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Unit 3- Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A thin patient w/ a slight build present with constant difficulty breathing and clear mucus. A physical exam also indicates an
increased chest anteroposterior diameter and hyperresonance on percussion. Given the most likely diagnosis, which class of
medications is best suited for long-term tx?
a. Antibiotics
b. Anticholinergics
c. Antileukotrienes
d. Short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonists

A

B. anticholinergics

Diagnosis: emphysema. This is treated with ipratropium bromide; antibiotics treats complications; SABA may treat but ipratropium is
preferred d/t greater efficacy and minima cardiac stimulation effects; antileukotrienes are not used in emphysema

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2
Q

Which of these manifestations is LEAST likely to present with the onset of asthma?

a. Plugging the airways by thick mucus
b. Hypertrophy of the mucus glands
c. Thinning of the epithelial basement membrane
d. Hypertrophy of smooth muscle

A

C. Thinning of epithelial basement membrane

Asthma presents as a result of increased responsiveness of the trachea and bronchi to stimuli, often leading to the thickening, not
thinning, of the epithelial basement membrane. Other physical changes likely to produce from asthma include plugging of the airways
by thick mucus and hypertrophy of both the mucus gland and smooth muscle.

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3
Q

Your patient was seen by a pulmonologist 2 months ago and diagnosed with asthma. The pulmonologist ordered a short acting
beta-2 agonist for initial symptom relief. However, on today’s visit to your office, the patient states, “I don’t think this stuff is
really working because I’m still short of breath.” You refer the patient back to the pulmonologist. Which of the following
would you anticipate being the next step in the patient’s management following the latest national guidelines?
a. An antileukotriene
b. A long-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist
c. A metered anticholinergic
d. An inhaled corticosteroid

A

D. Inhaled corticosteroids

a low-dose ICS is usually the first step for increased management after a SABA shows
insufficient results in controlling symptoms. While an antileukotriene, such montelukast, may serve as alternative treatment at this
step, a low-dose ICS is considered to be the standard medication. Long-acting beta-2 agonists typically see use if tx with a low-dose
ICS fails to manage symptoms, whereas metered anticholinergics are usually paired with a SABA for short-term sx relief, not longterm
sx control.

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4
Q

25-yo female, comes to the clinic experiencing respiratory distress and difficulty speaking. Her lungs are
hyperresonant and show hyperinflation on the x-ray. Which result would most strongly indicate that Jackie should be
admitted to a hospital?
a. Forced expiratory volume is below 30%
b. Respiratory rate is 25 breaths/minute
c. Pulsus paradoxus of 8 mmHg
d. Pulse is 112 bpm

A

A. Forced expiratory volume below 30%

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5
Q

Which of these is NOT a common indoor trigger for asthma?

a. Cockroaches
b. Dust mites
c. Exercise
d. Termites

A

D. termites

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6
Q

Upon examination, you notice that Alex, an obese 63yo male, has moderate dyspnea and purulent sputum. His lungs are
normal upon percussion. Laboratory results reveal an increased hematocrit level. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the
following drugs would you be LEAST likely to prescribe for the patient’s condition?
a. Ipratropium bromide
b. Albuterol
c. Budesonide
d. Montelukast

A

D. Montelukast

A patient with dyspnea, purulent sputum, obesity, and an increased hematocrit level most likely has chronic bronchitis, which would
not require the administration of montelukast. Mainstays of chronic bronchitis tx include anticholinergics such as ipratropium
bromide, as well as beta-2 adrenergic agonists, such as albuterol. Budesonide and other corticosteroids may likewise see use in improving lung function. Leukotriene receptor antagonists, such as montelukast, are not commonly used to treat chronic bronchitis,
and would more likely see use in the management of asthma.

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7
Q

Which of the following medications is considered to be the mainstay of treatment for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

a. Budesonide
b. Ipratropium bromide
c. Salmeterol
d. Triamcinolone

A

B. ipratropium bromide

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8
Q

A 52yo female patient comes to your practice with complaints of breathlessness and a cough accompanied by excessive
phlegm. She produces a sputum sample, which appears clear upon inspection. You order a PFT; in reviewing the results, you
find evidence indicating both an increased functional residual capacity and an increased total lung capacity. Which of the
following respiratory disease would be the most likely diagnosis?
a. Acute bronchitis
b. Emphysema
c. Tuberulosis
d. Pneumonia

A

B. emphysema

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9
Q

a stocky 40yo male, presents to the clinic with complaints of difficulty breathing and “endless amounts of gunk
whenever he coughs.” During the visit, he coughs up a substantial amount of yellow phlegm. A blood test reveals an increased
hematocrit level, and a physical exam detects lungs that are normal upon percussion. You order a pulmonary lab for the
patient. Given the most likely condition, which of the following findings would you LEAST expect?
a. Increased forced expiratory volume in 1 second
b. Increased total lung capacity
c. Increased functional residual capacity
d. Increased residual volume

A

A. increased forced expiratory volume in 1 second

Least expect an increased FEV1 because that’s an indication of healthy lung functioning

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10
Q

In cases of asthma, the trachea and bronchi typically become more:

a. Thickened
b. Narrowed
c. Responsive
d. Hyperemic

A

C. Responsive

Asthma commonly results in the increased responsiveness of the trachea and bronchi to stimuli. Thickening of the epithelial basement
membrane and mucosal edema and hyperemia typically result in narrowing of the respiratory airways.

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11
Q

42yo male, is an HIV-positive patient whose TB skin test returns with an elevation of 5mm. After confirming a
diagnosis of TB, you prescribe a traditional drug regimen. For what minimum period of time is Winston expected to continue
his regimen?
a. 7 months
b. 8 months
c. 9 months
d. 10 months

A

C. 9months

HIV-+ pts who test + for TB are expected to be treated for 9 months. In pts who are not immunocompromised and who test + for TB,
the regimen may be tapered before 9 months, with 6 months standing as the traditional cut-off point.

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12
Q

All of the following would be consistent with a typical manifestation of severe asthma EXCEPT:\

a. RR of 35
b. HR of 125
c. Pulsus paradoxus of 15 mmHg
d. WBC of 1800 eosinophils/mc

A

C. pulsus paradoxus of 15mmHg

A pulsus paradoxus of 15 mmHg does not strongly indicate severe asthma; rather, it would more strongly indicate moderate asthma,
which typically presents with pulsus paradoxis of 10-20 mmHg. A respiratory rate that exceeds 28 is a sign of asthma in older
children. Furthermore, the patient’s pulse of 125 is consistent with the elevated pulse that typically occurs in severe cases of asthma.
A WBC count that detects more than 1500 eosinophils/mcl may also indicate severe asthma.

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13
Q

The practitioner recognizes that all of these are expected pulmonary findings in the geriatric patient EXCEPT:

a. Total lung capacity decreases
b. Residual volume increases
c. Vital capacity decreases
d. The number of mucus-producing cells increases

A

A. total lung capacity decreasesA geriatric patient is likely to experience an unchanged, not decreased, total lung capacity (TLC). Patients in the geriatric population
commonly experience an increase in residual volume alongside a decrease in vital capacity, meaning that TLC typically remains
constant. Geriatric patients are likely to experience an increase in the number of mucus-producing cells

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14
Q

Common symptoms of COPD are:

A

Answer: Cough, dyspnea, sputum production

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15
Q

Is a chest x-ray needed to diagnose COPD?

A

No. Chest x-ray may show hyperinflation, but PFTs are the standard for diagnosis. PFT may be able to diagnose prior to the
presentation of symptoms.

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16
Q

What is the PFT result need for diagnosis of COPD?

A

FEV1<0.7

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17
Q

Does every patient with asthma need a SABA?

A

YES

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18
Q

30yo patient with persistent asthma, what are the essential components of their care plan? (select all that apply)

a. Asthma action plan
b. Flu and pneumonia vaccine
c. Rescue inhaler
d. LABA

A

A,b,c

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19
Q

T or F: Asthma patients and COPD pts both need rescue inhalers?

A

TRUE

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20
Q

Most common side effects of long-term inhaled steroid use?

a. Osteoporosis and GERD
b. Hypertension and diabetes
c. Hyperkalemia and diabetes
d. Bone demineralization (osteopenia) and cataracts

A

D. Bone demineralization (osteopenia) and cataracts

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21
Q

A 12yo patient presents to the clinic with wheezing, SOB, a feeling of tightness in the chest. He is afebrile. Which of the
following would be the best test to confirm diagnosis?
a. CBC
b. Blood cultures
c. PFT
d. Chest X-ray

A

C. PFT

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22
Q

T or F: USPSTF recommends screening with low-dose helical CT scans for lung cancer?

A

TRUE

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23
Q

T or F: Women are more likely to be diagnosed with mesothelioma?

A

FALSE

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24
Q

What are symptoms of TB?

A

Cough (3+ weeks), hemoptysis, chest pain, sputum production, weight loss, anorexia, fatigue

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25
Q

TB interpretation of the Mantoux test: What are some patient populations that a >10mm induration would be classified as
positive?

A

At risk peds, lab workers, healthcare workers, IV drug users

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26
Q

Can you do a TST test on a pregnant woman; and when would you do it?

A

Yes, high risk group or showing signs / symptoms

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27
Q

Can IGRAs be used to differentiate between TB and LTBI?

A

No, IGRAs cannot differentiate between the two

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28
Q

w long after infection can LTBI be detected by TST or IGRAs?

A

2-8 weeks

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29
Q

T or F: Direct Observed Therapy is recommended for only high-risk populations.

A

False, it is recommended for ALL

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30
Q

What TB regimen is recommended for pregnant women? What should the NP do if the patient is unable to take regimen?

A

9 months of INH daily or twice weekly, give with vitamin B6; if unable to take, consult TB expert

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31
Q

What is the strongest predictor of asthma?

A

Atopy

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32
Q

Due to severely restricted air flow, severe asthma may present with what breathe sounds?

A

Absent wheezing, decreased breath sounds

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33
Q

How should you diagnose a 3yo with asthma? Does this process change with a 9yo being diagnosed? How?

A

3yo is based on s/s and exam; unable to cooperate with PFT; 9yo diagnosed based on s/s, exam, and PFT

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34
Q

When a patient has been diagnosed with asthma, the NP may refer them out for what additional testing?

A

Allergy

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35
Q

Increasing use of SABA greater than how many days/weeks for sx relief generally indicates inadequate control and a need to
step up treatment?

A

> 2

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36
Q

How much bloody expectorant in a 24hr period is considered “massive” hemoptysis?

A

200mL/24hrs; 60mL/2hr

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37
Q

Asthma is more common in which gender as children? And which gender in adults?

A

Males under 14yo and female adults

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38
Q

LABAs provide bronchodilation for up to how many hours after a single dose.

A

12

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39
Q

What are the first line treatment agents for all patients with persistent asthma?

A

low-dose ICS

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40
Q

A patient comes to you with the complaint that he cannot stop coughing. He has trouble speaking in sentences but manages to
describe a tight feeling in his chest. A physical exam indicates his pulse is 115. The pt explains that he used his albuterol and
inhaled budesonide today but is still having symptoms. Of the following, which would be the most appropriate treatment
option?
a. Add oral prednisone.
b. Add an inhaled ipratropium bromide.
c. Increase the dosage of albuterol.
d. Add a regular dose of salmeterol

A

D. add a regular dose salmeterol

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41
Q

A patient with TB is being treated with a regimen of isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The patients’
condition is improving significantly and there is evidence indicating that the isolate being treated is fully susceptible to the
current regimen. At this time, which change would be recommended to incorporate into the patient’s regimen?
a. Rifampin may be dropped.
b. Isoniazid may be dropped.
c. Pyrazinamide may be dropped.
d. Ethambutol may be dropped

A

D. ethambutol may be dropped

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42
Q

An HIV+ patient develops a low-grade fever. During his visit, he complains of fatigue, a reduced desire to eat, and a dry
cough. He coughs in front of you, producing sputum that is tinged red. You order a cxr, which reveals a small homogenous
infiltrate in the upper lobes. Given the most likely condition, what combination of drugs would be most effective for
treatment?
a. Isoniazid, ipratropium bromide, pyrazinamide, ethambutol
b. Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, theophylline
c. Isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide
d. Isoniazid, rifampin, albuterol, ethambutol

A

C. Isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide

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43
Q

A thin, 70yo patient with a wasted appearance comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty breathing and a cough. She states
that she had to stop taking her senior water aerobics class bc she couldn’t make it through the 30 minutes without tiring out.
Which of these characteristics would lead you to believe she has emphysema and not chronic bronchitis?
a. Thin and wasted habitus
b. Cough
c. Exercise intolerance
d. Dyspnea

A

A. Thin and wasted habitus

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44
Q 
Kyle, a 32yo male, is HIV+. When initiating a TB skin test, which result would show the minimal amount of elevation that
would indicate he is positive for TB?
a. 5mm
b. 10mm
c. 15mm
d. 20mm
A

A. 5mm

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45
Q

What baseline labs should be obtained prior to starting TB medication regimens?

A

LFTs (AST, ALT); CBC, serum creatinine

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46
Q

A prisoner has a TB skin test with a 10mm induration. What does this tell the NP?

A

Positive result, needs treatment

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47
Q

Which of the following best describes asthma?

a. Intermittent airway inflammation with occasional bronchospasm.
b. A disease of bronchospasm that leads to airway inflammation
c. Chronic airway inflammation with superimposed bronchospasm
d. Relatively fixed airway constriction

A

C.

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48
Q

The patient you are evaluating is having a severe asthma flare. You have assessed that his condition is appropriate for office

treatment. You expect to find the following on physical examination:
a. Tripod posture
b. Inspiratory crackles
c. Increased vocal fremitus
d. Hyperresonance on thoracic percussion

A

D.

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49
Q

A 44yo man has a long-standing history of moderate persistent asthma that is normally well controlled by fluticasone with
salmeterol (Advair) via metered-dose inhaler, one puff BID, and the use of albuterol 1-2x/week as need for wheezing. 3 days
ago, he developed a sore throat, clear nasal discharge, body aches, and a dry cough. In the past 24hrs, he has had intermittent
wheezing that necessitated the use of albuterol, 2 puffs every 3hrs, which produced partial relief. Your next most appropriate
action is to obtain a:
a. Chest x-ray
b. SaO2
c. Spirometry measurement
d. Sputum smear for WBCs

A

C.

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50
Q

Peak expiratory flow meters:

a. Should only be used in the presence of a medical professional
b. Provide a convenient method to check lung function at home.
c. Are as accurate as spirometry.
d. Should not be used more than once daily.

A

B.

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51
Q

Which of the following is most likely to appear on a chest x-ray of a person during an acute severe asthma attack?

a. Hyperinflation
b. Atelectasis
c. Consolidation
d. Kerley B signs

A

a.

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52
Q

The cornerstone of moderate persistent asthma drug therapy is the use of:

a. Oral theophylline.
b. Mast cell stabilizers.
c. SABA
d. Inhaled corticosteroids

A

D

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53
Q

Sharon is a 29yo woman with moderate persistent asthma. She is not using prescribed inhaled corticosteroids but is using
albuterol PRN to relieve her cough and wheeze with reported satisfactory clinical effect. Currently, she uses about 2 albuterol
metered-dose inhalers/ month and is requesting a rx refill. You consider that:
a. Her asthma is well controlled and albuterol use can continue.
b. Excessive albuterol use is a risk factor for asthma death.
c. Her asthma is not well controlled and salmeterol (serevent) should be added to relieve bronchospasm and reduce her albuterol
use.
d. Her asthma has better control with albuterol than inhaled corticosteroids

A

B.

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54
Q

In the treatment of asthma, leukotriene receptor antagonists should be used as:

a. Controllers to prevent bronchospasm.
b. Controllers to inhibit inflammatory responses.
c. Relievers to treat acute bronchospasm.
d. Relievers to treat bronchospasm and inflammation.

A

B.

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55
Q

After inhaled corticosteroid is initiated, improvement in control is usually seen:

a. On the first day of use.
b. Within 2-8 days.
c. In about 3-4 weeks.
d. In about 1-2 months.

A

B.

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56
Q

Compared with albuterol, levalbuterol (Xopenex) has:

a. A different mechanism of action.
b. The ability potentially to provide greater bronchodilation with a lower dose.
c. An anti-inflammatory effect similar to that of an inhaled corticosteroid.
d. A contraindication to use in elderly patients.

A

B

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57
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding the use of omalizumab (Xolair)?

a. Its use is recommended for pts with mild persistent asthma to prevent asthma flares.
b. The medication selectively binds to IgE to reduce exacerbations.
c. Labeled indication is for patients with poorly controlled asthma with frequent exacerbations.
d. Special evaluation is required prior to its use and ongoing monitoring is needed during use.

A

A

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58
Q

Subcutaneous immunotherapy is recommended for use in patients:

a. With well-controlled asthma and infrequent exacerbations.
b. With allergic-based asthma.
c. With moderate persistent asthma who are intolerant of ICS.
d. With poorly-controlled asthma who fail therapy with omalizumab.

A

B

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59
Q

Is emphysema or chronic bronchitis typically associated with OSA?

A

Chronic bronchitis

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60
Q

What is the major complaint of emphysema?

A

Dyspnea

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61
Q

What is the major complaint of chronic bronchitis?

A

cough

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62
Q

What is the preferred first line agent for COPD: SABA or ipratropium bromide?

A

IB

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63
Q

Should ICS alone ever be used as a first line agent for COPD?

A

No, 1st line are anticholinergics

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64
Q

What is a “coin lesion”? What does it indicate?

A

A solitary, pulmonary nodule. Indicates likely malignancy

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65
Q

Are corticosteroids and antibiotics recommended in pts with smoke inhalation?

A

NO

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66
Q

T or F: Patient with a TNM stage B cancer would benefit from surgery?

A

NO

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67
Q

In cases of asthma, the trachea and bronchi typically become more:

a. Narrowed
b. Hyperemic
c. Thickened
d. Responsive

A

D.

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68
Q

Which of these manifestations is least likely to present with the onset of asthma?

a. Plugging airways with thick mucus
b. Hypertrophy of the mucus glands
c. Thinning of the epithelial basement membrane
d. Hypertrophy of smooth muscle

A

C.

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69
Q

What is the hallmark sign of asthma?

a. Daytime, unproductive cough
b. Reduced airway inflammation
c. Tripod positioning to assist breathing
d. Bronchoconstriction (bronchial hyperresponsiveness)

A

D.

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70
Q 
Upon physical exam of a 19yo female presenting with c/o an asthma exacerbation during exercise, you auscultate her lungs
and hear:
a. Decreased airflow
b. Faint or absent breath sounds
c. Expiratory wheezes
d. Pleural friction rub
A

C.

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71
Q

Rodney, age 27, comes into your clinic. He is a non-smoker who has fall seasonal allergies. It’s October. He’s been waking up
about once/week with trouble breathing, wheezing, and he’s been using his rescue inhaler about every day. How would you
describe his asthma and what is the next step in management?
a. Sever, persistent, very poorly controlled; rx high dose ICS + LABA + oral steroid
b. Intermittent, well-controlled, tell him to keep doing what he is doing, but to make sure to close his windows at night
c. Mild, persistent, not-well controlled; rx low dose ICS, and continue with SABA PRN
d. Refer to pulmonology

A

C.

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72
Q

Mrs. Rodriguez has been your patient for 2 months. She has a history of obesity, eczema, atopic dermatitis, and asthma. She
states she is having a severe asthma attack. Upon assessment, you hear no wheezing, but you hear reduced breath sounds and
note prolonged expiration. Her shoulders are hunched. Based on this information, the NP assumes:
a. She cannot possibly be having an asthma attack since you could not auscultate wheezing.
b. The asthma attack has subsided and you want to discuss her weight.
c. She is quite possibly having a severe asthma exacerbation.
d. You test her gag reflex and assess her throat to make sure she is not choking on food.

A

C

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73
Q

Katie, 42, is a new patient of yours. During the p thx, you find out that she has been on “bursts” of prednisolone for several
years. You ask her what supplements she is taking, and she answers, “a multivitamin.” You ask if she has ever had a bone
density screening, she says no. You know that:
a. Given her age, you are not worried about bone loss.
b. She should avoid contact sports.
c. She should be taking concurrent vitamin D and calcium supplementation and should be sent for a bone mineral
density test.
d. Has been on this drug far too long and should be discontinued immediately
Bone density becomes an issue with long-term (>3months) corticosteroid therapy

A

C.

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74
Q

T or F: Inhaled corticosteroids are the first line of rescue treatment for acute asthma exacerbations?

A

FALSE

SABA

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75
Q

T or F: Inhaled nebulized meds are always more effective than inhaled meds from MDI?

A

False; you can provide a higher dose of the med, but it is more effective for pts who are unable to coordinate inhalation of
meds from MDI d/t age, coordination, agitation, or severity of exacerbation

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76
Q

T or F: LTBI radiographs are typically abnormal

A

False

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77
Q

Pt received Mantoux TB test and returned to the office 24 hrs. later with no reaction, is this a negative result?

A

No, needs to be 48-72 hrs.

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78
Q

A 4yo is being tested for TB via the Mantoux test. What induration size would indicate a positive result?

A

10mm

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79
Q

What is the BCG vaccine? Does it affect how you test patients for TB?

A

Bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccine, it’s a vaccine used typically outside the US, in countries with high prevalence of TB. For
them, their TB Mantoux skin tests will give a false-positive. Blood tests are not affected by the BCG vaccine.

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80
Q

Pt presents with night sweats, fever, fatigue, and blood in urine. What do these symptoms indicate to the NP? What could the
patient potentially have?

A

Extrapulmonary TB (located in the kidneys); autoimmune disease

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81
Q

What are the CDC recommendations for sputum cultures for TB testing?

A

Collect at least 3 sputum’ at 8-24hr intervals, with at least 1 in the morning

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82
Q

What is the gold standard for confirming the diagnosis of TB?

A

sputum culture

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83
Q

What is the preferred LTBI treatment for children age 2-11?

A

INH for 9 months

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84
Q

Which treatment is best for pregnant women positive for TB?

A

INH for 9 months

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85
Q

Should PZA be offered to treat LTBI?

A

NO

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86
Q

What are patients considered no longer infectious with TB?

A

3 consecutive negative sputum cultures; symptoms improving; 2 weeks of adherence to TB treatment regimen

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87
Q

Which drug class is never used to treat COPD?

a. LABA
b. Long-acting anticholinergic
c. Leukotriene blockers
d. Systemic steroids

A

C.

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88
Q

Which patient might be expected to have the worst FEV!?

a. An asthma patient in the green zone
b. A 65-year-old with emphysema
c. A 60-year-old with PNA
d. Patient with bronchiolitis

A

B.

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89
Q

Which of the following is always present in a COPD pt?

a. Productive cough
b. Obstructed airways
c. SOB
d. Hypercapnia

A

B

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90
Q 
A COPD patient has been using albuterol with good relief for SOB. He is using it 3-4x/d x4weeks. How should the NP manage
this?
a. Encourage its use.
b. Add a LABA.
c. Tell his to use it only once daily.
d. Add an oral steroid.
A

B

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91
Q

Mild persistent asthma is characterized by:

a. Limitation in activity d/t bronchoconstriction
b. Symptoms occurring more than 2x weekly
c. Wheezing and coughing during exacerbations
d. SOB with exercise

A

B.

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92
Q

What does peak flow meter measure?

a. Exercise capacity
b. Oxygen saturation
c. Peak flow capacity
d. Expiratory flow

A

D

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93
Q

Which of the following may be used to diagnose COPD?

a. Chest X-ray or lung CT scan
b. Ct scan of chest or spirometry
c. PFTs or spirometry
d. ABGs or peak flow rate

A

C

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94
Q

A 60-year-old patient report chronic cough and sputum production. He has a long hx of 2nd hand exposure to his wife’s
cigarette smoke. What diagnosis is most likely?
a. Lung ca
b. Emphysema
c. COPD – (Sputum production distinguishes it from emphysema)
d. Allergic cough

A

C.

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95
Q

Which of the following is consistent with the NAEPP comment on the use of ICS for children with asthma?

a. The potential, but small, risk of delayed growth with ICS is well balanced by their effectiveness
b. ICS should be used only if leukotriene receptor antagonist fails
c. Permanent growth stunting is consistently noted in children using ICS
d. Leukotriene receptor antagonist is equal in therapeutic effect to the use of LABA

A

A.

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96
Q

According to the NAEPP guidelines, which of the following is not a risk of asthma death?

a. Hospitalization
b. Current use of systemic corticosteroids or recent w/d from system corticosteroids
c. Difficulty perceiving airflow obstruction or its severity
d. Rural residence

A

D.

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97
Q

Which of the following is true?
a. Most prescribers are well-versed in the relative potency of ICS and rx an appropriate dose for the pt’s clinical presentation
b. Approximately 80% of the dose of an ICS is systemically absorbed
c. A leukotriene modifier and an ICS are interchangeable clinically because both groups of medication have equivalent antiinflammatory
effect
d. Little systemic absorption of mast cell stabilizers occurs with inhaled or intranasal use
e. Due to safety concerns, mast cell stabilizers are no longer available

A

D.

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98
Q

You are considering prescribing oral prednisone to a 34yo male patient with moderate persistent asthma who is having an
asthma flare. Which of the following is true?
a. a taper is needed for prednisone therapy lasting >4d
b. a taper is not needed for prednisone regimens <7d
c. a taper is not needed regardless of duration of therapy
d. a taper is needed only if patient is taking a concomitant inhaled corticosteroid

A

B

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99
Q

patient who worked in construction and building destruction 20 years ago presents to your clinic with unilateral, nonpleuritic
chest pain, and dyspnea. What is he at risk for based on his career history and present symptoms?

A

mesothelioma

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100
Q

What is the immediate treatment for impaired tissue oxygenation d/t smoke inhalation?

A

100%

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101
Q

What are some risk factors for the development of bronchogenic carcinoma?

A

Smoking, environmental exposures (asbestos, radon gas, various metals), fam hx of lung cancer, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis

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102
Q

The incidence of ____ is increased in patients with silicosis?

a. PNA
b. COPD
c. TB
d. Asthma

A

C

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103
Q

A lung nodule that rapidly grows in size in under 30d is most likely what?

a. Malignant
b. Benign
c. Infectious

A

C

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104
Q

Cavitary lung lesions with thick walls are likely what?

a. Malignant
b. Benign
c. Infectiou

A

A

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105
Q

Which meds cannot be used to treat LTBI?

a. INH
b. Rifampin
c. Pyrazinamide
d. ING-rifapetine

A

C

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106
Q

Triggers for asthma include which of the following (select all that apply)?

a. tobacco smoke
b. cold air
c. exercise
d. rapid changes in barometric pressure
e. sedentary lifestyle

A

a,b,c,d

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107
Q

Effective use of bronchodilator in an asthmatic would result in an increase or decrease in FEV1?

A

Increase

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108
Q

Upon diagnosis of a 58 yo male with COPD, you should also screen him for what comorbidity?

a. Diabetes
b. Asthma
c. Depression
d. GERD

A

C.

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109
Q 
When used in treating COPD, ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is prescribed to achieve which of the following therapeutic
effects?
a. Increase mucociliary clearance
b. Reduce alveolar volume
c. Bronchodilation
d. Mucolytic action
A

C.

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110
Q

According to the Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) COPD guidelines, which of the following
medications is indicated for use in all COPD stages?
a. SABA
b. ICS
c. Phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE-4) inhibitor
d. Mucolytic

A

A.

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111
Q

According to the GOLD COPD guidelines, the goal of inhaled corticosteroid use in severe COPD is to:

a. Minimize the risk of repeated exacerbations.
b. Improve cough function.
c. Reverse alveolar hypertrophy.
d. Help mobilize secretions

A

A

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112
Q

You see a 67yo man with severe (Gold 4) COPD who asks, “When should I use my home oxygen?” You respond:

a. “As needed when short of breath.”
b. “Primarily during sleep hours.”
c. “Preferably during waking hours.”
d. “For at least 15 hours a day.”

A

D

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113
Q

Pts with LTBI are (select all that apply):

a. Infectious
b. Not infectious
c. Have normal x-rays
d. Require isolation
e. Have negative sputum smears and cultures

A

B,C,E

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114
Q

How many weeks after exposure to TB with the PPD test react?

a. 4-6
b. 2-8
c. 1-2
d. 10-12

A

B

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115
Q

An admitted IV drug user presents to your clinic for PPD test, which he says is required for his group housing. You do the
test; he returns in 72 hours. He has a 7mm induration. You mark this test as:
a. Positive
b. Negative

A

Negative

116
Q

In a severe asthma exacerbation, with FEV1 <40%, what are 3-4 things (meds, treatments) that must be done/given; and what
2 medications should be avoided because they can worsen the exacerbation?

A

Oxygen, high-dose inhaled SABA, systemic corticosteroids (IV mag sulfate); do not give anxiolytics, benzos, hypnotics or
mucolytics

117
Q

Name 4 of the 8 reasons to refer an asthma patient to pulmonology.

A

Atypical presentation, comorbidities such as smoking and environmental allergies, poor response to therapy, not meeting
goals after 6 months, high dose ICS, multiple rounds of prednisone

118
Q

Demographically, which of the following is more likely to present with COPD?

a. 57 yo male smoker
b. 12 yo girl who never smoked
c. 42 yo male with hx of smoking, who’s quit
d. 82 yo female who never smoked

A

A

119
Q

Most commonly, COPD exacerbations are precipitated by:

a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Fungal infection
d. Parasitic infection

A

B

120
Q

Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC less than _____ establishes the presence of airflow obstruction?

a. 0.50
b. 0.70
c. 0.80
d. 0.40

A

B

121
Q

Which would be present in severe COPD? (select all that apply)

a. Marked increase in residual volume (RV)
b. Elevation of RV/ total lung capacity (TLC) ratio
c. Decrease in TLC
d. Increase in TLC
e. Hypoxemia

A

a,b,d,e

122
Q

Which of the following ECG abnormal rhythms may be present in a COPD patient? – SELECT ALL THAT APPLY!

a. Sinus brady
b. A fib
c. Coarse v fib
d. Sinus tach
e. Multifocal atrial tach
f. A flutter

A

B,D,E,F

123
Q

T or F: TB is spread more easily through children than adults?

A

FALSE

124
Q

A nurse for an assisted living facility has a TST result of 11mm. How would that be interpreted?

A

POSITIVE

125
Q

A bone marrow transplant patient has a TST result of 7mm. How would that be interpreted/

A

POSITVE

126
Q

32, a professional cellist for the city’s symphony orchestra, comes in and c/o severe stage fright while playing
concerts. It’s so bad, she’s had to leave before some performances. She has heard some of the other performers talk about
taking propranolol for performance anxiety. She has moderate persistent asthma, which is well-controlled. Can you prescribe
this medication?

A

No, propranolol is a beta blocker and beta receptors need to be working for the smooth muscle relaxation.

127
Q

Is TST contraindicated in BCG vaccinated people?

A

No, but may create false positive

128
Q

a 59yo male who has been smoking since he was 9, has been smoking about 4 packs/ day for the last 30 years. He
returns to your office for his CT results. The report says he has a single 23mm lesion. He states he will not be going to the
pulmonary oncologist because he has the chance of malignancy is about 1%. You respond by saying:
a. You are right. Watch and wait is a good plane
b. There is a 25% chance of malignancy
c. With a lesion that size, the likelihood of malignancy is 80%
d. I will order a sputum cytology test, which is specific and sensitive for malignancy to get more information.
2-5mm has a 1% chance of malignancy

A

C

129
Q

a 39yo AA female who presents to the office with c/o malaise, fever, and dyspnea with gradual onset. She reports
history of peripheral neuropathy, arthritis, and an unidentified skin condition with erythematic/purplish hardened growths on
her nose, cheeks, and lips. Upon exam, you note parotid gland enlargement, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy. She
states she had “some sort of abnormal chest x-ray report informs the urgent care a few weeks ago” but she isn’t sure if that’s
related. You DDX includes:
a. Asthma
b. Pneumonia
c. Sarcoidosis
d. DM2
e. Lupus

A

C.

130
Q

a 41yo male, non-smoker, who has worked in shipbuilding for the last 20 years, presents with c/o worsening SOB.
During your exam, you assess inspiratory crackles, clubbing, and cyanosis. You are concerned he has what? What test do you
send him for?
a. Asthma, PFT
b. PNA, CXR
c. TB, sputum culture
d. Asbestosis, chest CT

A

D

131
Q

You have just gotten an NP position in the clinic for a Quarry union in Arkansas. You have been told that numerous patients
of the clinic have asymptomatic silicosis. You ask if they are also screened for:
a. Lung ca
b. Asthma
c. COPD
d. TB

A

D

132
Q

When should PEF be measured? What PEF results indicated poorly controlled asthma?

A

Measure in the morning before bronchodilator and in the afternoon after bronchodilator; a 20% change indicates poor control

133
Q

T or F: Apart from acute exacerbations, COPD is not usually responsive to oral corticosteroids?

A

TRUE

134
Q

T or F: Bronchial carcinoid tumors grow slow and rarely metastasize, surgical interventions are often necessary.

A

TRUE

135
Q

5yo c/o cough 5d/w, awakens at night 4x/month, utilizes SABA 3d/week. She was previously diagnosed with intermittent
asthma. What type of control does she have? What is the recommended treatment?

A

Not well controlled, step up to low dose ICS and follow-up in a month

136
Q

2-year-old has been having coughing and wheezing daily. He has been waking up 4x/month during the night. He has
limitation when playing with other kids on the playground at daycare. He has never been diagnosed with asthma. What is his
asthma severity? What is the treatment plan?

A

Moderate persistent; step 3: start SABA and add medium dose ICS, follow-up in 2-6 weeks

137
Q

Would SAMA be helpful with exercise induced asthma?

A

No, SABA or LABA

138
Q

What are 3 immediate treatments for severe asthma exacerbations?

A

Oxygen, high dose SABA, systemic corticosteroids

139
Q

How long do acute urticarial lesions (hives) last?

A

<6 weeks

140
Q

Is anaphylaxis mediated by IgE antibodies?

A

No, anaphylatoxins may mediate it

141
Q

How should the NP educate the patient about how to prevent anaphylaxis?

A

Educate, avoid causative agent, and carry EpiPen

142
Q

What patient populations are high risk for latex allergies?

A

Health care workers, children with spina bifida

143
Q

What is considered the gold standard for diagnosing food allergies (except in severe reactions)?

A

Double blind, placebo-controlled food challenge

144
Q

Popular urticaria is usually caused by what?

A

Insects, especially mosquitoes, fleas, bedbugs

145
Q

Bronchiectasis typically presents with what symptoms?

A

Foul smelling copious sputum that is typically blood tinged

146
Q

What is the normal FEV/FVC for 60-80-year-old?

A

70%

147
Q

3-year-old child using SABA 3x/weeks, waking up 2x/months only reporting a little limitation. What classification?

A

Mild persistent, not well controlled, treat with low dose ICS and SABA

148
Q

4-year-old waking up 1x/month, using SABA multiple times/day. What is classification?

A

Severe persistent, step 3 medium dose ICS, very poor control, might need oral steroids (1-2mg/kg/day) for 3-7days

149
Q

What are advanced symptoms of COPD?

A

Edema, cyanosis, weight loss, decrease muscle strength

150
Q

What are some diet tips for a patient recently diagnosed with COPD?

A

Limit caffeine, small frequent meals, avoid overeating, avoid gassy foods/ carbonated drinks

151
Q

What does GOLD classification indicate?

A

FEV1 % or severity of COPD

152
Q

What does GOLD classification of 3 indicate?

A

FEV1 30-49%

153
Q

GOLD 4?

A

<30%

154
Q

What is an example of a COPD questionnaire?

A

mMRC (measures degree of breathing), CAT

155
Q

Patient has a C rating via GOLD, what is the first-choice treatment?

A

ICS and either LABA or LAMA; consider adding PED-4 (roflumilast)

156
Q

COPD patient has been admitted to the hospital for exacerbation once and CAT less than 10, what letter classification are
they?

A

C- any hospital admission=C

157
Q

Why might a COPD patient not be compliant with Atrovent?

A

Anticholinergic s/e: flushing, urinary retention, constipation, dry mouth, cognitive impairment

158
Q

When do you refer COPD patients?

A

Persistent symptoms despite adequate management; onset co-morbidities, long-term oxygen therapy, 2+ exacerbations/year,
COPD <40yo

159
Q

When do you admit COPD patients?

A

Hypoxia that doesn’t respond to outpatient management, AMS

160
Q

COPD under 40 is likely caused by what?

A

DNA: alpha1 antitrypsin

161
Q

Theophylline is the best choice for which population of COPD patient?

A

sleep disorders

162
Q

3-year-old with cough and SOB 2-3x/weeks, awakens at night with cough 1-2x/month, not using an inhaler (no current
diagnosis), minor limitations. What is the severity of asthma? Treatment?

A

Mild persistent, step 2, SABA and low dose ICS

163
Q

What would you add if the pt had atopy? Why?

A

Montelukast, helps with allergies and samters triad (ASA sensitivity, asthma, nasal polyps); if they have allergies, would
benefit from a LTRA

164
Q

Diet suggestions for an asthmatic?

A

Avoid sulfite-containing foods (salty)

165
Q

7-year-old with intermittent asthma comes for his check up and states he wakes up less than once/month and report no activity
limitations. He reports using his albuterol 4d/week. How is his control, what is the next action?

A

Not well, add ICS

166
Q

4-year-old not waking up at night, using SABA 1x/week, has had 2 exacerbations over the last year needing corticosteroids.
What severity, what are the next steps?

A

Not well controlled, mild persistent, add ICS

167
Q

First line treatment for urticaria?

A

Antihistamines

168
Q

Which is more likely associate with systemic complications: urticaria or angioedema?

A

Angioedema causes laryngoedema and hypotension

169
Q

6-year-old presents to office already using SABA and low dose ICS. Uses SABA 3x/weeks, wakes up 2x/month, has required
steroids 1x this year, has some limitations with activity. What are the next steps?

A

Low dose ICS with LABA, not well controlled; alternate: medium dose ICS

170
Q

6-year-old not waking up at night, using SABA 1d/week, no limitations; what are next steps?

A

Nothing, continue regimen because well controlled

171
Q

10-year-old, waking up 1x/week, increased SABA use to 2x/day, low dose ICS daily, some limitations, daily SOB and cough;
what are next steps?

A

LABA

172
Q

11-year-old with predicted FEV of 70%, what are they?

A

Moderate persistent, not well controlled, consider short course of systemic corticosteroids and follow-up in 2-6weeks

173
Q

What should you be doing/asking each time you step up a patient?

A

Assess compliance/environmental changes and educate

174
Q

Normal FEV1/FVC for 35-year-old patient is? What about 62-year-old?

A

80%, 70%

175
Q

Pt complains of peripheral neuropathy with taking INH for LTBI, what can you do?

A

Add B6

176
Q

What is the oral corticosteroid dose for a 15-year-old having an acute asthma attack?

A

Prednisone 1-2mg/kg/day divided BID or daily, max dose of 60mg

177
Q

Signs and symptoms of mesothelioma?

A

Unilateral, non-pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea; mostly on the right side

178
Q

4 components of asthma care in the stepwise approach?

A

Education, control of environmental factors and comorbid conditions, medications, assessing and monitoring

179
Q

Goals of asthma therapy?

A

Reduce impairment and reduce risk

180
Q

What do you educate the parent and patient about regarding administration of ICS?

A

Use a chamber, rinse mouth after use to decrease SE

181
Q

Suspect _________syndrome if patient has hemoptysis and glomerulonephritis.

A

Goodpasteurs

182
Q

What is key for effective asthma care?

A

Self-management education

183
Q

Non-medication treatment to decrease exercise induced bronchospasm?

A

Longer warm-up

184
Q

In asthma, at what stage can you offer subQ immunotherapy?

A

With suspected allergies starting at stage 2

185
Q

Treatment of sarcoidosis?

A

Long-term prednisone 0.5-1mg/kg/d

186
Q

Common cause of R middle lobe syndrome?

A

Foreign body

187
Q

T or F: Sarcoidosis has an increased calcium level in blood and urine/

A

TRUE

188
Q

Best test to screen for lung cancer?

A

Low dose helical CT scan

189
Q

When do you screen for lung cancer?

A

Greater than 20pack years smoker, within 15 years of smoking

190
Q

Which cancer is the leading cause of death?

A

Lung

191
Q

Is small cell slow or aggressive? And what is the survival rate?

A

Aggressive (so is large cell), survival is 16-18w

192
Q

What does TNM stand for when staging cancers?

A

Tumor, nodule metastasis (distant)

193
Q

3 consequences of smoke inhalation?

A

Hypoxia, thermal injury to upper airway, and something to the lower airway

194
Q

What is a single non-medication modality treatment for COPD?

A

Pulmonary rehab (SAMA for medication)

195
Q

Example of appropriate exercise for COPD?

A

Purse lip breathing, walking for 20 minutes or biking

196
Q

Lung institute says what new treatment shows increased QOL in 84.5% of COPD patients?

A

Stem cell

197
Q

T or F: Men over 40 who smoke and have COPD are at risk for lung cancer?

A

True

198
Q

T or F: Solitary pulmonary nodule or “coin lesion” that is less than 5mm in size and is seen with calcification is concerning for
lung cancer

A

False, it’s benign

199
Q

Common symptoms of COPD are?

A

Cough, dyspnea, sputum production

200
Q

Is a chest X-ray needed to diagnose COPD?

A

No. CXR may show hyperinflation but PFT are the standard for diagnosis. PFT may be able to diagnose prior to the
presentation of symptoms (COPD dx FEV1 < 0.7)

201
Q

What is the preferred first line agent for COPD – SABA or Ipratropium Bromide?

A

Ipratropium Bromide

202
Q

Should ICS alone every be used as a first line agent for COPD?

A

No

203
Q 
Which drug class is never used to treat COPD?
A: LABA
B: long-acting anticholinergic
C: Leukotriene blockers
D: Systemic steroids
A

C

204
Q 
Which of the following is always present in a COPD patient?
A: Productive cough
B: Obstructed airways
C: SOB
D: Hypercapnia
A

B

205
Q 
A COPD patient has been using albuterol w/ good relief for SOB. He is using it 3-4 times/day x 4 weeks. How should the NP
manage this?
A: Encourage its use
B: add a LABA
C: tell him to use it only once daily
D: add an oral steroid
A

B

206
Q 
Which of the following may be used to dx COPD?
A: Chest x-ray or lung CT scan
B: CT scan of chest or spirometry
C: PFT or spirometry
D: ABGs or peak flow rate
A

C

207
Q 
Upon dx of 58 yo M with COPD, you should also screen him for what co-morbidity?
A: diabetes,
B: asthma
C: depression
D: GERD
A

C

208
Q

When used in tx of COPD, Ipratropium Bromide (Atrovent), is prescribed to achieve what effect?

A

Bronchodilation

209
Q

According to the GOLD COPD guidelines, which med is indicated for use in all stages?

A

SABA

210
Q

According to the GOLD COPD guidelines, the goal of inhaled corticosteroid use in sever COPD is to?

A

minimize risk of repeated exacerbations

211
Q 
Most commonly, COPD exacerbations are precipitated by:
A: bacterial infection
B: viral infection
C: fungal infection
D: parasitic infection
A

A

212
Q

Which would be present in severe COPD? – SELECT ALL THAT APPLY!
A: Marked increase in residual volume (RV)
B: elevation of RV/TLC ratio
C: decrease in total lung capacity (TLC)
D: increase in TLC, e) hypoxemia

A

A,B,C,D

213
Q 
Which of the following ECG abnormalities may be present in a COPD patient? – SELECT ALL THAT APPLY!
A: Sinus Bradycardia
B: A-fibrillation
C: Coarse V-fib
D: Sinus Tachycardia
E: Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia
F: A-Flutter
A

B,D,E,F

214
Q

T or F: Bronchodilators alter the disease process and decline of COPD?

A

False, O2 can alter the disease process and decline COPD

215
Q

T or F: All COPD should be on a prophylactic antibiotics.

A

False. Prophylaxis is an independent decision concerning immunity and grading of COPD

216
Q

T or F: USPSTF recommends screening with low dose helical CT scans for lung cancer

A

True

217
Q

T or F: Women are more likely to be diagnosed with mesothelioma

A

False

218
Q

“Massive” hemoptysis is typically defined as expectorating ________ per 24 hours?

A

200ml/24 hours 60ml/2 hours

219
Q

Is emphysema or chronic bronchitis typically associated with obstructive sleep apnea?

A

Chronic bronchitis

220
Q

What is the MAJOR complaint of Emphysema?

A

Dyspnea

221
Q

What is the MAJOR complaint of chronic bronchitis?

A

Cough

222
Q

What is a “coin lesion”? What does it indicate?

A

Solitary pulmonary nodule that can indicate malignancy is likely

223
Q

Are corticosteroids and antibiotics recommended in patients with smoke inhalation?

A

No

224
Q

T or F: A patient with a TNM stage IIIB cancer would benefit from surgery

A

False

225
Q

What is the major difference in presenting complaints of “pink puffers” and “blue bloaters”?

A

“Blue Bloaters” (bronchitis predominant) present with complaints of cough whereas “Pink Puffers” report dyspnea

226
Q

A patient who worked in construction and building destruction twenty years ago presents to your clinic with unilateral, nonpleuritic
chest pain and dyspnea. What is he at risk for based on his career history and present symptoms?

A

MESOTHELIOMA

227
Q

What is the immediate treatment for impaired tissue oxygenation due to smoke inhalation?

A

100% O2

228
Q

What are some risk factors for the development of bronchogenic carcinoma?

A

smoking, environmental exposures, family hx of lung cancer, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and asbestos

229
Q

What are the most common side effects of long term inhaled steroid use?

A

bone demineralization & cataracts

230
Q

12-year-old patient presents to clinic with wheezing, SOB, and feeling of tightness in chest. Which would be best in
determining dx?

A

PFTs

231
Q

Increasing use of SABA or use ________ days a week for symptoms relief generally indicates inadequate control and need to
step up treatment.

A

> 2

232
Q

LABAs provide bronchodilation for up to ______ hours after a single dose.

A

12hr

233
Q

What are the first line treatment agents for all patients with persistent asthma?

A

low-dose ICS

234
Q

What baseline labs should be obtained prior to starting TB medication regimens?

A

AST and ALT, LFTs, CBC, Serum Creatinine

235
Q 
Which patient might be expected to have the worst FEV1?
A: Patient with asthma in the green zone
B: 65 yo with emphysema
C: 60 yo with PNA
D: Patient with bronchiolitis
A

B

236
Q 
What does a peak flow meter measure?
A: exercise capacity
B: oxygen saturation
C: peak flow capacity
D: expiratory flow
A

D

237
Q

A lung nodule that rapidly grows in size in under 30 days is most likely
A: malignant
B: benign
C: infectious

A

A

238
Q

Cavitary lung lesions with thick walls are likely to be:
A: malignant
B: benign
C: infectious

A

A

239
Q

T or F: It is recommended to perform a TB blood test over TST when the patient has received the BCG vaccination

A

True

240
Q 
Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC less than \_\_\_\_\_\_ establishes the presence of airflow obstruction?
A: 0.50
B: 0.70
C: 0.80
D: 0.40
A

B

241
Q

When should PEF be measured? What PEF results indicated poorly controlled asthma?

A

measure in the morning (when its lowest) before bronchodilator and in the afternoon after bronchodilator; a 20% change
indicates poor control

242
Q

What are symptoms of pulmonary TB?

A

Cough (3+ weeks), hemoptysis, chest pain, sputum production, weight loss, anorexia, fatigue

243
Q

Interpretation of the Mantoux test - what are some patients populations that a >10mm induration would be classified as
positive?

A

At risk peds, lab workers, healthcare workers, IV drug users

244
Q

How long after infection can LTBI be detected by TST or IGRAs?

A

2-8 weeks

245
Q

T or F: Direct Observed Therapy (DOT) is recommended for only high risk population groups

A

False, its recommended for all

246
Q

What TB regimen is recommended for pregnant women? What should the NP do if the patient is unable to take regimen?

A

9 months of INH daily or twice weekly, give with vitamin B6. If cannot take INH, consult TB expert

247
Q

A prisoner has a TB skin test with a 10mm induration. What does this tell the NP?

A

Positive result, needs treatment

248
Q

T or F: LTBI radiographs are typically abnormal

A

FALSE

249
Q

Patient received a Mantoux TB test and returned to the office 24 hours later with no reaction, is this a negative result?

A

No. Reading of TB skin test must be read at 48-72h.

250
Q

4 year old is being tested for TB via the Mantoux test. What induration size would indicate a positive result?

A

> or = to 10 mm

251
Q

What is the BCG vaccine? Does it affect how you test patients for TB?

A

Bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccine (a vaccine used typically outside the U.S., in countries with high prevalence of TB. For
these folks, their TB Mantoux skin tests will give a false-positive. Blood tests are not affected by the BCG vaccine)

252
Q

Pt presents with night sweats, fever, fatigue, and blood in urine. What do these symptoms indicate to the NP? What could the
patient potentially have?

A

Extrapulmonary TB, specifically located in the kidneys (due to blood in urine)

253
Q

What are the CDC recommendations for sputum cultures for TB testing?

A

ALL suspected cases should have sputum cultured collected to include at least 3 specimens (8-24 hr. intervals, with at least
one in morning)

254
Q

What is the gold standard for confirming the diagnosis of TB?

A

Sputum culture

255
Q

What is the preferred LTBI treatment for children age 2-11?

A

INH for 9 months

256
Q

Pregnant woman positive for TB – which treatment is best?

A

INH for 9 months

257
Q

When are patients considered no longer infectious with TB?

A

3 consecutive negative sputum cultures, improving symptoms, and 2 weeks of adherence to TB treatment regimen

258
Q 
The incidence of \_\_\_\_\_ is increased in patients with silicosis?
A: PNA
B: COPD
C: TB
D: Asthma
A

C

259
Q 
Which meds cannot be used to treat LTBI?
A: INH
B: Rifampin
C: Pyrazinamide
D: INH-rifapetine
A

C

260
Q 
LTBI is characterized by which of the following? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY!
A: Infectious
B: Not infectious
C: Normal x-rays
D: Require isolation
E: Negative sputum smears &amp; cultures
A

B, C, E

261
Q 
How many weeks after exposure to TB will the PPD test react?
A: 4-6
B: 2-8
C: 1-2
D: 10-12
A

B

262
Q

An admitted IV drug user presents to your clinic for PPD test, which he says is required for his group housing. You do the
test, he returns in 72 hours. He has a 7 mm induration. You mark this as
A: positive
B: negative

A

B.

263
Q

A nurse for an assisted living facility has a TST result of 11mm. Is she positive or negative?

A

+ b/c >10mm

264
Q

A bone marrow transplant patient has TST result of 7mm – positive or negative?

A

+b/c > or = to 5mm

265
Q

You have just gotten an NP position in the clinic for a Quarry union in Arkansas. You have been told that numerous patients
of the clinic have asymptomatic silicosis. You ask if they are also screened for?
A: lung cancer
B: asthma
C: COPD
D: TB

A

D

266
Q

Does every patient with asthma need a SABA?

A

Yes

267
Q 
30 year old with persistent asthma. What are essential components of their plan of care? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY!
A: Asthma Action Plan
B: Flu and Pneumonia Vaccines
C: Rescue inhaler
D: LABA
A

A,B,C

268
Q

T or F: Asthma patients and COPD patients both need rescue inhalers?

A

True

269
Q

What is the strongest predictor of Asthma?

A

Atopy

270
Q

In _______ _________ air flow may be so restricted that wheeze may be absent and breath sounds are diminished

A

Severe Asthma

271
Q

How should you diagnose a 3 year old with asthma? Does this process change with an 9 year old being diagnosed? How so?

A

3 yr. old – based on signs, symptoms, and exam, unable to cooperate for PFT. Yes, in a 9 yr. old – based on signs,
symptoms, exam and PFT

272
Q

What in addition to a PFT may a NP refer the patient out for when Asthma is suspected in a patient?

A

Allergy testing

273
Q

What gender as children is asthma is more common? What gender in adults is asthma more common?

A

Children: males, under the age of 14; Adults: female

274
Q 
In cases of asthma, the trachea and bronchi typically become more:
A) narrowed
B) hyperemic
C) thickened
D) responsive
A

D

275
Q

Which of these manifestations is least likely to present with the onset of asthma?
A) plugging of airways with thick mucus
B) hypertrophy of the mucus glands
C) thinning of the epithelial basement membrane
D) hypertrophy of smooth muscle

A

C

276
Q 
What is the hallmark sign of asthma?
A) daytime, unproductive cough
B) reduced airway inflammation
C) tripod positioning to assist breathing
D) bronchoconstriction
A

D

277
Q 
Upon your physical exam of a 19 yo F presenting with complaints of an asthma exacerbation during exercise, you auscultate
her lungs and hear:
A) decreased air flow
B) faint or absent breath sounds
C) expiratory wheezes
D) pleural friction rub
A

C

278
Q

T or F: Inhaled corticosteroids are the first line of rescue treatment for acute asthma exacerbations?

A

False, SABA

279
Q

T or F: Inhaled nebulized meds are always more effective than inhaled meds from MDI

A

False

280
Q

Mild persistent asthma is characterized by:
A) limitation in activity d/t bronchoconstriction
B) sx occurring more than 2x weekly
C) wheezing and coughing during exacerbations
D) SOB w/exercise

A

B

281
Q

According to the NAEPP guidelines, which of the following is not a risk of asthma death?
A) hospitalization
B) current use of systemic corticosteroids or recent w/d from systemic corticosteroids
C) difficulty perceiving airflow obstruction or its severity
D) rural residence

A

D

282
Q

You are considering rx’ing oral prednisone to a 34yo M pt. with moderate persistent asthma who is having an asthma flare.
Which of the following is true?
A) A taper is needed for prednisone therapy lasting > 4 days
B) A taper is not needed for prednisone regimens < or = 7 days
C) A taper is not needed regardless of duration of therapy
D) A taper is needed only if pt. is taking concomitant inhaled corticosteroids

A

B

283
Q 
Triggers for asthma include which of the following:
A) tobacco smoke
B) cold air
C) exercise
D) rapid changes in barometric pressure
E) sedentary lifestyle
A

A,B,C,D

284
Q

Effective use of a bronchodilator in an asthmatic would result in an increase or decrease in FEV1?

A

Increase

285
Q

In a severe asthma exacerbation, with FEV1 < 40%, what are 3-4 things (meds, treatments) that must be done/given, and what
2 medications should be avoided b/c they can worsen the exacerbation?

A

give oxygen, high-dose inhaled SABA, systemic corticosteroids (4th one is IV mag sulfate, but that was a bonus one; Do not
give anxiolytics/benzos/hypnotics or mucolytics!)

286
Q 
Demographically, which of the following is more likely to present with COPD?
A) 57 yo M smoker,
B) 12 yo girl who never smoked
C) 42 yo M hx of smoking, now quit
D) 82 yo F who never smoked
A

A

287
Q

Would a SAMA be helpful with exercise induced asthma?

A

No! SABA or LABA

568 (8 decks)

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