Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIO 212 Class > Unit 7 Study Guide > Flashcards

Unit 7 Study Guide Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Viscosity of blood

A
  • blood is 4-5 more thick than water
  • depends upon the amount of dissolved substances in the blood relative to the amount of fluid.
  • increases if amount of substances increases or if amount of fluid decreases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Temperature of blood

A
  • blood is about 1 degree celsius higher than measured body temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pH of blood

A
  • around 7.35-7.45

- plasma proteins have a three-dimensional shape that is dependent upon H+ concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

hemopoiesis

A
  • formation and development of formed elements (blood cells)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

erythropoiesis overview

A
  • erythrocytes form in red bone marrow in response to erythropoietin
  • circulate in blood for about 120 days
  • aged erythrocytes are phagocytized by macrophages in the liver in spleen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

erythropoiesis process

A
  • start with a hemocytoblast (blood stem cell)

- goes through myeloid line and becomes a reticulocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

reticulocyte

A
  • have no organelles except some ribosomes
  • continues to produce hemoglobin through protein synthesis
  • mature while circulating in blood vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

leukopoiesis

A
  • granulocyte, monocyte, and lymphocyte maturation
  • all three types of granulocytes are derived from a myeloid stem cell stimulated by multi-CSF and GM-CSF to form a progenitor cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

granulocyte line

A
  • develops when the progenitor cell forms a myeloblast under the influence of G-CSF.
  • differentiate into one of three types of granulocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

monocyte line

A
  • develops when the progenitor cell forms a mono blast under the influence of M-CSF>
  • forms a promonocyte that differentiates and matures into a monocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

lymphocyte line

A
  • derived from lymphoid stem cells
  • differentiate into B-lymphoblasts and T-lymphoblasts
  • mature into lymphocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

thrombopoiesis

A
  • formation of platelets
  • from myeloid stem cell, committed cell becomes a megakaryoblast
  • matures under influence of thrombopoietin to form a megakaryocyte
  • produce long extensions called proplatelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

proplatelets

A

extend through blood vessel wall and are sliced into platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

molecular structure of hemoglobin

A
  • consists of four molecules called globes
  • two are called alpha chains and the other two are beta chains
  • all contain a heme group composed of a porphyrin ring with an iron ion in its center
  • oxygen binds to Fe2+ in heme groups for transport in the blood
  • Has four Fe2+ and is capable of binding four molecules of oxygen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

recycling and elimination of erythrocyte components

A
  • phagocytized by macrophages in the liver and spleen

- three components of hemoglobin are separated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

fate of globulin proteins

A
  • broken down into amino acids and enter the blood

- some may be used to make new erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

fate of iron

A
  • stored in liver and attached to ferritin and hemosiderin
  • transported by transferrin into red bone marrow as needed for erythrocyte production
  • small amounts are lost in feces, sweat, and urine as well as injury and menstruation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

fate of heme without iron

A
  • converted to biliverdin then bilirubin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

bilirubin

A
  • transported to liver and then released as a component of bile in small intestine
  • converted to urobilinogen in small intestine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

urobilinogen

A
  • some is absorbed back into the blood and converted to urobilin and excreted in the urine
  • most continues to the large intestines where it is modified and expelled in feces.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ABO blood typing

A
  • ABO blood group consists of surface antigens called A and B
  • the presence or absence of A antigen or B antigen determines the ABO blood type.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Type A blood

A
  • erythrocytes with surface antigen A only.

- produces anti-B antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Type B blood

A
  • erythrocytes with surface antigen B only

- produces anti-A antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Type AB blood

A
  • has erythrocytes having both surface antigens A and B

- produces neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Type O blood

A
  • has erythrocytes with no surface antigen

- produces anti-A and anti-B antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Rh blood typing

A
  • determined by presence or absence of Rh surface antigen
  • when Rh factor is present, the individual is Rh positive
  • antibodies to Rh factor (anti-D antibodies) apear in blood only when an Rh negative person is exposed to Rh positive blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

hemolytic disease of newborns

A
  • occurs due to Rh negative mother
  • during first pregnancy, if the mother has an Rh+ fetus, the D antigen is introduced to the mother’s blood
  • between pregnancies anti-D antibodies are produced in the mother
  • During the second pregnancy, anti-D antibodies attack Rh+ fetal erythrocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

prevention of hemolytic disease of newborns

A

give the pregnant Rh- woman special immunoglobulins called RhoGAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

primary lymphatic structures

A
  • involved in formation and maturation of lymphocytes
  • thymus
  • red bone marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

secondary lymphatic structures

A
  • house lymphocytes and other immune cells following their formation
  • where an immune response is initiated
  • Tonsils
  • lymph nodes
  • Spleen
  • MALT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Flow of lymph through body

A
  • driving force to move fluids into lymphatic capillaries is an increase in hydrostatic pressure within interstitial space
  • flows to larger lymphatic vessels, trunks, and ducts.
  • ultimately empties into the blood circulation through venous
  • anchoring filaments linking endothelial cells to surrounding structures prevent vessel collapse
  • pressure of lymph inside vessel forces intercellular opening of capillary wall to close with lymph inside
  • lymph flows toward the heart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

right lymphatic duct

A
  • receives lymph from lymphatic trunks that drain
    • right side of head and neck
    • right upper limb
    • right side of the thorax
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

thoracic duct

A
  • larger of the two
  • drains lymph from remaining areas of the body
    • left side of head and neck
    • upper left limb
    • left thorax
    • all of abdomen
    • both lower limbs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

structure of lymph nodes

A
  • small, encapsulated organs located along pathways of lymph vessels
  • numerous afferent lymphatic vessels that bring lymph into a lymph node, but only one efferent lymphatic vessel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

trabeculae

A
  • composed of dense irregular connective tissue that both encapsulates the node and sends internal extensions into it.
  • provides a pathway through which blood vessels and nerves may enter the lymph node
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

cortex

A
  • composed of multiple lymphatic nodules
  • contains multiple nodules (macrophages and dendritic cells)
    • germinal layer
    • mantle zone
  • both cortex and medulla contain tiny open channels called lymphatic sinuses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

germinal layer

A
  • houses both proliferating B-lymphocytes and some macrophages
  • surrounded by mantle zone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

mantle zone

A
  • contains T-lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

medulla

A
  • has strands of connective tissue fibers that support the cells in the cortex - medullary cords
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

medullary sinuses

A
  • open channels lined by macrophages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

function of lymph nodes

A
  • filter lymph

- where immune response is initiated against a substance in the lymph

42
Q

function of thymus

A
  • site of T-lymphocyte maturation and differentiation
43
Q

function of spleen

A
  • filters blood
  • where immune response is initiated against a substance in the blood
  • removes aged erythrocytes and platelets
  • serve as erythrocyte and platelet reservoirs
44
Q

white pulp

A
  • clusters of T-cells, B-cells, and macrophages surrounded by a central artery
45
Q

red pulp

A
  • contains erythrocytes, platelets, macrophages, and B-cells
46
Q

splenic cords

A
  • cells and reticular connective tissue in red pulp
47
Q

splenic sinusoids

A
  • very permeable capillaries
48
Q

function of tonsils

A
  • protect against inhaled and ingested substances

- contain lymphatic nodules

49
Q

tonsillar crypts

A
  • invaginations that trap material
50
Q

Function of MALT

A
  • protest mucosal membranes against foreign substances
  • located in GI, respiratory, genital, and urinary tracts
  • prominent in small intestines, especially ileum
51
Q

peyer patches

A
  • large collections of lymphatic nodules that form bulges in ileum wall
52
Q

innate immunity

A
  • immediate response to wide array of substances without previous exposure
  • we are born with this
  • includes barriers of skins and mucosal membranes that prevent entry, as well as nonspecific cellular and molecular internal defenses
53
Q

adaptive immunity

A
  • delayed, powerful responses to specific antigen
  • involves specific T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes, which respond to different foreign substances to which we are exposed during our lifetime
54
Q

Neutrophils and macrophages

A
  • phagocytic cells - engulf and destroy microbes

- function to destroy infectious agents through a process that involves a lysosome and a respiratory burst

55
Q

dendritic cells

A
  • degraded residues may be released from cell by exocytosis and/or displayed to other immune cells
56
Q

basophil and mast cell

A
  • pro inflammatory chemical-secreting cells
  • basophils circulate
  • mast cells reside in connective tissue, mucosal membranes, and some organs
  • release chemicals that enhance inflammation - heparin and histamine
57
Q

heparin

A
  • anticoagulant
58
Q

histamine

A
  • increases permeability and vasodilation
59
Q

NK cells

A
  • apoptosis-initiating cell
  • immune surveillance - patrol the body destroying wide variety of unhealthy, unwanted cells
  • initiates apoptosis through release of perforin and granzyme
60
Q

Eosinophils

A
  • parasite destroying cells
  • destroys multicellular organisms by targeting parasites
  • participates in immune response of allergy and asthma
  • phagocytosis of antigen-antibody complexes
61
Q

interferon

A
  • nonspecific defense mechanism against the spread of any infection
  • synthesize enzymes that interfere with viral replication protecting uninfected cells
  • stimulates NK cells
  • stimulates macrophages (phagocytosizes infected cell)
62
Q

complement

A
  • targets bacteria; composed of about 30 plasma proteins

- activated through enzyme cascade in response to pathogen

63
Q

classical pathway

A
  • complement protein binds to antibody-bound foreign substance
  • requires antibody complex. antigen binding site at the ends
  • binds to erythrocyte. complement constant region is where it binds to RBC
  • transported to liver and spleen where macrophages strip off complex
  • unbound erythrocyte continues to circulate
64
Q

alternative pathway

A
  • complement binds directly to surface of pathogen

- opsonization and cytolysis

65
Q

opsonization

A
  • the binding of complement to a portion of the bacteria that enhances phagocytosis.
  • makes it more likely that a substance is identified and engulfed by a phagocytic cell
66
Q

cytolysis

A
  • various complement proteins trigger direct killing of a target by forming a membrane attack complex
  • the MAC protein channel compromises the cell’s integrity, allowing an influx of fluid that causes lysis of the cell
67
Q

MHC I

A
  • basically shows what is inside of the cell

- all nucleated cells have MHC I on the surface

68
Q

MHC I of healthy cell

A
  • show self antigen

- ignored or tolerated by immune system under normal conditions

69
Q

MHC I of infected cell

A
  • combine with foreign antigen peptide fragments and is displayed.
  • communicates with CTLs and signals for destruction of cells.
70
Q

MHC II

A
  • phagocytize exogenous antigen,
  • combine with that foreign antigen
  • fuse with membrane and display foreign antigen
  • complex provides for communication with helper T cells which stimulate the immune response
71
Q

Formation of T lymphocytes

A
  • formed in red bone marrow
  • pre-T-lymphocytes travel to the thymus and mature in the thymus.
  • Possess a unique TCR receptor and initially both CD4 and CD8 proteins
72
Q

formation of B lymphocytes

A
  • formed in red bone marrow

- naive B-lymphocytes don’t have to mature

73
Q

selection of T-lymphocytes

A
  • positive selection
  • negative selection
  • 2% survive
74
Q

positive selection

A
  • selects for the ability of T-cells to bind MHC molecules
75
Q

negative selection

A
  • test ability of T-lymphocyte to NOT bind self-antigen (self-tolerance)
76
Q

Differentiation of T-cells

A
  • Helper T-cell - selective loss of CD8 protein
  • Cytotoxic T-cell - selective loss of CD4 protein
  • leave thymus as naive T-cells because they haven’t been exposed to foreign antigen yet
77
Q

Response of helper T-cells

A
  • synthesis and release of various cytokines that regulate the cells of the immune system (both adaptive and innate)
78
Q

response of cytotoxic T-cells

A
  • release of cytotoxic chemicals induces apoptosis of abnormal cells
79
Q

Stimulation of helper T cells

A
  • CD4 binds with MHC II molecules of antigen presenting cells
  • TCR interacts with antigen within MHC II
  • Helper T cells release IL-2 which stimulates more helper T cells
  • activated helper T-cells proliferate and differentiate to form a clone of activated memory helper T-cells
80
Q

stimulation of Cytotoxic T cells

A
  • CD8 binds with MHC I of infected cell
  • TCR interacts with antigen within MHC I
  • IL-2 released from activated helper T-cell stimulates CTLs
  • activated CTLs proliferate and differentiate to form a clone of activated and memory CTLs
81
Q

structure of antibody

A
  • Y-shaped protein that includes two variable regions that bind antigen and one constant region that determines its biological activity
82
Q

variable region

A
  • located at the ends of the arms of the antibody and contain the antigen binding site
  • most antibodies have two antigen-binding sites
  • binds the antigen through weak intermolecular forces
83
Q

constant region

A
  • Fc region

- the same or nearly the same in structure for antibody molecules of a given class

84
Q

functions of antigen-binding site

A
  • neutralization
  • agglutination
  • precipitation
85
Q

neutralization

A
  • antibody covers biological active portion of microbe or toxin
86
Q

agglutination

A
  • antibody cross-links cells forming a clump
87
Q

precipitation

A
  • antibody cross-links circulating particles, forming an insoluble antigen-antibody complex.
  • precipitate out of bodily fluids
88
Q

functions of constant region

A
  • complement fixation
  • opsonization
  • activation of NK cells
89
Q

complement fixation

A
  • Fc region of antibody binds complement proteins to activate by the classical pathway
90
Q

opsonization

A
  • Fc region of antibody binds to receptors of phagocytic cells, triggering phagocytosis
91
Q

activation of NK cells

A
  • Fc region of antibody binds to an NK cell, triggering release of cytotoxic chemicals called antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
92
Q

Stimulation of B-lyphocytes

A
  • free antigen binds to B-cell receptor
  • B-cells engulf and present the antigen to the helper T-cell on MHC II
  • IL-4 is released from activated helper T-cells which stimulates B-cells
93
Q

response of activated B-cells

A
  • activated B-cells proliferate and differentiate to form a clone of plasma cells (that produce antibodies) and memory B-lymphocytes
  • recognize and respond to antigens outside of cells, such as antigens of viral particles, bacteria, bacterial toxins, or yeast spores
94
Q

immunologic memory

A
  • mediated by prolonged antibody levels
95
Q

primary response to antigen exposure

A
  • limited numbers of helper T-cells, CTLs, and B-cells recognize the antigen
  • generally, a lag time occurs between the body’s initial exposure to the antigen and the physical contact with lymphocytes required to develop an immune response
  • may extend 3 to 6 days
  • the amount of serum antibody levels is low and gradually decreases over time
96
Q

secondary response to antigen exposure

A
  • the memory cells make contact with the antigen more rapidly and produce a more powerful response.
  • a much shorter lag phase occurs
  • the pathogen is typically eliminated even before disease symptoms develop
  • antibody levels rise more rapidly, with a greater proportion of IgG antibodies. This higher level of IgG production may continue for longer periods
97
Q

active immunity

A
  • develops in response to direct encounter with a pathogen or foreign substance that results in production of memory cells
98
Q

naturally-acquired active immunity

A
  • develops after exposure to antigens of an infectious agent in the environment
99
Q

artificially-acquired active immunity

A
  • develops after administration of an antigen, usually through a vaccination
  • these activities stimulate an immune response and promote immunity to that particular antigen
100
Q

passive immunity

A
  • produced by transfer of antibodies from another source
101
Q

naturally-acquired passive immunity

A
  • conferred by transfer of maternal antibodies across placenta or in breast milk
102
Q

artificially-acquired passive immunity

A
  • conferred by transfer of serum containing antibodies against a specific pathogen
  • ex. antibodes to a poisonous snake venom (antivenin) is transferred to an individual who has been bitten by that species of snake.

BIO 212 Class (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions