UNIT 7 QBANK Flashcards
Ensuring that the INVESTING PUBLIC is FULLY INFORMED about a SECURITY AND ITS ISSUING COMPANY when shares are FIRST SOLD IN THE PRIMARY MARKET is covered under which of the following FEDERAL ACTS?
A) Securities Act of 1933
B) Uniform Securities Act
C) Investment Company Act of 1940
D) Securities Exchange Act of 1934
A) Securities Act of 1933
Explanation
Companies looking to offer securities to the PUBLIC must provide a PROSPECTUS to those who are approached to purchase the shares. This requirement ensures that the investing public is fully informed about a NEW SECURITY and its ISSUING COMPANY.
SECURITIES REGULATIONS that are called BLUE-SKY LAWS refer to those at
A) the federal level.
B) the state level.
C) neither the state nor the federal level.
D) both the state and the federal level.
B) the STATE LEVEL.
Explanation
These are STATE LAWS that pertain to the ISSUANCE AND TRADING of securities WITHIN THAT STATE.
They are known as blue-sky laws because of a statement made by a KANSAS SUPREME COURT JUSTICE who referred to “SPECULATIVE SCHEMES that have NO MORE BASIS than SO MANY FEET OF BLUE SKY.”
A TOMBSTONE ADVERTISEMENT placed BEFORE THE EFFECTIVE DATE can
A) only be placed by the issuing company.
B) be placed by the issuer directly or by the underwriters.
C) only be placed by those assisting the issuing company in the underwriting.
D) always be deemed to be an offer to sell the securities.
B) be placed BY THE ISSUER DIRECTLY or BY THE UNDERWRITERS.
TOMBSTONE ADVERTISEMENTS can be placed by EITHER the ISSUER or the UNDERWRITERS and are the ONLY ADS that can be placed BEFORE THE REGISTRATION’S EFFECTIVE DATE. They are NOT AN OFFER OR SOLICITATION to sell the securities.
SHELF OFFERINGS are covered under which if the following?
A) The Bank Secrecy Act
B) The Trust Indenture Act of 1939
C) The Securities Act of 1933
D) The Investment Company Act of 1940
C) The Securities Act of 1933
The shelf offering (REGISTRATION) provision under the Securities Act of 1933 allows ISSUERS to QUICKLY RAISE CAPITAL when needed or when market conditions are favorable.
RULES to PROTECT THE INVESTING PUBLIC during the PUBLIC OFFERING PROCESS include all of the following EXCEPT
A) limiting the number of shares of an initial public offering (IPO) that may be purchased by the issuing company’s employees.
B) member firms may not withhold securities in a public offering for their own benefit.
C) securities industry insiders may not take advantage of their insider status to gain access to new issues for their own benefit.
D) members must offer the securities at the public offering price.
NOT TRUE
A) limiting the number of shares of an initial public offering (IPO) that may be purchased by the issuing company’s employees.
EXPLANATION
NO RULE limits the NUMBER OF SHARES that an issuer can direct to persons who are EMPLOYEES OF THE ISSUER.
ALL THESE ARE TRUE
B) member firms MAY NOT withhold securities in a public offering FOR THEIR OWN BENEFIT.
C) securities industry insiders MAY NOT take advantage of their INSIDER STATUS to gain access to new issues FOR THEIR OWN BENEFIT.
D) MEMBERS must offer the securities at the PUBLIC OFFERING PRICE.
All of the following NAMES DESCRIBE the SECURITIES ACT OF 1933 EXCEPT
A) The Truth in Securities Act.
B) The Prospectus Act.
C) The Full and Fair Disclosure Act.
D) The Exchange Act.
D) The Exchange Act.
The EXCHANGE ACT is the SECURITIES EXCHANGE ACT OF 1934 and covers the SECONDARY MARKETS.
The SECURITIES ACT OF 1933 covers the PRIMARY MARKET and REQUIRES FULL AND FAIL DISCLOSURE on NEW ISSUES by providing a PROSPECTUS to the investor.
TRUE
A) The Truth in Securities Act.
B) The Prospectus Act.
C) The Full and Fair Disclosure Act.
Which of the following PROSPECTUS DELIVERY REQUIREMENTS for NEGOTIABLE SECURITIES sold in the SECONDARY MARKETS is NOT ACCURATE?
A) For an additional issue listed on an exchange or Nasdaq there is no delivery requirement.
B) For an initial public offering (IPO) if non-Nasdaq the delivery requirement is 90 days.
C) For an IPO if listed on an exchange or Nasdaq the delivery requirement is 25 days.
D) For an additional issue if the security is non-Nasdaq there is no delivery requirement.
D) For an additional issue if the security is non-Nasdaq there is no delivery requirement.
Explanation
For an additional issue, if the security is non-Nasdaq the delivery requirement is 40 days.
–TRUE–
A) For an ADDITIONAL ISSUE listed on an EXCHANGE OR NASDAQ there is NO DELIVERY REQUIREMENT.
B) For an INITIAL PUBLIC OFFERING (IPO) if NON-NASDAQ the DELIVERY REQUIREMENT is 90 days.
C) For an IPO if listed on an exchange or Nasdaq the delivery requirement is 25 days.
During the COOLING-OFF period, UNDERWRITERS OF NEW SECURITIES may
I. accept orders to purchase shares.
II. not accept orders to purchase shares.
III. not accept indications of interest regarding potential purchases of shares.
IV. accept indications of interest regarding potential purchases of shares.
A) I and III
B) I and IV
C) II and IV
D) II and III
C) II and IV
II. not accept orders to purchase shares.
IV. accept indications of interest regarding potential purchases of shares.
Explanation
Orders for shares may never be taken before the effective date; therefore, no orders to purchase shares may be taken during the cooling-off period. Indications of interest, however, are allowed to be taken but are not binding on either party.
For primary and secondary markets, which of the following is true?
A) In the primary market, securities are sold to the public and the issuer receives the sale proceeds.
B) In the secondary market, securities transactions cannot take place on an exchange.
C) In the primary market, securities are purchased from and sold to individual investors.
D) In the secondary market, all sales proceeds go to the issuer.
A) In the primary market, securities are sold to the public and the issuer receives the sale proceeds.
Explanation
In the primary market, the issuer of the securities receives the proceeds generated by the sale of the securities. In the secondary markets, such as an exchange or over-the-counter (OTC) securities trade between investors, one sells securities to another, and the issuer is not involved in the transaction.
When an investor receives a final prospectus, the expectation should be that one of the following would not be found. Which is it?
A) the Securities and Exchange Commission’s (SEC’s) verification of accuracy
B) all known risks to purchasers of the stock
C) the intended use of the proceeds raised in the offering
D) the effective or offering date
A) the Securities and Exchange Commission’s (SEC’s) verification of accuracy
Explanation
The SEC does not verify the adequacy or accuracy of any information found in the prospectus. To the contrary, the prospectus will contain the SEC disclaimer which reads: “These securities have not been approved or disapproved by the SEC nor have any representations been made about the accuracy or the adequacy of the information.
In a combination (or split) offering,
A) all shares are issued from existing shareholders to the public.
B) shares are issued to existing shareholders only.
C) shares are issued from existing shareholders only.
D) new shares are issued from the corporation and existing shares are sold by shareholders.
D) new shares are issued from the corporation and existing shares are sold by shareholders.
Explanation
In a split offering, shares are issued to the public. These shares come from both the corporation and existing shareholders—hence the split.
The aftermarket prospectus requirement following an APO for exchange-listed securities is
A) 90 days.
B) 0 days.
C) 40 days.
D) 25 days.
B) 0 days.
Explanation
For exchange-listed additional public offerings, there is no aftermarket prospectus requirement.
An issuer that is already a publically traded company wants to register new securities without selling any of the shares until later when it anticipates it will be retooling all of its existing manufacturing plants. Which of the following applies?
A) This can be accomplished by utilizing a shelf registration specifically designed to register shares presently to be sold later.
B) This can be accomplished by utilizing an additional issue offering, which is specifically for publically traded companies wanting to register new shares to be issued later.
C) This cannot be done because newly registered securities must be made available for sale immediately.
D) This can be accomplished by utilizing a new initial public offering, which is necessary for registration of all new shares.
A) This can be accomplished by utilizing a shelf registration specifically designed to register shares presently to be sold later.
Explanation
A shelf offering (registration), allows an issuer that is already a publically traded company to register new securities without selling any of the shares until later or waiting to sell a portion of the shares later when the capital might be needed.
In an underwriting where fixing a minimum dollar amount to be sold in order to move forward with the entire offering is most commonly referred to as
A) firm commitment.
B) de minimis.
C) all or none (AON).
D) mini-max.
D) mini-max.
Explanation
A mini-max offering is a best efforts underwriting setting a floor or minimum, which is the least amount the issuer needs to raise in order to move forward with the underwriting, and a ceiling or maximum on the dollar amount of securities the issuer is willing to sell.
Indications of interest taken during the cooling-off period are
I. binding on the selling issuer and underwriters.
II. nonbinding on the issuer and underwriters.
III. binding on the investor.
IV. nonbinding on the investor.
A) I and III
B) II and IV
C) II and III
D) I and IV
B) II and IV
II. nonbinding on the issuer and underwriters.
IV. nonbinding on the investor.
Explanation
Indications of interest are binding on neither buyers nor sellers.
Regarding the registration statement filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) when new securities are to be issued, all of the following are true except
A) underwriters may assist the issuer in preparing and filing the registration statement.
B) a description of how the proceeds raised from the sale will be used must be disclosed.
C) the accuracy and adequacy of the registration documents is the responsibility of the underwriters.
D) the names and addresses of company officers and directors, their salaries, and a five-year business history of each must be shown.
C) the accuracy and adequacy of the registration documents is the responsibility of the underwriters.
Explanation While underwriters (broker-dealers and investment bankers) may assist the issuer in preparing and filing the registration statement, the accuracy and adequacy of the registration documents is the responsibility of the issuer. Full disclosure is also made on a number of issues, including but not limited to names and addresses of company officers and a description of how the sale proceeds will be used.