:
Inadequate caloric intake
Inadequate absorption
Increased caloric requirement
Defective utilization of calories
..may cause \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

FTT

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82
Q

During FTT, weight is lower than the _____ percentile

A

3rd

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83
Q

History Taking for FTT include______ or history of _______ in a 3-5 day period.

A

24h dietary recall…Food consumption

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84
Q

The _____ was devised to provide a simple method of screening for evidences of slow development in infants and preschool children

A

Denver Developmental Screening Test (DDST)

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85
Q

Assess the Degree of FTT:

Weight 75-90%

A

Mild

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86
Q

Assess the Degree of FTT:

Weight 60-74%

A

Moderate

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87
Q

Assess the Degree of FTT:

Weight <60%

A

Severe

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88
Q

Assess the Degree of FTT:

Height 90-95%

A

Mild

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89
Q

Assess the Degree of FTT:

Height 85-89%

A

Moderate

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90
Q

Assess the Degree of FTT:

Height <60%

A

Severe

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91
Q

Assess the Degree of FTT:

Wt/Ht ratio 81-90%

A

Mild

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92
Q

Assess the Degree of FTT:

Wt/Ht ratio 70-80%

A

Moderate

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93
Q

Assess the Degree of FTT:

Wt/Ht ratio <70%

A

Severe

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94
Q

Catch up growth for FTT is _ to _ times greater the

expected rate for age.

A

2..3

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95
Q

For FTT management Feeding interval should not be greater than __ hours and a maximum time allowed for
sucking should be_____ minutes

A

4.. 20

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96
Q

For FTT management ,older and young children meals should last for ___, solid foods should be offered
before liquid.

A

30 mins

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97
Q

For FTT what liquids should be avoided in excess?

A

Fruit juice

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98
Q

-Occur between the age of 6 and
60 months
-Temperature of 38C or higher
-Not the result of CNS infection or any metabolic
imbalance
-Occur in the absence of a history of prior afebrile seizures.

A

Febrile seizure

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99
Q

Febrile seizure is not the result of ___ infection

A

CNS

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100
Q

Febrile Seizures mostly resolves within ___ hours & require no treatment.

A

24

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101
Q

Is a fit that can happen when a child has a fever.

A

Febrile seizure

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102
Q

Febrile seizure is aka ____

A

Febrile convulsions

Relatively common and, in most cases, aren’t
serious

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103
Q

Age< 1 yr old

-is a ___risk factor for febrile seizure recurrence

A

Major

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104
Q

Duration of fever < 24hr

-is a ___risk factor for febrile seizure recurrence

A

Major

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105
Q

Fever 38-39 C

-is a ___risk factor for febrile seizure recurrence

A

Major

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106
Q

Family history of febrile seizures

-is a ___risk factor for febrile seizure recurrence

A

Minor

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107
Q

Family history of epilepsy

-is a ___risk factor for febrile seizure recurrence

A

Minor

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108
Q

Complex febrile seizure

-is a ___risk factor for febrile seizure recurrence

A

Minor

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109
Q

Male gender

-is a ___risk factor for febrile seizure recurrence

A

Minor

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110
Q

Lower serum sodium

-is a ___risk factor for febrile seizure recurrence

A

Minor

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111
Q

3 Types of febrile seizure

A

Simple febrile seizure
Complex febrile seizure
Febrile status epilepticus

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112
Q

The most common type of febrile seizure

A

Simple febrile seizure

8 out of 10 cases

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113
Q
Simple febrile seizure is a fit that:
is a\_\_\_\_  seizure
lasts \_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes
doesn't reoccur within \_\_\_or the period in which
the child has an illness
A

tonic clonic…less than 15…24 hours

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114
Q

The stiffening of muscles

A

Tonic

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115
Q

During _____ seizures , the mouth snap shuts, tongue may be injured… and there is increased salivation

A

Tonic

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116
Q

Type of simple febrile seizure that lasts 10-30 seconds

A

Tonic seizures

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117
Q
upward rolling of eye balls
loss of consciousness
may fall when standing
cyanotic
..are due to \_\_\_
A

Tonic seizures

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118
Q

Rigidity is replaced by intense jerking

movements

A

Clonic

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119
Q

Type of Simple febrile seizure where there is a generalized contraction of entire body

A

Tonic seizure

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120
Q

Type of Simple febrile seizure where there is Uncontrolled oral secretions

A

Clonic Seizure

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121
Q

Simple Febrile Seizures that last 30-50 seconds

A

Clonic Seizures

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122
Q

Trunk and extremities undergo rhythmic
contraction & relaxation
Incontinence of urine and feces

is due to ______

A

Clonic Seizures

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123
Q

______ seizures cause a stiffening of muscles while ____ seizures are characterized by jerking or twitching

A

Tonic…clonic

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124
Q

Type of Seizure where it lasts longer than 15 minutes

A

Complex Febrile Seizure

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125
Q

Type of Seizure where the child only has symptoms in one part of their body

A

Complex Febrile Seizure

aka Partial or focal seizure

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126
Q

Type of Seizure where the child has another seizure within 24 hours of the first seizure,
or during the same period of illness

A

Complex Febrile Seizure

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127
Q

Type of Seizure where the child doesn’t fully recover from the seizure within one hour

A

Complex Febrile Seizure

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128
Q

Type of Seizure:
Less common
2 out of 10 cases

A

Complex Febrile Seizure

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129
Q

Type of Febrile Seizure that is

Rare and is Continuous or in series

A

Febrile status epilepticus

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130
Q

Type of Febrile Seizure that Lasts longer than 30minutes

A

Febrile status epilepticus

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131
Q

Type of Febrile Seizure where the child does not regain premorbid Level of Consciousness

A

Febrile status epilepticus

Treatment should begin within 5 minutes

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132
Q

The main symptom of a febrile seizure is _____that occurs while a child has a fever.

A

a Fit

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133
Q

Febrile seizures often occur during the ___
day of a fever, which is defined as a high
temperature of ____ or above.

A

1st…38C (100.4F)

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134
Q

Simple Febrile Seizures usually lasts _____ minutes

A

Less than 5

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135
Q

Type of seizure that tend to last longer than 15 minutes, only affect one area of the child’s
body, and recurs within 24 hours or
during the period in which the child is ill.

A

Complex Febrile Seizure

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136
Q

Exact cause of Febrile Seizure

A

Unknown

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137
Q

2 First Aid Medications for Febrile Seizures

A

Diazepam

Midazolam

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138
Q

Recommended in children less than 12mo of age after

their first febrile seizure to rule out meningitis

A

Lumbar Puncture

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139
Q

Why is it important to consider if the child has

received prior antibiotics before Lumbar Puncture

A

It would mask the clinical symptoms of Meningitis

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140
Q

The presence of an identified source of fever , such as
otitis media , does not eliminate the possibility of
_____

A

Meningitis

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141
Q

_____are the major sign of meningitis in 13-15% of

children

A

Seizures

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142
Q

In drawing CSF samples _____ is sent to the chemistry laboratory for glucose and
protein.

A

Tube 1

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143
Q

In drawing CSF samples _____ is sent to the hematology laboratory for cell count
with differential.

A

Tube 2

144
Q

In drawing CSF samples _____ is sent to the microbiology and immunology
laboratory

A

Tube 3

145
Q

In drawing CSF samples _____is held for repeat cell count with differential; if needed for other subsequent studies, not initially ordered.

A

Tube 4

146
Q

For Meningitis, EEG should be generally restricted to special cases
if what is highly suspected?

A

Epilepsy

147
Q

EEG need not be performed as part of the

evaluation even though the child is presenting with his or her first simple febrile seizure if he/she is ______

A

Neurologically healthy

148
Q

__ or __ is not recommended during neuroimaging for Febrile Seizures

A

CT…MRI

149
Q

Blood glucose should be determined only in

children with prolonged______ _____ _____

A

Poor oral intake

150
Q

Patients with febrile status epilepticus have been reported to have swelling of their ____ acutely and subsequent long term hippocampal atrophy

A

Hippocampus

151
Q

______ therapy , continuous or
intermittent, is not recommended for children
with one or more simple febrile seizures.

A

Antiepileptic

152
Q

If the febrile seizure lasts >5mins, then acute treatment

with ____ ______ or _______ is needed

A

Diazepem
Lorazepam
Midazolam

(Anti-convulsants )

153
Q

Rectal _____ is often prescribed to be given
at the time of recurrence of febrile seizure lasting
> 5 min

A

Diazepam

154
Q

Buccal or intranasal ____

may be used and is often preferred by parents for treatment of febrile seizure

A

Midazolam

155
Q

___ can decrease the discomfort of the
child but do not reduce the risk of having a
recurrent febrile seizure

A

Antipyretics

156
Q

_______therapy may be
considered for children with high risk for later
epilepsy.

A

Chronic Anti-Epileptic

157
Q

IV benzodiazepines
Phenobarbital
Phenytoin
Valproate

4 Medications for ______

A

febrile status epilepticus

158
Q

Attempts to _____ will not prevent

seizures

A

Lower temperature

159
Q

Tepid sponge bath is _____ for febrile seizures

A

Not recommended

160
Q

Shivering effect _____metabolic output

A

Increases

161
Q

Cooling effect causes ______ in febrile seizures

A

Discomfort

162
Q

During seizures what position should the client be placed?

A

Side-Lying

163
Q

Parents should call the physician if it is the ____ seizure or when it lasts for longer than ___ minutes

A

1st…5

164
Q

Colic aka

A

Infant Colic
Infantile Colic
3-month Colic

165
Q

Abdominal pain or cramping manifested by

loud cry, and drawing of legs up to abdomen.

A

Colic

166
Q

Colic: 
common to in younger infants under age
___months than in older infants

A

3

167
Q

Colic is Self limiting resolves at ____months

A

3-4

168
Q

Colic is common among ____ and ___ babies

A

Bottlefed

Breastfed

169
Q

Crying inreases. during late afternoon to evening is aka _____

A

Witching hour

170
Q

Colic is manifested by unexplained fussing/crying lasting more than___
hours a day, at least ___ times per week within a ____
month period.

A

3…3…3

171
Q

Pediatricians often use the ______to diagnose colic

A

“Rule of

Three”

172
Q

Intense and prolonged crying
Sleeplessness, irritability and fussiness
Exhaustion
Abdominal bloating

are symptoms of _____
Passage of excessive flatus

A

Colic

173
Q

Immature digestive system
Lack of Probiotics
Allergens passed via breastmilk
Swallowing Air during Crying

4 possible causes of ______

A

Colic

174
Q

Baby cries suddenly and often after a feeding.
Cries continuously and louder.
Face gets flushed/re
Abdomen becomes distended, legs
alternating between flexion &extension, and
the hands get clenched , mostly evening.

…is indicative of ____

A

Colic

175
Q
Moaning
Shrill Cry
Vomiting
Stool Change
Fussy eater
Abnormal temperature
Irritability
Lethargy
Soft Head Bulge
Poor Weight Gain

are 10 red flag symptoms of ____

A

Colic

176
Q
Infection
Intestinal Pain
Trouble breathing
Increased Brain Pressure
Skin Pain
Mouth Pain
Kidney Pain
Eye Pain
Overdose
Others

are medical problems to consider for babies with red flag symptoms of _______

A

Colic

177
Q

Both parents having colic
Overfeeding in attempt to lessen crying
Feeding certain foods especially those with
high sugar content ( undiluted juices)
Presence of excessive anger, fear, anxiety,
excitement in the family

…are factors that ___ colic

A

Worsen

178
Q

Antispasmodics
Antihistamines
Antiflatulents

Medications for _____

A

Colic

*won’t completely resolve

179
Q

2 Milk choices for colic

A

Hydrolyzed Milk

Soy Milk

180
Q

3 Examples of Hydrolyzed Milk

A

Nutramigen
Alimentum
Pregestimil

181
Q

During breastfeeding a colicky infant what foods should the mother try eliminating for 7 days to see if improvement occurs. (6)

A
Cow Milk
Orange Juice
Peanuts
Cabbage family
Onions
Chocolates
182
Q

Hirschsprung disease aka

A

Congenital Aganglionic Megacolon

183
Q

Is a congenital anomaly that results in mechanical
obstruction from inadequate motility of part of the
intestine.

A

Hirschsprung Disease

184
Q

Is a congenital anomaly resulting to the absence of aganglionic cells in the distal colon
resulting in a functional obstruction.

A

Hirschsprung Disease

185
Q

Hirschsprung Disease is 4 times more common in what gender?

A

Males

186
Q

______ - 80% of Hirschsprung Disease that involves rectum to portion of distal colon

A

Short-segment disease

187
Q

_______- 15% of Hirschsprung Disease 15% that involves entire colon or small part of small intestines

A

Long-segment disease

188
Q

Hirschsprung Disease is more frequent in what gender?

A

Males

189
Q

Long Segment Disease is more common in what gender?

A

Females

190
Q

Hirschsprung Disease is associated with ______

A

Down’s Syndrome

191
Q

Classic Symptom of Hirschsprung Disease

A

Ribbon-like Stool

192
Q

2 Classic Signs of Hirschsprung Disease

A

Newborn with delayed passage of meconium

Obstinate constipation (inability to pass stool w/o softeners& laxatives)

193
Q
Foul smelly stool
Bowel obstruction &Abdominal distention
Poor feeding
Failure to thrive
About 10% diarrhea

…are clinical presentations of ____

A

Hirschsprung Disease

194
Q
Colonic perforation
Sepsis
Vomiting
Visible peristalsis, Palpable fecal mass
---are clinical presentations of\_\_\_\_
A

Hirschsprung Disease

195
Q

Distended abdomen
Inability to release flatus
An empty rectum on digital rectal
examination

…are physical presentations of _____

A

Hirschsprung Disease

196
Q

Rectal impaction
Rapid expulsion of feces after rectal
examination
…are physical presentations of _____

A

Hirchsprung Disease

197
Q

A _____ _____ _____ with potential ___

is the classic finding of Hirschsprung.

A

narrowed distal colon…dilation

198
Q

Failure to pass meconium within 24-48h

after birth is indicative of ______

A

Hirchsprung Disease

199
Q

Balloon is attached to rectum
The test records reflex pressure response of anal
sphincter to distension of balloon

A

Anorectal Manometry

200
Q

In Hirschsprung Disease the _____ is normal but _____fails to relax thus no bowel movement leading obstruction

A

External Sphincter
Internal Sphincter

Normally Internal S. relaxes followed by contraction
of External S.

201
Q

Confirmatory test that indicates an absence of ganglion cells

A

Rectal biopsy

202
Q

Histologic test for absence of ganglion cells

A

Simple suction rectal biopsy

203
Q

IV hydration
Nasogastric decompression
IV antibiotics

3 Cornerstones of initial medical management of ______

A

Hirschsprung Disease

204
Q

In 1949, Swenson described the first consistent

definitive procedure for Hirschsprung - ____ _____ ____

A

Rectosigmoidectomy with coloanal

anastomosis

205
Q

At the time of diagnosis of Hirschsprung Disease diverting _____ is performed; once the child grows and weighs more than _____ , the definitive repair is performed.

A

Colostomy…10kg

206
Q

The 3 most commonly performed definitive

repairs for Hirschsprung Disease are:

A
  1. Swenson
  2. Duhamel
  3. Soave procedure The Pull through
    Procedure)
207
Q

Type of surgical repair for Hirschsprung Disease wherein residual pouch of aganglionic bowel is left intact with the healthy bowel attached behind

A

Duhamel procedure

208
Q

Type of surgical repair for Hirschsprung Disease wherein the outer layer of the aganglionic bowel is left in place (muscular cuff)

A

Soave procedure

209
Q

Type of surgical repair for Hirschsprung Disease wherein all of the aganglionic bowel is removed

A

Swenson procedure

210
Q

It is the original pull through procedure used to

treat Hirschsprung disease.

A

Swenson procedure

211
Q

Was first described in 1956 as a modification to

the Swenson’s procedure.

A

Duhamel procedure

212
Q

Key points are that a retrorectal approach is used
and a significant portion of aganglionic rectum is
retained

A

Duhamel procedure

213
Q

Was introduced in the 1960”s
Consists of removing the mucosa and submucosa
and the rectum and pulling the ganglionic bowel
through the aganglionic muscular cuff of the
rectum.

A

Soave (endorectal) procedure

214
Q
For children (and occasionally adults) with ultra
short segment Hirschsprung disease.
A

Anorectal myomectomy

215
Q

The surgeon removes a 1 cm wide strip of
extramucosal rectal wall, beginning
immediately proximal to the dentate line and
extending to the normal ganglionic rectum

A

Anorectal myomectomy

216
Q

______ colostomy also indicates that a future
surgery will be done to close it. So the capabilities
of the parent to afford it at that time need to be
seen.

A

Temporary

217
Q

The rule of 8 6 4 2 is followed in bowel preparation for surgery. What is it?

A

8hrs before surgery no solid
6hrs before no formula
4hrs before no breastfeeding
2hrs before, nothing at all

218
Q
\_\_\_\_\_ diet may optimize post op bowel
function for client with Hirschsprung Disease
A

High fiber

219
Q

Hirschsprung Disease management where the abdomen is measured by a paper tape measure at the largest diameter, usually at
the level of umbilicus.

A

Abdominal girth monitoring

220
Q

Postop management for Hirschsprung Disease include accurate recording of stool ( number, freq.)
____ ______ ______ and ______

A

consistency
color
odor
shape

No rectal temp. taking for taking temp

221
Q

Spontaneous telescoping of one portion of
the intestine into another leading to
mechanical obstruction.

A

Intussusception

222
Q

A _____is a lesion or variation in the intestine
that is trapped by peristalsis and dragged into a
distal segment of the intestine, causing
intussusception.

A

Lead point

223
Q

______is the most common cause of
intestinal obstruction in patients aged 5months
to 3 years .

A

Intussusception

224
Q

______ is caused by part of the intestine
being pulled inward into itself. This can block the
passage of food through the intestine. If the blood
supply is cut off, the segment of intestine pulled
inside can die.

A

Intussusception

225
Q

The cause of intussusception is ______

A

Unknown

Although viral infections may be responsible in
some cases. Sometimes a lymph node, polyp, or
tumor can trigger the problem. The older the
child, the more likely such a trigger will be found.

226
Q

Intussusception Occurs most often near the: (4)

A

ileocecal junction
jejuno jejunal
jejunoileal
colo colic.

227
Q

The _______, a proximal segment of
bowel, telescopes into the ______ , a
distal segment, dragging the associated
mesentery with it.

A

Intussusception…Intussuscepens

228
Q

In Intussusception, there maybe a palpable ______mass

A

“sausage shaped”

(often in the right upper quadrant).

229
Q

The absence of bowel in the right

lower quadrant

A

Dance’s sign

230
Q

In Intussusception, there is a mucoid and bloody ______stools.

A

“redcurrant

jelly”

231
Q

For patients with Intussusception, with a _____ _____ (sudden
onset of intermittent severe abdominal pain
with or without rectal bleeding ) or
characteristic findings on radiography, may
proceed directly to ____ ______
using hydrostatic (contrast or saline) or
pneumatic (air) enema, performed under
either sonographic or fluoroscopic guidance.

A

typical presentation…nonoperative reduction

232
Q

For Unclear presentation of Intussusception: initial work up may
include:
Abdominal ultrasound -
Abdominal plain films -

A

doughnut or target sign

meniscus or crescent sign

233
Q

Tests for Intussusception include:

A

Abdominal x ray
Air or contrast enema
CT scan
Utrasound

234
Q

Crescent shaped gas in the bowel lumen

A

Meniscus Sign

235
Q

For managing Intussusception

The child will first be ____

A

Stabilized

A tube will be passed
into the stomach through the nose ( nasogastric
tube). An intravenous (IV) line will be placed in the
arm, and fluids will be given to prevent dehydration.

236
Q

Hydrocephalus Pathophysiology

Csf flows through the aqueduct of ____ into
the fourth ventricle, where fluid is formed;

Leaves the 4 th ventricle through foramen ____
and midline of foramen ______

Flows to ___

To cerebral and cerebellar subarachnoid space for
absorption

Large portion is absorbed by ____

A

Slyvius

Luschka
Magendie

Cristena magna

Arachnoid villi

237
Q

Origin of CSF in Hydrocephalus is due to an _____ __ ____ that enters the basal
side of the choroid epithelium and by active
metabolism , it is transformed into CSF and
secreted at the apical or ventricular side of the
epithelium.

A

ultrafiltrate of plasma

238
Q

Possible sites of origin of CSF in Hydrocephalus include the _____ the parenchyma (20%), and the ependyma

A

Choroid plexus

(80%),

239
Q

The formation rate of CSF is about ____ or ____ in adults and children

A

20mL/hr…500mL/day

240
Q

The total CSF volume in the ventricles and subarachnoid space is age-dependent but reaches the adult volume of ____ by age 5 years

A

5 mL

241
Q

Intracranial Pressure for Infants

A

5-10 mmHg

242
Q

Intracranial Pressure for Children

A

15 mmHg

243
Q

Hydocephalus is a condition resulting from imbalance in CSF

____ and ____

A

Production…absorption

244
Q

Hydrocephaly occurs in 80-85% children born with _____

A

meningomyelocele

245
Q

Hydrocephaly is common in what gender?

A

Both male and female

246
Q

____ -when the lower cerebellum extends
below the foramen magnum and into the
spinal canal

A

Chiari

Does not cause hydrocephalus

247
Q

Herniation of cerebrum, medulla, pons and 4th ventricle into cervical spinal canal through enlarged foramen magnum resulting on obstruction of CSF flow

A

Type 2 Chiari Malformation

Commonly associated with meningomyelocele

248
Q

Cystic expansion of 4th ventricle, partial/complete absence of cerebral vermis and subsequent obstruction of CSF flow

A

Dandy Walker Malformation

249
Q

Occurs when the CSF flows out of the ventricles and into
the spinal canal, but it is not reabsorbed normally by the
subarachnoid space surrounding the brain and spinal
cord.

A

Communicating hydrocephalus/Non obstructive

250
Q

Sometimes this type of hydrocephalus corrects

itself

A

Communicating hydrocephalus/Non obstructive

251
Q


Occurs when the CSF does not flow properly between or
out of the brain ventricles because of an obstruction,
such as from a malformation or narrowing

A

Non communicating hydrocephalus/Obstructive

252
Q

2 Classifications of Hydrocephaly

A

Communicating hydrocephalus/Non obstructive

Non communicating hydrocephalus/Obstructive

253
Q

Hydrocephalus present at birth

A

Congenital Hydrocephalus

254
Q

Hydrocephalus caused by physical problems with CSF flow, infections/trauma during fetal development, or teratogens

A

Congenital Hydrocephalus

255
Q

Hydrocephalus caused by infections such as meningitis, bleeding, injury, or tumor

A

Acquired Hydrocephalus

256
Q

Refers to a condition of brain volume loss that may be present at birth

A

Ex vacuo hydrocephalus

257
Q

In ______ ventricles become large to fill the space where there is absence of brain tissue; may result of failure in fetal development of brain

A

Ex vacuo hydrocephalus

258
Q

Cracked pot sound on percussion of skull near the junction of the frontal, temporal, and parietal bones

A

Macewen Sign

259
Q

Physical presentation when the third ventricle dilates (upgaze palsy with a normal vertical Doll response)

A

Parinaud Syndrome

260
Q

A Parinaud syndrome with lid retraction and increased tonic downgaze

A

Setting sun sign

261
Q

4 Signs for Diagnosis of Hydrocephalus (Infant’s head)

A

Head enlargement
Dysjunction of Sutures
Dilated Scalp Veins
Tense Fontanelle, anterior fontanelle bulging

262
Q

Head circumference enlargement for Hydrocephalus occur at ____ per ___ in first ____months

A

2 cm…month…6

263
Q

In older children developing a large head due to Hydrocephaly, ___ are closed. but chronic increased ICP will lead to progressive _____

A

Sutures…macrocephaly

264
Q

Process done where translucency assessed extending beyond 2.5 cm in frontal area or 2 cm in occipital area indicates abnormality

A

Transillumination

265
Q

Characteristic of ICP in infants where ocular globes are deviated downward, upper lids are retracted, and white sclera is visible above the iris

A

Setting-sun Sign

266
Q

If the raised iCP is not treated, this can lead to optic atrophy and vision loss

A

Papilledema

267
Q

Is secondary to increased ICP

A

Unilateral or Bilateral 6th Nerve Palsy (Abducens)

268
Q

Sign of hydrocephaly in infants where periventricular pyramidal tract fibers are stretched

A

Increased Limb Tone

Spasticity affects lower limbs

269
Q

Sign of Hydrocephalus in children related to spasticity in the lower extremities

A

Unsteady gait

270
Q

3 Drug groups for treating Hydrocephaly

A

Diuretics
Anticonvulsants
Antibiotics

271
Q

2 Diuretics for treating Hydrocephaly

A

Acetazolamide

Furosemide

272
Q

A short term solution to Hydrocephalus

A

External Ventricular Drain

273
Q

Diverts fluid from the brain and allows for monitoring of intracranial pressure

A

External Ventricular Drain

274
Q

The most common treatment for hydrocephalus is

the surgical insertion of drainage a drainage system called a/an ____

A

Shunt

275
Q

3 Types of Shunts

A

Ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt
Ventriculoatrial (VA) shunt
Lumboperitoneal (LP) shunt

276
Q

______shunt should be replaced periodically as the child grows and the
tubing becomes too short.

A

Ventriculoperitoneal

277
Q

Shunts will generally consists of three

components:

A

Inflow catheter
Valve mechanism
Outflow catheter

278
Q

Part of shunt that drains the CSF from the ventricles

A

Inflow catheter

279
Q

Part of shunt that regulates the pressure control through the shunt tubing

A

Valve mechanism

280
Q

Part of shunt that Runs under the skin and moves the CSF from the valve to the peritoneal cavity, heart or other
drainage site.

A

Outflow catheter

281
Q

Shunt infection usually occurs within___

____months of insertion.

A

2…3

282
Q
High Pitched cry /Irritability
Restlessness
Sleeping more than usual 
Nausea
Bulging anterior fontanel 
Vomiting
Has poor appetite and does not eat

Signs of _______ in infants

A

increased ICP

283
Q

Layers of tissue that separate the skull and the brain

A

Meninges

284
Q

-Haemophilus influenzae serogroup B
-Neisseria meningitidis serogroups B and C
-Klebsiella
pneumoniae
-Steptococcus pneumoniae
-Two types
of Escherichia coli

5 Major
causative agents of _____

A

bacterial meningitis

285
Q

Most cases of meningitis both viral and bacterial result from infections that are contagious, spread via
______ from the throat and nose of
someone who is infected.

A

tiny drops of fluid

286
Q

Bacterial meningitis is aka

A

Septic meningitis

287
Q

2 Common Bacterial meningitis in newborns

A

Group B streptococcus
Escherichia coli

…and
less commonly, Listeria monocytogenes

288
Q

Meningitis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculi

A

TB meningitis

Infection of this bacterium usually begins in
the lungs.

289
Q

Unlike other types of meningitis TB meningitis
progresses _____ and symptoms are
vague

A

very slowly

290
Q

Viral Meningitis is aka

A

Aseptic meningitis

More common than bacterial form and
usually less serious.

291
Q

Meningitis that is less likely to have permanent brain damage
after the infection resolves.

A

Viral Meningitis

292
Q

Treatment for Viral Meningitis

A

NO specific treatment

Most patients recover completely on their
own

293
Q

If the cause of meningitis is a ______, there’s an antiviral medication
available

A

Herpes

virus

294
Q
Enterovirus (Coxsackie virus and poliovirus)
Adenovirus
Arbovirus
Measles virus
Herpes simplex virus
Varicella

6 Causative agents of ____

A

Viral Meningitis

295
Q

___ is much less common than the other two

meningeal infections.

A

Fungal Meningitis

296
Q

_____ meningitis is rare in healthy people but it is more likely
in persons who have impaired immune
system.

A

Fungal Meningitis

297
Q

Happens when severe stiffness of the hamstrings causes an inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees

A

Kernig’s Sign

298
Q

Happens when severe neck stiffness causes a patient’s hips and knees to flex when the neck is flexed

A

Brudzinski’s Neck Sign

Fever + Stiffness of Neck

299
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_may be
a sign of meningitis or
alternatively, may be seen in an
infant who is attempting to
compensate for airway edema or
stridor.
A

Opisthotonic positioning

300
Q

For spinal tap, the needle is inserted between _____ and ____ ______ vertebrae

A

3rd…4th…lumbar

301
Q

_______ is done to collect a
sample of spinal fluid. This test will show any signs
of inflammation and whether a virus or bacteria is
causing the infection.

A

Lumbar puncture or spinal tap

302
Q

For CSF analysis, Elevated WBC count and Increased

neutrophils is _______ meningitis

A

Bacterial

303
Q

For CSF analysis, Slightly elevated WBC count and increased lympocytes is _______ meningitis

A

Viral

304
Q

For CSF analysis, Elevated Protein

content is _______ meningitis

A

Bacterial

305
Q

For CSF analysis, Normal or slightly
inc. Protein
content is _______ meningitis

A

Viral

306
Q

For CSF analysis, Decreased Glucose

Content is _______ meningitis

A

Bacterial

307
Q

For CSF analysis, Normal Glucose

Content is _______ meningitis

A

Viral

308
Q

For CSF analysis, Positive Gram stain is _______ meningitis

A

Bacterial

309
Q

For CSF analysis, Gram Negative gram stain; bacteria

culture is _______ meningitis

A

Viral

310
Q

For CSF analysis, Turbid or cloudy Color is _______ meningitis

A

Bacterial

311
Q

For CSF analysis, Elevated Opening

Pressure is _______ meningitis

A

Bacterial

312
Q

For CSF analysis, Normal Opening

Pressure is _______ meningitis

A

Viral

313
Q

For CSF analysis, Clear or slightly cloudy Color is _______ meningitis

A

Viral

314
Q

Third generation cephalosporin such as
Cefotaxime or ceftriaxone

Vancomycin is added in the regimen in case of
resistance

Dexamethasone

Dehydration and shock can be treated with fluid
therapy.

Phenytoin for seizure management

is medical management for ______meningitis

A

Bacterial

315
Q

ATT medications are started:

Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, and
Streptomycin

Second line drugs:

Aminoglycosides

Fluoroquinolones

Conventional therapy is given for 6 9 months

In children, BCG vaccine offers (approximately 64%)
protective effect

Is medical management for ___ meningitis

A

TB

316
Q

Treatment is mostly supportive and no medicines
are prescribed

Seizure prophylaxis:

Lorazepam or Phenytoin or Barbiturate

Increased ICP

IV Mannitol 1g/kg followed by 0.25 0.5g/kg Q6H
or/and dexamethasone

Rest is advised

is medical management for ___ meningitis

A

Viral

317
Q

A malformation of spine, in which posterior
portion of lamina of vertebra fail to close with or
without defective development of spinal cord.

A

Spina Bifida

318
Q

Spina bifida, which literally means ___ ____
is characterized by the incomplete development
of the brain, spinal cord, and/or meninges

A

“cleft spine”

319
Q

2 Classifications of Spina Bifida

A
  1. Spina bifida occulta

2. Spina bifida cystica

320
Q

2 Types of Spina bifida cystica

A

Meningocele

Myelomeningocele

321
Q

is the mildest and most common form of Spina Bifida in

which one or more vertebrae are malformed.

A

Spina bifida occulta

322
Q

The name “ occulta ,” which means ____
indicates that the malformation, or opening
in the spine, is covered by a layer of skin.

A

“hidden”

323
Q

This form of spina bifida rarely causes

disability or symptoms.

A

Spina bifida occulta

324
Q

A spina bifida defect which result from failure of formation of bony
arch around the spinal cord, but the spinal cord and
meninges are normal. It is not visible externally and is
aymptomatic

A

Spina bifida occulta

325
Q

A spina bifida defect wherein the closure of posterior vertebral arch
with protrusion of spinal cord and meninges
through the defect.

A

Spina bifida cystica

326
Q

It is a sac like herniation through the bony

malformation, containing meninges and CSF

A

Meningocele

327
Q

It is a sac like protrusion of spinal cord , CSF and

meninges through spinal cleft.

A

Myelomeningocele

It is mostly found in lumbar or lumbosacral region.

328
Q

It occurs due to defect in the orderly closure of vertebral
column and formation of spinal cord during 4th or 6th weeks
of gestation.

A

Spina bifida cystica

329
Q

Spina bifida ______are asymptomatic , the
only features seen are:

Dimple in the skin or growth of hair over
malformed vertebra

As the child grows, he may develop foot weakness
or disturbances of bladder and bowel sphincter

A

Occulta

330
Q

External cystic defect

Weakness of leg or lack of sphincter control

is a clinical feature of ______

A

Meningocele

… in Spina bifida cystica

331
Q

Herniated mass in lumbosacral region

Hydrocephalus

Loss of motor control

Congenital skeletal anomalies

is a clinical feature of ______

A

Myelomeningocele

…… in Spina bifida cystica

332
Q

Folic acid deficiency doses:

For 1 month before
pregnancy with History
_____

For negative History
____

A

4mg/day …0.4mg/day

333
Q

For spina bifida cystica, surgery is required .
_____and closure of the defect is
done within 24-48hours of birth.

A

Laminectomy

334
Q

Management depends on the nature and extent of
defect. Usually no intervention is required for
spina bifida ______.

A

Occulta

335
Q

Common complication of Spina Bifida

A

Loss of bladder and bowel control

336
Q

For prevention of Spina Bifida

Folic acid supplements
Dosage:

A

400 micrograms/ day

337
Q

Foods high in _____include dark green

vegetables, egg yolks, and some fruits.

A

Folic acid

338
Q

This inflammation often begins with infections
that cause sore throats, colds or other
respiratory problems, and spreads to the middle
ear.

A

Otitis media

339
Q

It is the second most common clinical problem in

children after upper respiratory tract infection

A

Otitis media

340
Q

___otitis media is typically associated with fluid
accumulation in the middle ear together with signs
or symptoms of ear infection

A

Acute

341
Q

A bulging eardrum usually accompanied by pain,

A perforated eardrum, often with drainage of
purulent material (pus).

Fever can be present.

are symptoms of ______

A

Ear infection

342
Q

Chronic Otitis Media
is a persistent inflammation of the middle ear, typically
for a minimum of___

A

1 month

343
Q

_____otitis media may develop after a prolonged
period of time with fluid ( or negative pressure
behind the eardrum (tympanic membrane)

A

Chronic

344
Q

_____otitis media often starts painlessly without

fever

A

Chronic

345
Q

____otitis media can cause ongoing damage to
the middle ear and eardrum and there may be
continuing drainage through a hole in the eardrum

A

Chronic

346
Q

Most prevalent disease in childhood after respiratory

tract infections.

A

Otitis media

347
Q

Otitis media Occurs in frequently in what gender?

A

Males

348
Q

Higher incidences of Otitis Media are seen in children with ___ _____

A

Cleft

palate

349
Q

Otitis media mainly deals with ______ ______

dysfunction.

A

Eustachian tube

350
Q

Ear pain

A

Otalgia

351
Q

2 Treatments for Otitis Media (Include Dosage)

A

Amoxicillin 20-40mg/kg/day 3x a day for 10-14days

Augmentin
45mg/kg/day 3x a Day for 10-14days

352
Q

For Otitis media, What secondary agents are used if the primary
antibiotic has failed after 10 days and the
symptoms persists.

A

Cefprozil
Erythromycin/sulfisoxazole
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

353
Q

“Blue drum syndrome”

A

Cholesterol granuloma

354
Q

For Nursing Intervention in Otitis Media …Position infants as ___ as possible during
feeding to avoid reflux of formula into
Eustachian tube.

A

Upright

355
Q
\_\_\_   \_\_\_ causes middle ear effusion by enhancing attachment of pathogens, cause otitis
in middle ear space, prolonging the inflammatory response and impending drainage through the
Eustachian tube(Kerschner & Precadio, 2016).
A

Passive smoking

356
Q

The main problem of ADHD

A

Decreased Attention Span