Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

most common form SCID

A

X linked IL2 R gene

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2
Q

Most common mutation CF

A

delta F 508

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3
Q

What enzyme does newborn screening in CF pick up

A

Immunoreactive trypsinogen

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4
Q

Testing for lupus which is more sensitive vs specific

A

Anti nuclear AB - auto AB to nuclei cells.
98% peoplesystemic lupus have a positive ANA test * most sensitive. Also called immunofluorescent antinuclear antibody test.

Anti-double-stranded DNA antibody (anti-dsDNA) = specific ANA antibody found in about 30% of people SLE + less than 1% of healthy individuals * specific.

The presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies suggests more serious lupus, such as lupus nephritis (kidney lupus). When the disease is active, especially in the kidneys, high amounts of anti-DNA antibodies are usually present.
Use enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

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5
Q

How chronic infection CF leads decreased lung funcion

A

o Chronic infection – launch Th17 response against extracellular bacteria. Repeating cycle of infection and neutrophilic inflammation develops. Neutrophil releases lysosomal enzymes + peroxidase. Increased vascular permeability + fluid build-up lungs increasing diffusion distance * limiting effective gas exchange. TGF-ß and endothelin, cause smooth muscle proliferation, intimal thickening, interstitial fibrosis.

o Cleavage of complement receptors CR1 and C3bi and immunoglobulin G (IgG) by neutrophil elastase (NE) results in failure of opsonophagocytosis * bacterial persistence. NE leads production (IL)–8 from epithelial cells and elastin degradation * persistence of inflammation and infection, structural damage, impaired gas exchange, and, ultimately, end-stage lung disease and early death. As chronic inflammation gets resolved get formation scar tissue each time * builds up which reduced lung function.

o Airway obstructed due build up mucus * harder exhale air * reduced FEV

o Struggle expel air quickly as airways could collapse during exhalation – breathe out slowly pursed lips positive pressure maintain airway patency.

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6
Q

Warm type haemolytic anemia

patho

A

Breakdown tolerance -IgG auto AB produced against rhesus antigen rbc

igG coat RBC binding Fc R receptor phagocytes - phagocytosis esp sleen as splenic macrophages best affinity FC region.

Repeated partial pahgocytosis - damages membrane - spherocyte

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7
Q

Cold type haemolytic anemia

patho

A

Breakdown tolerance- IgM auto AB against polysaccaride 1 antigen.

Form IC peripheries <37 - Igm binds anitgen low affinity. Igm fixes complement classical * when RBC enter warmer region igM detaches leaving complement bound - kupffer cells high affinity C3b extra vascular hemaolysis liver

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8
Q

Warm type haemolytic anemia testing

A

Blood film - leucoerthroblastic, poly chromatic spherocytes

+ve direct Ab test IgG C3d
postive coombs for IgG

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9
Q

Cold type haemolytic anemia testing

A

Blood film normocytic, poly chromatic spherocytes

+ve Cooms complement

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10
Q

Folate cycle

A

dUMP -> thymidylate via thymidylaye synthase. Thymine needed DNA synthesis.

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11
Q

erythropoesis

A
Multipotent heamatopoetic stem cell
common myeloid progenitor
pro-erthroblast
basilic erthroblast
polychromatic erthroblast 
Orthochromatic eryhtroblast/normoblast
poly-chromatic erythrocyte/ reticulocyte
erthyrocyte
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12
Q

Causes micro cytic anemia

A

Microcytic anaemia- > Hypo chromatic -> Iron deficiency, Thalassaemia, anaemia chronic disease, hyperthyroidism + lead poisoning

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13
Q

Clotting diseases with prolonged prothrombin time

A
Owen parahemophillia (factor 5 deficiency) 
Liver failure - deficiency gamma carboxylated coagulation factors - II (prothrombin), VII, IX and X.

An essential cofactor for gamma-carboxylation is vitamin K,

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14
Q

Oculomotor n. parasympathetic component

A

Preganglionic neurons: midbrain (Edinger-Westphal nucleus)
Postganglionic neurons: Ciliary ganglion

Targets: Ciliary muscle & sphincter pupillae

Function: Accommodation of the lens, constriction of pupil

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15
Q

Facial nerve parasympathetic component

A

Preganglionic neurons: pons (superior salivatory nucleus)
Postganglionic neurons: pterygopalatine & submandibular ganglia

Targets: Lacrimal glands, submandibular gland, sublingual gland

Function: Increased secretion (tears and/or saliva)

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16
Q

Glossopharyngeal n. parasympathetic component

A

Preganglionic neurons: pons (inferior salivatory nucleus)
Postganglionic neurons: Otic ganglion

Target: Parotid gland

Function: Increased secretion

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17
Q

Vagus n parasympathetic component

A

Preganglionic neurons: medulla (Dorsal vagal motor nucleus)
Postganglionic neurons: within walls of viscera

                                                        E.g. enteric NS!

Target: Thoracic & abdominal viscera (up to the splenic flexure)
Function: Rest & digest

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18
Q

Pelvic splanchnic nerves

A

Preganglionic neurons: S2-S4
Postganglionic neurons: within walls of viscera

Target: Hindgut & pelvic viscera

Function: Peristalsis, glandular secretion, engorgement of erectile bodies, urination

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19
Q

Obstructive airway disease

A

Airflow obstruction due narrowing airways. Fev1 decreases much more FVC (same or drop slightly)* ratio drops.

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20
Q

Restrictive airway disease

A

Restrictive: Decreased lung volume – fibrosis. Not able create as great pressure difference due lack compliance * draw out smaller volume air. Fev1 and FVC drop by the same amount * ratio remains the same.

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21
Q

Pelvic pain line

A

Pain from viscera ‘above or in contact with inferior layer of parietal peritoneum’ travels via sympathetic splanchnic nerves

Pain from sub-peritoneal organs is conveyed via parasympathetic nerves

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22
Q

Pseudomonas virulence factors

A

Type 4 pilli
twitching motility + cell adhesion

LPS
Inflam signal + resistance phagocytosis

Type 3 secretion system
Injection toxins into host cells

Alginate
Slime layer + resistance IC + proteins

Flagellum
Motility + inflam signal

Phospholipse
Tissue invasion

Exoenzyme S/A
Inhibit elongation factors - kills

Sidophores
Iron sequesration + cell death

Elastase/protease
Tissue invasion

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23
Q

How siderphores allow iron sequestration

A

Siderophores are essential to iron sequestration in pseudomonas but in the process, they strip iron from human cells. Host cells need Fe for oxidative phosphorylation, siderophores are released from bacteria to scavenge Fe3+ from host cells – metabolic stress kills cell + iron sequestered into bacterium via transferrin. Neutrophil response – oxidative burst leads peroxide secretion from phagocytes. Fe3+ strips oxygen from peroxide * no damage to bacterium.

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24
Q

How does pseudomonas cause a respiratory tract infection in CF? 4 mark

A

o Initially pseudomonas adopts a non- mucoid phenotype, no biofilm formation, motile, cytotoxic with immunogenic LPS -> elicits strong IR.
o Normally bacteria eliminated by non-specific barrier defences – ventilation also have mucus trapping, defensin secretion + ciliary action- poor ventilation or entry bacteria increased by external devices infection occurs normally macrophages detect bacteria + drive inflammation. DC recruits Th17 help, neutrophils recruited + pathogen cleared.
o In CF patients produce excess/thick mucus that bacteria can live inside – mucus not removed by ciliary action * colonisation occurs + replication bacteria cannot be controlled.
o Once inside mucus pseudomonas changes its phenotype to a mucoid alginate secreting phenotype. Biofilm formation which is impenetrable to therapy, resorbs flagella, limited toxin production + this limit immune response as IS only encounter organisms if reach edges of mucus.

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25
Q

Risk factors for pseudomonas

A

o Failure immunity
o Structural defect
o Lack adequate ventilation
o Devices

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26
Q

How does the mucoid phenotype helps evade IS

A

How does the mucoid phenotype helps evade IS
o Biofilm prevents penetration of immune proteins + compounds. Lipid A of LPS binds less efficiently to TLR4 -reduced inflammation + reduced bacterial clearance leading to chronic infection with repeated flare ups.
o Increased neutrophil mediated damage respiratory epithelium, elastic + connective tissues. Neutrophils undergo NETosis form extracellular traps + neutrophil granule contents released. Wheeze, cough, mucus hyper-production -> bronchitis, bronchiectasis + pulmonary failure inevitable. Need antimicrobial therapy prevent colonisation + eliminate bacteria during flare ups.

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27
Q

How pseudomonas has developed antimicrobial resistance (natural feature of overdose)

A

o Hydrophobic penicillins (Penicillin V, flucloxacillin) + glycopeptides cannot enter outer membrane channels
o Hydrophilic penicillins (Amoxicillin) + cephalosporins can enter but chromosomally encoded beta-lactamases degrade them
o Constantly expressed outer membrane efflux pumps pump protein synthesis inhibitors + folate antagonists out cell (Macrolides, Tetracyclines, Trimethoprim + Fusidate)

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28
Q

Mucoid phenotype in psedomonas

A
Alginate secreting
Biofilm formation
Resorb flagella
Limited toxin production
limits IR  -
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29
Q

Productive cough CF

A

Lack CFTR reduced chloride secretion increases sodium + water absorption - lowers water content mucus lining respiratory epithelium - isotonic dehydrated mucus
defective mucocilliary action accumulation secretion obstruct bronchi + bronchitis triggering cough reflex

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30
Q

How Pseudomonas acquires resistance

A

Chromosomal mutation. Activation of existing resistance genes. Uptake of genetic material from other organisms

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31
Q

Acquired resistance Pseudomonas

A

o De-repression chromosomal ESBL + plasmid-acquired beta-lactamases (NDM1) OR carbapenemases (KPC) degrade ceftazidime, tazobactam + meropenem

o Overexpression multi- drug efflux pumps actively remove fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin), aminoglycosides (gentamicin) + carbapenems

o Changes in drug targets (topoisomerases + small ribosomal subunits) prevent fluoroquinolone + aminoglycoside binding -> expression 16s rRNA methylation enzymes + expression altered topoisomerase enzymes.

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32
Q

What is pseudomonas

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a Gram-negative, oxidase-positive, non-fermenting bacillus

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33
Q

What pseudomonas relations

A

Acinetobacter, Burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas

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34
Q

atopy

A

Atopy (genetic tendency to develop allergic disease). 40% in Caucasian populations. Atopic have higher levels IgE + Eosinophils in blood. Due polymorphism of many genes. MHC II -> enhanced presentation of allergen peptides. TRC alpha chain -> enhanced recognition of allergen peptides. Il-4R -> increased Il-4 signalling. Il-4 -> variation Il-4 protein expression. FceRI -> IgE binding. Chromosome 5 genes for Il-4,3,5,9,12,13 + GM-CSF involved isotope switching, eosinophil survival + mast cell proliferation.

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35
Q

Genetic factors asthma

A

HLA DR/Q

Polymorphisms ADAM33

Chromosome 5q

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36
Q

Atopic asthma

A

Atopic asthma
Most common type – type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. Allergic sensitisation + patients’ family hx asthma + high serum IgE.

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37
Q

Stress induced asthma

A

Stress induced Initially At catecholamine -> bronchodilation. Long periods of exposure catecholamines, their receptors become downregulated * effects less severe. Reduction in catecholamine sensitivity reduces immune cell regulation, as T and B lymphocytes possess adrenergic receptors, so catecholamines can regulate IL-4, IL-5 and IL-13 expression, histamine release from mast cells and recruitment + activation of eosinophils.

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38
Q

Cold induced asthma

A

Cold/ exercise induced Airway cooling - dehydration of the fluid lining respiratory epithelium. Drying of the airways increased blood flow (hyperemia) -> oedema + bronchoconstriction.
Exercise induced asthma, symptomatic 5-15 minutes after exercise, as catecholamine release during exercise helps with bronchodilation.

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39
Q

Drug induced

A

Drug induced 3-5%, NSAID + Aspirin sensitivity -> Drugs inhibit AA pathway inhibit production prostaglandins. Prostaglandin E inhibits enzymes generate leukotrienes * inhibit this get upregulation leukotrienes -> bronchoconstriction.
Urticaria (hives) + typical asthmatic symptoms.

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40
Q

Early phase asthma

A

Early phase response - sensitization
o Inhaled allergens get across mucosal layer taken up DC, presented T-helper cells inducing exaggerated Th2 response to harmless environmental antigen.
o Th2 produces Il-4 -> stimulate proliferation + differentiation plasma cells + IgE production. Il-13 -> stim mucus secretion from bronchial submucosal glands + IgE from plasma cells.
o Plasma cell produced IgE binds to Fc on submucosal mast cells BUT by this time the antigen has already been cleared.
o Second exposure to antigen the ready and waiting mast cells react immediately, releasing granule contents with immediate affects. Allergen binds mast cell bound IgE immunoglobins cross linking Fc receptors triggering degranulation + release;
- Leukotrienes -> bronchoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and oedema and increased mucus secretion (B4 recruits immune cells, C4, D4, E4 bronchoconstrict)
- Histamine -> potent bronchoconstrictor
- Prostaglandin D2 -> bronchoconstriction and vasodilation (causing oedema)

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41
Q

Late phase asthma

A

o Th2 -> IL-5 activates locally recruited eosinophils into airways which bond IgE immunoglobins through Fc receptors which cross linked bound to allergen. Eosinophils release eosinophil cationic protein + major basic protein -> damages cells respiratory tract + leukotrienes -> oedema + further bronchial constriction.
o Chemokines produced T + epithelial cells recruit more T cells, eosinophils + basophils. Epithelial release eotaxin = chemokine for eosinophils.

Chronic inflammation -> bronchial hyperresponsiveness to histamine, cold air, sulphur dioxide and AMP. mediated by high levels IgE * airways more responsive to contractile stimuli.

Epithelial shedding from chronic inflammation exposes subepithelial tissues to inflammatory mediators + sensitises nerves * altered neural control of the airways. Airway obstruction due muscular bronchoconstriction, acute oedema and mucus plugging.

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42
Q

Characteristics early phase asthma

A

bronchoconstriction, increased mucus production and increased vascular permeability and oedema, leading to symptoms of wheezing, chest tightness and breathlessness.

Mast cell contents activate subepithelial vagal receptors, triggering acetylcholine release from vagal efferents that directly induces smooth muscle contraction through muscarinic receptors.

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43
Q

Why is breathlessness worse at night asthma

A

Airway obstruction due bronchoconstriction + mucus plugging * respiratory muscles need work harder to generate a negative intrapulmonary pressure for inspiration. Muscle fatigue -> lead to breathlessness. Inability to draw in air-> bronchoconstriction.

Increased exposure to allergens at night; cooling of the airways; being in a reclined position leading to pooling of secretions worsens airway obstruction at night * breathlessness.

Cortisol peaks in the early morning hours, leading to increased inflammation

44
Q

What is asthma

A

Chronic disorder conducting airways caused immunological reaction marked episodic bronchoconstriction due increased airway sensitivity variety stimuli, inflammation bronchial walls + increased mucus secretion. Flare ups IgE mediated type I hypersensitivity reaction Allergen specific IgE AN bind mast cells via Fc receptor. When antigen binds to IgE the Cross linking of IgE induces degranulation of mast cells), following exposure environmental allergen in genetically predisposed person.

45
Q

Response to b2 agonist in asthma, COPD and restrictive

A

Asthma >15% response
COPD <15%
No response restrictive

46
Q

Changes in airway remodeling

A
Sub epithelial fibrosis
Increase SM mass
Goblet + mucus gland hyperplasia
Angiogenesis
Loss cartilage integrity
Inflammation
Epithelial alteration
47
Q

What do neutrophils release

A

Granules - cellular proteases, elastase, proteinase 3 + cathepsin - tissue damage

48
Q

Functional alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

Oxidative injury allows inactivation native antiproteases

49
Q

Part lung affected emphysema

A

Acinus - respiratory bronchiole, alveolar ducts + alveolar

50
Q

Symptoms COPD

A

Cough worse morning - productive colorless sputum
Breathlessness 6th decade life due reduction FVC
Wheezing

Severe
Tachypnoea -rapid shallow breathing
Acc respiratory muscles
Cyanosis
Elevated JVP

Examination
Hyperinflation
decreased breath sounds
prolonged expiration

51
Q

Obstructive lung disease

A

obstruction due narrowing airways - fev1 decreases more fvc * ratio drops

52
Q

Restrictive lung disease

A

DECREASED LUNG VOLUME - fibrosis. not able create great pressure differnece due lack compliance * draw smaller volume air

Fev1/ FVC drop by same amount * ratio remains the same

53
Q

how to episodic asthma symptoms become persistent with time

A

Persistent mucous inflammation - up regulation nerves vessels + glands in resp tract -> increased responsiveness allergens + environmental irritants (epitope spreading)
-> patient sensitive wide range stimuli * episodic symptoms become persistant

54
Q

Lung mechanism of compensation

A

Physiological shunting and hypoxic vasoconstriction - area capillary not getting ventilated vasocontricts and blood shunts to area well ventilated

If physiological dead space- get bronchocontriction and reduced surfactant - diverts to areas well perused alveoli

55
Q

Type I and type II respiratory failure

A

Type I hypoxaemic respiratory failure - Localized mismatching ventilation/perfusion ratio
Po2 low Pco2 normal/low

Type II hypercapnic respiratory failure - large portion lung pneumothroax - global reduction in flow of air to alveoli or blood to pulmonary capillaries

po2 low pco2 high

56
Q

Role kidney and liver in chronic acidosis

A

liver decrease urea production and increase glutamine production

Kidney up regulates glutamine dehydrogenase + PEPCK which catalyze breakdown glutamine into ammonium and bicarbonate ions

57
Q

Where is glutamine taken up

A

PCT

58
Q

Glutamine to glucose steps

A
Glutamine
alpha ketoglutarate
oxaloacetate
Phosphoenolypyruvate 
Glucose + bircarbonate (3 bircarbonate excreted into interstium along with Na+)
59
Q

kidneys response to chronic alkalosis

A

Decrease plasma bicarbonate

Increase number and activity type b intercalated cells in collecting duct -> secrete HCO3 into tubule lumen

60
Q

Mechanism Warfrin

A

Competively inhibits vit K reductase needed activate vit k into usable forms by body. reduce synthesis vit K dependent clotting factors
II, VII, IX X

61
Q

Mechanism Heparin

A

Binds + activated antithrombin III which activates it against 11, IX, X and slightly XII
Unfractionated inactivates throbin and factor X
LMWH only inactivates factor X
dalteparin

62
Q

Steps clotting

A
Vascular spasm
Platlet plug formation
Coagulation
Clot refraction + repair 
Fibrinolysis
63
Q

Endo cells release…. to prevent clotting normally

A

NO2/ PGI2 -> NATURALLY INHIBIT PLATELET PREVENT BINDING

Heparin sulfate on surface which bonds AT III which degrades clotting factors II, IX X

thrombomodulin of surface which binds Thrombin (II)
Which activates protein C which degrades V and VIII

64
Q

Stages vascular spasm

A

Endo injury constrict BV prevent Blood loss
Endo cells injured -> endothelin activates intracell PIP2 mechanism contraction

Direct injury Sm- myogenic mechanism -> contraction

Chemokines/pro inflam cytokines activate nociceptors - pain reflex contraction

65
Q

Parasympathetic cranial nerves

A

oculomotor, facial, glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves, which are also known as cranial nerves
III, VII, IX and X

66
Q

SIRS

A

Body wide response involving inflam mediators can be caused when infections reach bloodstream.

Infection BS, TNF alpha binds R endo cells. Momocytes detect pathogens PRR, complemnt R + Fc R. monocytes initiate pro inflam cytokine responce.

Dissemination increase fever HR CRP + WCC

67
Q

SIRS to Sepsis

A

TNF alpha activated eno cells release TF (activates coagulation cascade - hypoperfusion other areas + ROS direct organ damage) and NO drives vasodialtion + capillary leakage.

TNF alpha also activates neutrophils - produce TNF alpha. Activated neutrophils form NETS

68
Q

SIRS to septic shock

A

Increase TF hypercoagualtion, depletion clotting factors increased anticoagulation
TNF alpha, CXCL8 + NO casue vasodilation - fluid loss into tissues - oedema (LUNGS + CSF) hypoperfusion + BP rapdil drops

SEPTIC SHOCK - low BP/MAP

69
Q

Bacteria cause sepsis

A
Esherichia coli (gram neg)
Stapylococcus aureus (gram = +ve)
70
Q

Bacteria cause meningitis

A
GBS
E-coli
Staph aureus
Strep pneu
Neisseria meningitis
71
Q

qSOFA

A

presence doc/suspected infection with organ dysfunction + qSOFA 2+ = sepsis

RR >20
CNS altered mentation
SBP <100mmHg

72
Q

CARS

A

compensatory anti inflam response syndrome

If ongoing septic shock and IR run out of immune cells * pathogen no longer being present switch anti inflam responce
Increase TGF B + IL-10
Decrease TNF alpha, CXCL8 + NO

body assumes infection is over

73
Q

SOFA

A

sequential organ failure assessment for sepsis - SIRS presence infection with SOFA >2 = SEPSIS

Looks at respiratory, coagulation, liver, CNS + renal

74
Q

Community acquired pneumonia

A

Strep. pneu

Amoxicillin

75
Q

Community acquired UTI

A

E- coli

Trimethoprim

76
Q

Catheter associated UTI

A

Gram neg
E- coli
kleibsiella spp

Gentamycin

77
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia

A

Staph aureus
Pseudomonas
tazocin

78
Q

ECG trace PE

A

S1Q3T3 McGinn white sign

79
Q

When does gallop heart rhythm happen

A

Diastole

80
Q

Brief study development AS plaque

A

Endothelium dysfunction + high amounts circulating LDL
Increase LDL deposit intima + oxidised
Oxidised LDL activate eno cells which upregulate receptors bind leukocytes
Adhesion leukocytes allow monocyte + t cell entry - monocytes differentiate into macrophages as moves into tunica intima.
Macrophages take in oxLDL + become foam cells
Foam cells promote migration SMC from tunica media- intima + SMC proliferation.
SM proliferation - heightened synthesis collagen * hardening AS plaque.
Foam cells die - release lipid contents.
Plaque grows + pressure - rupture.
Thrombosis + coagulation impede blood flow

81
Q

ANP

A

Stretch atria causes drop BP

Decrease GFR, decrease resorption Na+, inhibit release renin, aldosterone = ADH

82
Q

MI

A

Irreversible necrosis heart muscle secondary prolonged ishemia due imbalance O2 supply + demand often caused plaque rupture thrombus formation in left anterior decending artery * reduction blood supply to ant wall left ventricle.

83
Q

Which cell type release synovial fluid

A

type B

84
Q

Pathophysiology OA

A

Initial articular cartilage damage - chondrocyte switches repair cartilage, makes less proteoglycans + more type II collagen. Then switches increase type I collagen. Type I doesn’t interact proteoglycan same way + decrease elasticity. Over years chondrocytes became exhausted and apoptose.

Weak cartilage - flake off into cartilage space = JOINT MICE
Type A cells clear joint mice - attracting lymphocytes + macrophages - release pro inflam cytokines - synovitis

Fibrilations form - cracks on articular smooth surface

Cartilage wears away until rubs bone - bone eburnation

Osteophytes - hebardens + bouchards nodes

85
Q

Rickets pathophysiology

A

Deficiency Vit D, hypocalceamia, increase plasma Ca, decrease plasma P. bone formation as compensation - abnormal mineralization due lack calcium and phosphate. If at growth plate = rickets. If bone matrix = osteomalacia.

86
Q

Anemia in inflam states

A

Il-6 binds to IL-6 receptors on liver cells increasing hepcidin expression. Hepcidin interacts with ferroportin causing internalisation into enterocytes, inhibiting iron mobilisation from cellular stores. TNF alpha also opposes action of EPO which reduces erythropoiesis. Reduced RBC formation and reduces iron availability reduces amount Oxygen that is transported around body causing anaemia and fatigue.

87
Q

High risk strains HPV

A

HPV 16,18,31,33,45

88
Q

HPV genital warts

A

6,11

89
Q

HPV cutaneous warts

A

1-4

90
Q

HPV oral infections

A

13+ 32

91
Q

What is target HPV virus

A

Stratum basale keratinocytes

92
Q

Whats the trigger to switch off E2 in HPV and then l1/2 promotor switches on

A

keratinisation of cell + de-condensation of nucleus

93
Q

HPV mechanism of immune evasion

A

E5 blocks MHC I peptide loading * inhibits NK recognition

E6 blocks expression chemokines MIP1alpha and cxcl8

IFN prvented being transcribed by E7

Once inside cell E6 inhibits expression TLR -9

94
Q

What is the role of HPV E7

A

HPV E7 binds Rb + mimics phosphorylation

E2F drives cyclin E expression

95
Q

What is the role of HPV E6

A

Decreases Rb causes increase p53

HPV E6 binds p53 stopping expression CDK1

96
Q

Measles virus 8 proteins

A

Early non structural proteins

Nucleocapsid - contains + stabilises RNA

Virulence protiens p/v/c immune evasion

Late proteins structural proteins
Matrix - form + stabilize lipid envelope upon release cell

Fusion - virulence determinant allows syncytia formation

Haemaglugutinin major adhesion

Polymerase - replicates neg sense RNA * protein synthesis.

97
Q

Receptors blood vessels

A

Alpha 1 vasoconstriction
Beta 2 vasodilation

Alpha I preferentially activated high adrenaline concentrations

98
Q

Receptors in the eye

A

Miosis - pupillary constrictor muscle sphincter
Parasympathetic M3
Mydriasis- pupil dilator muscles radial. Alpha 1 sympathetic

99
Q

4 ways kidney stabilizes blood pressure -long term

A

o Myogenic intrinsic -Increase BP, increase stretch SM, increase cytosolic calcium, aa constricts + reduction renin section
o Tubuloglomerular intrinsic – Increase BP, increase GFR, Increase Na+ uptake macula densa cells stim adenosine release, triggers vasoconstriction aa + inhibits renin secretion from granular cells
o Extrinsic - Drop BP detected baroreceptors, increase sympathetic firing, increase noradrenaline, increase proximal tubule Na/H exchange.
o Extrinsic RAAS- Angiotensin II, arteriolar vasoconstriction, increase thirst, Na= appetite, increase Na/H+ exchange, aldosterone secretion (increases Na= reabsorption from principal cells distal nephron)
o ANP- secreted atrial myocytes response increase BP, decrease proximal na transport vasodilation A>E
o Adrenal cortex release aldosterone

100
Q

Mechanism of NO release

A

The glycocalyx transduces information on shear stress (flow-induced vasodilatation)
Activation of intracellular protein kinase B (PKB)
PKB phosphorylates endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS)  ↑eNOS activity
↑ NO production in endothelial cells which then diffuses freely through cell membranes to act locally in VSMCs due to its very short half-life
NO activates guanylate cyclase in VSMCs  ↑cGMP production  Protein kinase G (PKG) activation:
Inhibition of MLCK  ↓ Ca2+ sensitivity.
Phosphorylation of phospholamban  disinhibition Ca2+-ATPase pumps  ↑ Ca2+ expulsion + sequestration
Activation of sarcolemma K+ channels  hyperpolarisation   opening probability of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels   Ca2+ influx

101
Q

NOD 2 hypothesis for crohns

A
  1. Loss of function of NOD2 leads to reduced α-defensins, reduced recognition in macrophages and dendritic cells and bacteria thrive
  2. NOD2 enhances autophagy in endothelial cells clearing bacteria. Without this the bacteria build up . Also associated with reduced α-defensins
  3. NOD2 negatively regulates TLR signalling reducing inflammatory cytokine release. Mutations cause deregulated TLR signalling and excessive inflammation. TLR induces IL-12 and pro-inflammatory cytokines. Tips the balance towards Th1 and Th17 induction
102
Q

Coeliac mechanism

A

Gluten transits the epithelial cells and is altered by tissue transglutaminases into it’s peptide gliadin. Could be as a result of an infection e.g. rotavirus

Dendritic cells take up the antigen and drive a TH1 response.

IFNγ activates macrophages and drives inflammation
TTG complexed with gliadin can be recognised by B cells which with T cell help produce antibodies to gliadin TTG perpetuating inflammation

Damage and inflammation can drive IL-15 release by the epithelial cells and activate NK and CD8 responses

103
Q

NSTEMI

A

ST segment appears depressed

Partial occlusion coronary vessel - depolarization drom sub endocardium first as last per-fused - depolarization towards +ve - positve deflection - baseline shift upwards towards +ve value * ST segment appears depressed

104
Q

STEMI

A

Complete occlusion coronary artery - transmural ishemia - depolrization from ishemic to healthy tissue - directiondepol away electrode - neg deflection - shift baseline down towards neg value * ST segment appear elevated

105
Q

Risk factor lupus

A

HLA DR3/2
defects C1q
virus
UV

106
Q

Role CFTR in respiratory vs pancreas vs sweat ducts

A

Respiratory - secretes cl- and inhibits ENAC
Pancreas- SLC2 pumps HCO3 out and Cl- in
Sweat ducts - active resorption chloride + activates ENAC- resorption both sodium + chloride.