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Infectious Agents II > Unit 3 Material - NEW only! > Flashcards

Unit 3 Material - NEW only! Flashcards

1
Q

A lyssavirus that has linear, single stranded RNA and is negative sense:

A

rabies

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2
Q

Zoonotic and affects the CNS:

A

Rabies

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3
Q

What are the two serotypes of vesicular stomatitis virus?

A

Indiana, NJ

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4
Q

The majority of Rhabdoviridae occur in:

A

insects

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5
Q

What number of proteins does rabies code for?

A

The genome is 12 kb and codes for 5 proteins

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6
Q

Sylvatic means:

A

of the woods

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7
Q

Street rabies affects:

A

dogs and cats (domestic)

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8
Q

Why is there no street rabies in the US?

A

vaccines

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9
Q

How is rabies inoculated?

A

by the bite of an infected animals

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10
Q

Where does attachment, penetration, and uncoating occur?

A

locally in the myocytes

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11
Q

Where does transmission of rabies to a nerve cell occur?

A

at the neuromuscular junction and sensory endings of the PNS

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12
Q

Where does viral establishment of rabies occur?

A

in the PNS

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13
Q

Where does rabies localize once it enters the spinal cord and brain?

A

soma of the neurons

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14
Q

Which sections of the brain are the most heavily affected by rabies?

A

hippocampus, brain stem, and purkinje cells of the cerebellum

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15
Q

Where is the rabies virus released?

A

ONLY at the nerve endings

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16
Q

How does rabies cause death?

A

neural respiratory and cardiac arrest

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17
Q

What are the three routes to the CNS rabies takes?

A
  • hematogenous
  • neural pathways
  • olfactory
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18
Q

Which rabies route to the CNS: “via viremia that can infect endothelium, and leukocytes, passive transport through permeable areas can occur”

A

hematogenous

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19
Q

Which rabies route to the CNS: “axons, Schwann cells, perineural lymphatics, and endoneural spaces”

A

neural

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20
Q

Which rabies route to the CNS: “cranial nerve penetrates the cribiform plate”

A

olfactory

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21
Q

IC inclusions in neuronal soma present in hangla of hippocampus, purkinje cells of cerebellum, and medullary ganglia:

A

negri bodies

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22
Q

Where are negri bodies located?

A

cells of the brain (purkinje cells?)

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23
Q

Small, round, structured viruses that exhibit icosahedral symmetry:

A

Calici virus

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24
Q

What kind of outer covering is on a Calici virus?

A

capsid, NOT an envelope

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25
Q

What are the genome characteristics of the Calici viruses?

A

non-segmented and cosists of a single molecule of linear positive send single-stranded RNA

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26
Q

Where are the virions of Calici virus found?

A

in the cytoplasm

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27
Q

What is San Miguel Sealion virus synonymous with?

A

vesciular exanthema of swine

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28
Q

What is the most common clinical manifestation of feline calici virus?

A

major agent of upper respiratory disease

29
Q

List the caliciviruses that are hemorrhagic:

A
  • San Miguel
  • Vesicular Exanthema of Swine
  • Feline Calici
  • Rabbit Calici
    AKA ALL
30
Q

What is the vector for blue tongue?

A

Culicoides midges (no see-ums, biting midges)

31
Q

When do blue tongue disease most commonly occur?

A

mid-summer to late fall (when vector is most active)

32
Q

What are the only orthoreoviruses of clinical significance?

A

infections in rodents, chickens, and turkeys

33
Q

What does orthoreovirus cause in chickens and poultry?

A

arthritis and tenosynovitis

34
Q

What are the avian orthoreoviruses?

A

Avian Reovirus 1-11

35
Q

Virion is not enveloped. Capsid shell of virion is composed of three layers, including the outer, core, and inner layer. Genome consists of a monomer with 10-12 segments of linear dsRNA.

A

Reoviridae virion

36
Q

Unlike rotavirus, BTV is susceptible to:

A

common disinfectants and low pH

37
Q

How many total serotypes of BTV have been identified?

A

25

38
Q

How many serotypes of BTV have been identified in the US?

A

5

39
Q

What does it mean when blue tongue is called a “List A disease”?

A

subjected to international regulation

40
Q

Is there treatment for blue tongue? How do you control it?

A

No; vaccination & decreasing number of insect vectors

41
Q

What’s majorly responsible for the emergence of new orthomyxovirus pandemics?

A

reassortment

42
Q

Where does reassortment of orthomyxovirus most commonly take place?

A

mutation of cleavage sites of HA molecule

43
Q

All HPAIV’s have ___ or ___ but few H5 or H7 AIV’s are ___.

A

H5; H7; HP

44
Q

Hemagglutinin types of avian influenza viruses:

A

HA subtypes = 1-16

NA subtypes = 1-9

45
Q

In 2015, which of the following subtype influenza A caused outbreak in chicken/turkey operation in MW US leading to the loss of 50 mil birds?

A

H5N2

46
Q

Virion contains 8 segmented single stranded, negative-sense RNA genome. All the veterinary isolates except some swine isolates; also has some human isolates.

A

Influenza A virus

47
Q

What are the HA and NA subtypes of influenza A?

A 
HA = 1-18 (seg. #4)
NA = 1-11 (seg. #6)
48
Q

Which species serves as a mixing vessel for generation pandemic influenzas?

A

swine

49
Q

What is a reservoir for influenza A viruses?

A

migratory waterfowl, most notably wild ducks

50
Q

What is the vector for Western virus (WEEV)?

A

Culex tarsalis

51
Q

Which subtypes of Venezuelan (VEEV) are the most virulent and epidemic?

A

Epizootic VEEV subtypes AB and IC

52
Q

What are the dead end hosts for alpha viruses?

A

humans and horses

53
Q

Where are the high viremias in alphaviruses?

A
  • EEEV in passerines

- Epizootic VEEV in horses (serve as amplification host)

54
Q

What’s the clinical problem with alphaviruses?

A

cannot distinguish one from the other b/c clinical features of dz are all the same

55
Q

Enveloped, positive sense, ssRNA, diploid (meaning it has two copies of RNA) with a three layered structure:

A

Retrovirus

56
Q

Which retroviruses are neoplastic in poultry?

A

Avian leukosis groups A-D, J
Avian leukosis virus
Reticuloendotheliosis virus

57
Q

What are the legalities surrounding equine infectious anemia?

A

regulated disease by state and federal agency

58
Q

What kind of lymphomas are produced by FeLV?

A

alimentary, multicentric, thymic, or unclassified (skin, eyes, CNS)

59
Q

What are the MS laws regarding EIA?

A
  1. Equines, except nursing foals entering MS: An official copy of the EIA test negative within 12 months
  2. All equidae, except nursing foals, participating in traning, breeding, exhibition, or moving, require the original copy of a current negative EIA test.
  3. Sale requires a negative EIA test
60
Q

What are the symptoms associated with acute EIA infections?

A

fever, weight loss, anemia, edema, weakness, death within 2-3 weeks, test may be neg.

61
Q

What are the symptoms associated with chronic EIA?

A

intermediated fever, lethargic, anorexia

62
Q

Which type of cattle has the highest infection rates of BLV in endemic areas?

A

dairy

63
Q

Which virus requires repeated testing of animals over 6 months of age at 2-3 months intervals?

A

bovine leukemia virus

64
Q

List out all of the lentiviruses:

A
  1. HIV-1
  2. HIV-2
  3. EIAV
  4. FIC
  5. Visna
  6. SIV-agm.
65
Q

Proteinaceous particle that can replicate itself and has no nucleic acids:

A

prion

66
Q

Pocket pets that have this disease are directly infectious to humans:

A

CWD

67
Q

What is BSE originally rendered from?

A

carcasses of cattle with sporadic spongiform encephalopathy, and sheep with a novel form of Scrapie

68
Q

Mad Cow Disease =

A

bovine spongiform encephalopathy

69
Q

What are the clinical features of BSE?

A

tremors, frenzy, abnormal posture, hindlimb ataxia, hyperesthesia with kicking during milking, weight loss, and reduced milk yield

Infectious Agents II (3 decks)

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