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Infectious Agents II > Unit 1 - Virology Intro > Flashcards

Unit 1 - Virology Intro Flashcards

1
Q

What year did Edward Jenner use cowpox from a milkmaid to vaccinate an 8 year old?

A

May 14 1796

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2
Q

What year was small pox eradicated?

A

1980

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3
Q

What year was HIV defined as the cause of AIDS?

A

1983

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4
Q

What year did David Baltimore and Howard Temin discover reverse transcriptase and retroviruses?

A

1970

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5
Q

What is one thing host cells can never replicate from viruses?

A

RNA

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6
Q

Negative Sense =

A

non-coding

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7
Q

An older term for AR-thropod BO-rne virus. Includes the Bunyaviridae, Togaviridae, some Orbiviruses, and Rhabdoviruses.

A

Arbovirus

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8
Q

a virus parasitizing bacterium; bacterium + to eat

A

bacteriophage

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9
Q

the protein coat of a virus

A

capsid

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10
Q

individual structural proteins that collectively make up the capsid

A

capsomeres

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11
Q

a virus particle having a capsid, but an incomplete nucleic acid content, or and empty particle, which interferes with replication of complete particles

A

defective interfering particle

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12
Q

the phospholipid covering derived from host cell membranes, either nuclear or cytoplasmic (plasma membrane or endoplasmic reticulum) present on some viruses

A

envelope

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13
Q

a polyhedral shape composed of 12 vertices (corners) and 20 triangular faces; cubic symmetry

A

icosahedron

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14
Q

a structural term denoting the combined nucleic acid and capsid; may be helical or cubic in symmetry

A

nucleocapsid

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15
Q

a virus isolated in the absence of disease

A

orphan virus

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16
Q

a gylcoprotein subunit projecting from the enveloped referred to as “spikes” that function in attachment to host cells

A

peplomere

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17
Q

unconventional agents of disease resulting in spongiform encephalopathies by proteins that cause protein folding anomalies.

A

prions

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18
Q

the process by which base sequences in mRNA produce specific amino-acid sequences in a protein

A

translation

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19
Q

the process of forming mRNA from nucleic acid, no necessarily DNA

A

transcription

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20
Q

an individual viral particle

A

virion

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21
Q

a class of infectious agents, ocurring in plants that are smaller than viruses and consist of short strands of RNA without a capsid

A

viroids

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22
Q

complex molecular particle, capable of infecting cells and causing disease by redirecting host cellular synthetic machinery towards the synthesis of new infectious particles

A

virus

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23
Q

Where do most DNA viruses replicate? RNA viruses?

A

cell nucleus; cytoplasm

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24
Q

What are the six steps of the replication cycle?

A
  1. Attachment
  2. Penetration
  3. Uncoating
  4. Synthesis
  5. Assembly/Maturation
  6. Release
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25
Q

What do viruses look for to attach to host cells?

A

specific receptors

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26
Q

What are the two methods of penetration or entry into the host cell?

A

fusion, endocytosis

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27
Q

Which type of penetration is only seen in enveloped viruses?

A

fusion

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28
Q

List two methods used for release from the host cell?

A

cell lysis, budding

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29
Q

all proteins in a mature virus particle even if they make no contribution to the morphology or rigidity of the virion

A

structural protein

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30
Q

viral proteins found in the cell but not packaged into the virion

A

non-structural protein

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31
Q

morphologic changes in the host cells caused by viruses

A

CPE (cytopathic effect)

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32
Q

List the two uses of CPE:

A
  1. identify the virus isolate

2. quantitate infectious virus particles by the plaque-forming unit

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33
Q

the first in vitro cultures of cells taken directly from the organs

A

primary culture

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34
Q

a cell line that can be subcultured and grow continuously

A

cell-line

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35
Q

interaction between host and virus affecting development and outcome of an infection:

A

host-virus relationship

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36
Q

What are the two types of host response to viral infections?

A

non-specific, specific

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37
Q

Which antibody is produced earliest?

A

IgM

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38
Q

What is IgM composed of?

A

pentamer of 5 IgG molecules

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39
Q

stimulate cytotoxic cellular response and activate B cells

A

T helper cells

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40
Q

control and regulate the cytotoxic cellular response by suppressing Th cells

A

T suppressor cells (Ts)

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41
Q

main effector cells which kill virus-infected target cells

A

cytotoxic T cells (Tc)

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42
Q

release macrophage activation factor

A

delayed hypersensitivity T cells (Td)

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43
Q

direct killing of virus-infected cells

A

NK cells

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44
Q

modulate immune response

A

IL-1, IL-2

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45
Q

injection of antibodies that can temporarily protect against infection

A

artificial passive immunization

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46
Q

the transfer of maternal antibody from dam to fetus or newborn

A

natural passive immunity

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47
Q

What is the most applicable way of preventing viral disease?

A

immunization

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48
Q

Are the replication enzymes of parvovirus coded for and supplied by the host cell?

A

yes

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49
Q

What are the parvovirus replication enzymes?

A

DNA dependent RNA polymerase, DNA dependent DNA polymerase

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50
Q

Describe the genetic information for parvovirus:

A

small single linear strand of DNA

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51
Q

Parvovirus is associated with what species?

A

dogs

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52
Q

Panleukopenia is associated with what species?

A

cats

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53
Q

What is the virus that causes parvo in cats?

A

FPV

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54
Q

What are the symptoms of feline parvovirus?

A

enteritis, teratogenesis; cerebellar hypoplasia or aplasia

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55
Q

What are the viruses that cause parvo in dogs?

A

CPV, MPV

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56
Q

What are the symptoms of canine parvovirus?

A

enteritis, myocarditis

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57
Q

What is parvovirus called in Geese?

A

Derzy’s dz virus, DDV

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58
Q

What are the symptoms of parvo in geese?

A

hepatitis, enteritis, influenza, myocarditis

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59
Q

What are the symptoms of parvo in pigs?

A

mummified or aborted fetuses

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60
Q

What are the symptoms of parvovirus in cows?

A

enteritis, repro. disease

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61
Q

What are the name associations for parvovirus in cows?

A

BPV, or HADEN virus

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62
Q

List the 8 steps of viral infection of host cells:

A
  1. attachment 2. penetration 3. uncoating 4. transcription 5. translation 6. replication 7. assembly 8. release
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63
Q

At what stage do enveloped viruses gain their lipid bilayer to allow for cytocidal or persistent infection?

A

release

64
Q

How was parvovirus first recognized pathologically?

A

producing malformations in the brains of rats and hamsters

65
Q

Canine Parvovirus in utero exposure results in:

A

fetal death/abortion

66
Q

Canine Parvovirus in neonates <2 weeks old results in:

A

generalized infection leading to acute death at 10-14 days old

67
Q

Canine parvovirus in neonates 3-8 weeks old results in:

A

death < 3 months, cardiac arrhythmias; death >3 months, myocardial fibrosis

68
Q

Canine parvovirus from oronasal exposure for over 8 week old puppies can affect what three different areas?

A
  1. lymphoid, tissue, marrow
  2. intestinal epithelial cells
  3. lungs, liver, kidneys
69
Q

Does anything happen if parvovirus infects the lungs, liver, or kidneys?

A

minimal pathology

70
Q

All parvoviruses are:

A

cytocidal

71
Q

When is the ideal time to collect specimens for viral isolation?

A

during the acute stage of illness before antibodies form

72
Q

How are viruses grown in lab (on what type of material)?

A

embryonated eggs, cell cultures, liver animals

73
Q

What is used in direct method detection of viruses?

A

the virus itself, or components antigens or molecules of the virus

74
Q

What is used in indirect method detection of viruses?

A

serologic evidence in the form of specific antibodies

75
Q

Why will many viruses replicate in embryonated chicken eggs?

A

because the cells and extra-embryonic membranes of the developing embryo lack a high degree of specialization

76
Q

List 5 reasons chicken embryos are used almost exclusively:

A
  1. availability
  2. economy
  3. convenient size
  4. relatively aseptic
  5. lack of antibody production
77
Q

List the six methods of inoculating embryonated chicken eggs?

A

yolk sac, chorioallontoic cavity, chorioallantoic membrane, amniotic sac, IV, intracerebral

78
Q

What type of cells do viruses readily grow in when the chicken embryos are innoculated via the chorioallantoic cavity?

A

entodermal cells

79
Q

List the 5 factors influencing the growth of viruses in chicken embryos:

A

age, route of inoculation, concentration/volume of virus, incubation temperature, and time of incubation

80
Q

What is the most common method for isolation of viruses from clinical material?

A

cell cultures

81
Q

Cell culture denotes the growing of cells…

A

in vitro

82
Q

a tissue culture started from material taken directly from an animal

A

primary cell culture

83
Q

What types of animal inoculations are there?

A

intracerebral, intranasal, intraperitoneal

84
Q

best chance for successful propagation of an unknown virus is in the:

A

natural host (animal inoculation)

85
Q

What animal is used for intracerebral inoculation?

A

mice

86
Q

What animal is used for intranasal inoculation?

A

mice, sometimes ferrets

87
Q

What animal is used for intraperitoneal inoculation?

A

guinea pigs, (and less commonly) rats

88
Q

Tissue of choice for samples from intraperitoneal inoculation:

A

spleen

89
Q

How do we morphologically characterize viral particles?

A

TEM with phosphotungstic acid negative staining

90
Q

What parts of an animal can you test with TEM?

A

excretions, secretions, and solid tissues

91
Q

What additive allows for easily sedimentation of viruses and why?

A

antibody; causes viral particles to clump

92
Q

detection of virus/viral antigen involves capture by specific antibody attached, either absorbed or covalently bound, to a solid substrate

A

ELISA

93
Q

What is the result of an ELISA based on?

A

a visible color change following the addition of a substrate

94
Q

Are ELISAs direct or indirect?

A

both

95
Q

List the 4 direct methods of viral detection we went over (includes some under the category of BOTH):

A

ELISA, PCR, radioimmunoassay, electron microscopy, fluorescent antibody test

96
Q

What is the only significant difference between radioimmunoassay and the ELISA?

A

the indicator system is isotope labeled antibody rather than enzyme labeled antibody

97
Q

method being used to detect and analyze most infectious agents:

A

PCR

98
Q

frequently applied in the detection and analysis of certain viruses, many of which utilize RNA in their genetic code

A

RT-PCR

99
Q

an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of DNA from an RNA template

A

reverse transcriptase

100
Q

spread by the blood stream:

A

viremia

101
Q

List the 3 mechanisms of spread in the body:

A
  1. local spread on epithelial surfaces
  2. subepithelial invasion and lymphatic spread
  3. viremia
102
Q

What is the most important route of virus shedding?

A

respiratory

103
Q

What is the least important route of virus shedding?

A

skin

104
Q

List the 7 virus shedding routes:

A

respiratory, skin, feces, saliva, genital secretions, urine, milk

105
Q

infections that persist for the life of the animal, although episodes of clinical disease might occur infrequently:

A

persistent infections

106
Q

Why are persistent infections important?

A
  1. source of infection
  2. reactivation
  3. immunopathologic disease
  4. associated with neoplasms
107
Q

virus is not demonstrable except when reactivation occurs:

A

latent infections

108
Q

virus is always demonstrable and often shed and disease may be absent, chronic, or may develop late

A

chronic infections

109
Q

virus gradually increases during a very long preclinical phase, leading to a slowly progressive lethal disease

A

slow infections

110
Q

like an extracellular plasmid

A

episome

111
Q

Where do most prions concentrate?

A

brain and spinal cord

112
Q

misfolded proteins that concentrate in the tissues of the CNS

A

prions

113
Q

3 Modifications of host defense mechanisms:

A
  1. defective antibody response 2. defective cell-mediated immunity 3. growth in macrophages
114
Q

Why is it beneficial for viruses to grow in macrophages?

A

avoid host immune response

115
Q

interaction between host and virus affecting development and out come of an infection

A

host-virus relationship

116
Q

What are the two types of host-response to viral infections?

A

non-specific, specific (kind of like innate versus adaptive)

117
Q

a molecule which induces the formation of antibody

A

antigen

118
Q

a single antigenic determinant as a smallest unit of antigen

A

epitope

119
Q

a molecule produced by animals in response to antigen

A

antibody

120
Q

B lymphocytes respond to an antigenic stimulus by producing and secreting specific antibodies

A

humoral immunity

121
Q

responds to an antigenic stimulus by the activation of several kinds of T lymphocytes and the production and secretion of several kinds of lymphokines

A

cell-mediated immunity

122
Q

earliest antibody produced:

A

IgM

123
Q

What is IgM made of?

A

pentamer of 5 IgG molecules

124
Q

Which immunoglobulin does not cross the placenta from dam to fetus in any species?

A

IgM

125
Q

Which immunoglobulin is found in body secretions?

A

IgA

126
Q

elimination of virus infected cells; mediated by T-lymphocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, and cytokines

A

cellular immune response

127
Q

Which immunoglobulin is responsible for immunity against reinfection?

A

IgG

128
Q

Which immunoglobulin is important resistance to infection of the respiratory, intestinal, and urogenital tracts?

A

IgA

129
Q

What happens when an immune system goes wrong?

A

causes tissue damage in vital organs, virus evades the immune system and establishes a persistent infection

130
Q

A variety of cell types which carry antigen in a form that can stimulate lymphocytes

A

antigen presenting cells

131
Q

list the types of antigen presenting cells:

A

macrophages, monocytes, dendritic cells

132
Q

A genetic locus encoding class I and II proteins

A

MHC

133
Q

Where are class I glycoproteins (MHC) found?

A

plasma membrane of most types of cells

134
Q

Where are class II glycoproteins (MHC) found?

A

confined principally to APCs

135
Q

Which immunoglobulin is able to cross the placenta?

A

IgG

136
Q

What is the most important form of transfer for domestic animals?

A

postnatal (colostrum)

137
Q

Replicates in the host, induces a lasting immune response without causing disease, produces a subclinical infection

A

live-virus vaccines

138
Q

Vx administration routes (6):

A

SQ, IM, oral, aerosol, eye drops, water

139
Q

goes through serial passage through cell cultures, laboratory animals, or embryonic eggs; temp-sensitive

A

attenuated live vaccines

140
Q

uses viruses as vectors to carry the genes for the protective antigens or other viruses

A

virus-vectored vaccines

141
Q

made from virulent virus and use chemical or physical agents to destroy infectivity while maintaining immunogenicity

A

inactivated vx

142
Q

produces large amounts of viral protein by recombinant DNA technology

A

virus subunit vx

143
Q

Most DNA viruses replicate in the:

A

cell nucleus

144
Q

Most RNA viruses replicate in the:

A

cytoplasm

145
Q

cells without receptors are not susceptible to:

A

viral attachment

146
Q

What is the only type of virus that can do fusion penetration?

A

enveloped

147
Q

entry by fusing with the plasma membrane

A

fusion

148
Q

entry by endosomes at the cell surface (invagination of clathrin-coated pits into endosomes)

A

endocytosis

149
Q

all proteins in a mature virus particles even if they make no contribution to the morphology or rigidity of the virion

A

structural protein

150
Q

viral proteins found in the cell but not packaged into the virion

A

non-structural protein

151
Q

morphological changes in the host cells caused by viruses

A

cytopathic effect

152
Q

What is the use of cytopathic effect (CPE)?

A

identify the virus isolate

153
Q

the first in vitro cultures of cells taken directly from the organs

A

primary culture

154
Q

a cell line that can be subcultured and grown continuously

A

cell line

155
Q

Which type of virus is more stable: DNA or RNA?

A

DNA

Infectious Agents II (3 decks)

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