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Physiology > Unit 3 > Flashcards

Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

slow fibers

A

rely on aerobic metabolism

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2
Q

the ability of smooth muscle to generate tension over a wide range of resting lengths is called

A

plasticity

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3
Q

the type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the (BLANK) fiber

A

slow

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4
Q

fast fibers

A

have low resistance to fatigue and quick twitches

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5
Q

muscles that move the eyeball have (BLANK) fibers

A

fast

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6
Q

which of the following statements is/are false regarding human muscles?

  • most have both slow and fast fibers
  • slow fibers are abundant in the muscles of the hand
  • eye muscles are composed entirely of fast fibers
  • slow fibers are abundant in the back muscles
  • all of the answers are correct
A

slow fibers are abundant in the muscles of the hand

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7
Q

large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of

A

fast fibers

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8
Q

which of the following types of muscle fibers are best adapted for prolonged contraction such as standing all day?

A

slow fibers

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9
Q

the ability of smooth muscle to function over a wide range of lengths is called

A

plasticity

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10
Q

which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle?

  • the striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin
  • neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control
  • smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres
  • the thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies
A

the striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin

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11
Q

which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue

  • altering the diameter of the respiratory passageways
  • elevating hairs on the arm
  • forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries
  • moving food materials along the digestive tract
  • forcing urine out of the urinary tract
A

forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries

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12
Q

which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells?

  • cardiac muscle cells does not have striations
  • cardiac muscle cells does not have t tubules
  • cardiac muscle cells does not have sarcomeres
  • cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not
  • cardiac muscle cells have more nuclei in them than skeletal muscle cells
A

cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not

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13
Q

which skeletal muscle fiber type- slow or fast- contains more mitochondria?

A

slow

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14
Q

true or false: intermediate fibers can be changed into fast through exercise

A

false- fast more like intermediate

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15
Q

true or false: all smooth muscle cells have direct contact with at least one motor neuron

A

false

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16
Q

Ca++ source for skeletal muscle

A

release from SR

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17
Q

Ca++ source for cardiac muscle

A

extracellular fluid and release from SR

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18
Q

Ca++ source for smooth muscle

A

extracellular fluid and release from SR

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19
Q

filament organization for skeletal muscle

A

sarcomeres

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20
Q

filament organization for cardiac muscle

A

sarcomeres

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21
Q

filament organization for smooth muscle

A

scattered

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22
Q

energy source for skeletal muscle

A

aerobic or anaerobic

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23
Q

energy source for cardiac muscle

A

aerobic

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24
Q

energy source for smooth muscle

A

aerobic

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25
Q

megan wants to enter a weight lifting competition and consults you as to what type of muscle fibers she needs to develop and how she should go about it. What would you suggest to her?

A

she needs fast fibers. to develop these she should do short, intense workouts that involve heavy weights that stretch her fatigue levels

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26
Q

small, membrane bound cell fragments that contain enzymes and other substances important for clotting

A

platelets

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27
Q

platelets

A

release a variety of chemicals that promote aggregation, a vascular spasm, clotting, and vessel repair

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28
Q

an individual who is type B+ has which of the following antibodies in their plasma?

A

anti A

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29
Q

a hematocrit provides info on

A

sedimentation rate

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30
Q

white blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are

A

basophils

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31
Q

Which of the following is not true of monocytes?

  • release histamine
  • enter tissues and wander
  • become macrophages
  • can phagocytize bacteria
A

release histamine

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32
Q

the production of erythropoietin is stimulated when

A

blood flow to the kidney declines

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33
Q

the waste product bilirubin is produced from

A

heme molecules lacking iron

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34
Q

a substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to

A

cause clots to dissolve more quickly

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35
Q

the percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the

A

hematocrit

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36
Q

the most abundant component of plasma is

A

proteins

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37
Q

the chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of

A

proteins

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38
Q

which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood?

A

basophils

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39
Q

which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?

A

liver

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40
Q

the most abundant proteins in blood plasma are

A

albumins

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41
Q

all of the following are functions of blood except

  • regulating pH
  • transporting gases and hormones
  • generating action potentials
  • defending against pathogens
  • regulating ion concentration
A

generating action potentials

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42
Q

you have spent 24 hours traveling from the US to New Zealand, on quite a few airplanes with many stops. because of the stress, changes in time zones, and short blocks of time between planes, you find yourself tired with a headache when you arrive. You are severely dehydrated. a hematocrit value of you r blood would be (BLANK) than normal because (BLANK)

A

higher; you have less blood plasma volume

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43
Q

all the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the

A

red bone marrow

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44
Q

red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone

A

erythropoietin

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45
Q

the level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except

A

periods of fasting

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46
Q

each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of

A

iron

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47
Q

pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by

A

injections of vitamin B12

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48
Q

which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood?

A

reticulocytes

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49
Q

a bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because

A

the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin

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50
Q

most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is

A

recycled to the red bone marrow

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51
Q

in adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in

A

red bone marrow

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52
Q

the developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as

A

reticulocytes

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53
Q

erythropoiesis is stimulated when

A

blood flow to the kidney declines

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54
Q

each hemoglobin molecule contains

A

four iron atoms

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55
Q

erythropoietin is a hormone

A

released by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production

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56
Q

type AB blood has which of the following characteristics?

A

RBCs have both the A and B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies

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57
Q

type A blood has (BLANK) antibodies in the blood plasma

A

anti B

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58
Q

You have type B positive blood. What are all the types of packed RBCs you can receive?

A

B positive, B negative, O positive, O negative

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59
Q

in an emergency situation when you have no time to wait for cross matched blood you could give a patient type (BLANK) the cross match is available

A

O negative

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60
Q

All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are

A

important in coagulation

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61
Q

white blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are

A

basophils

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62
Q

white blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the

A

eosinophils

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63
Q

which of the following is not true of monocytes?

  • about same size as basophils
  • are long lived
  • enter tissues and wander
  • can phagocytize bacteria
  • become macrophages
A

about same size as basophils

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64
Q

Which feature of WBCs makes them particularly important in tissue injury?

A

they can squeeze out through blood vessel walls into tissues

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65
Q

The function of platelets is to assist in the

A

process of hemostasis

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66
Q

(BLANK) involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

A

coagulation

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67
Q

most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by

A

liver

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68
Q

the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the

A

release tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium

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69
Q

the common pathway of coagulation begins with the

A

activation of factor X and production of prothrombin activator

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70
Q

the process of fibrinolysis

A

dissolves clots

71
Q

the enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is

A

plasmin

72
Q

tissue factor (factor III) is a factor in the (BLANK) pathway

A

extrinsic

73
Q

a substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to

A

cause clot dissolution to proceed faster

74
Q

people who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional factor VIII; as a result

A

they lack a functional intrinsic pathway

75
Q

the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme

A

thrombin

76
Q

the phase of hemostasis that involved clotting of blood is called

A

coagulation

77
Q

a fibrin network that contains trapped blood cells and platelets is called a

A

blood clot

78
Q

the first step of hemostasis is

A

vascular spasm

79
Q

true or false: the shape of a red blood cell means that it has a low surface area to volume ratio

A

false

80
Q

true or false: activated mast cells release histamine, which increases blood vessel permeability

A

true

81
Q

most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is excreted by the kidneys

A

false

82
Q

titanic muscle contractions don’t occur in normal cardiac muscle because

A

the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes

83
Q

cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. which of the following is not one of them?

  • cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size
  • cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus
  • cardiac muscle cells branch
  • skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs
  • cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules
A

cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules

84
Q

in cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of

A

increased membrane permeability to sodium ions

85
Q

the long plateau phase of the cardia muscle action potential is due to

A

calcium channels remaining open

86
Q

the normal pacemaker of the heart is located in

A

the sinoatrial node

87
Q

if the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the

A

heart rate will decrease and cells will hyper polarize

88
Q

if the connection between the SA node and the AV node becomes blocked,

A

the ventricles will beat more slowly

89
Q

the P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from

A

depolarization of the atria

90
Q

depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the

A

QRS complex

91
Q

the T wave on an ECG tracing represents

A

ventricular repolarization

92
Q

which of the following statements is true regarding cardiac muscle?

A

there are specialized gap junctions in cardiac muscle not found in skeletal or smooth muscles

93
Q

the property of heart muscle to contract in the absence of neural or hormonal stimulation is called

A

automaticity

94
Q

considering the left ventricle, why does isovolumetric contraction occur during ventricular systole?

A

aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve

95
Q

the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is called

A

systole

96
Q

the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle is called

A

diastole

97
Q

the (BLANK) is the amount of blood in a ventricle after it has contracted and before it begins to refill

A

end systolic volume

98
Q

an increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to

A

both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure

99
Q

the volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the

A

stroke volume

100
Q

each of the following factors will increase cardiac output except increased

  • venous return
  • parasympathetic stimulation
  • heart rate
  • force of contraction
  • sympathetic stimulation
A

parasympathetic stimulation

101
Q

which of the following would not increase heart rate?

  • increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node
  • decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers
  • increased levels of epinephrine
  • faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential
  • beta blocking drugs
A

increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node

102
Q

stroke volume depends on all of the following except

  • end diastolic volume
  • contractility of ventricle
  • pressure required to pump blood into aorta
  • venous return of blood to heart
  • respiratory rate
A

respiratory rate

103
Q

cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except

  • decreasing ejection fraction
  • increasing ejection fraction
  • decreasing end systolic volume
  • increasing heart rate
  • increasing stroke volume
A

decreasing ejection fraction

104
Q

if the force of ventricular contraction increases, what will happen to the end systolic volume?

A

decrease

105
Q

the (BLANK) is the difference between the resting and maximal cardiac output

A

cardiac reserve

106
Q

amount of blood returning to the heart is

A

venous return

107
Q

each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue, except

  • decreased peripheral resistance
  • increased vessel diameter
  • increased hematocrit
  • increased blood pressure
  • relaxation of precapillary sphincters
A

increased hematocrit

108
Q

blood moves forward through veins because of all of the following except

  • the pressure in the veins is lower than in the arteries
  • pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein
  • the respiratory pump
  • valves in the veins preventing the backward flow of blood
  • muscular compression
A

pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein

109
Q

which part of the vascular system functions as a blood reservoir and contains 60% of the body’s blood?

A

veins

110
Q

the main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the

A

arterioles

111
Q

the increase in effective blood volume that results from venoconstriction is the

A

venous reserve

112
Q

resistance is a force that

A

decreases blood flow

113
Q

total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following except the

  • length of the blood vessel
  • blood viscocity
  • osmolarity of interstitial fluids
  • blood vessel diameter
  • turbulence
A

osmolarity of interstitial fluids

114
Q

as blood travels from arteries to veins

A

pressure drops

115
Q

blood flow to a tissue will increase if the

A

arterioles dilate

116
Q

blood pressure increases with all of the following except increased

  • cardiac output
  • parasympathetic innervation
  • peripheral resistance
  • force of cardiac contraction
  • blood volume
A

parasympathetic innervation

117
Q

which of the following factors will increase the net filtration pressure to move fluid out of capillaries?

A

-both decreased plasma albumin and increased blood hydrostatic pressure

118
Q

each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except

  • vasodilation
  • increased sympathetic stimulation
  • elevated hematocrit
  • elevated levels of epinephrine
  • irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques
A

vasodilation

119
Q

the blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the

A

concentration of plasma proteins

120
Q

which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial space?

  • blood hydrostatic pressure forces fluid from capillary to the interstitial space
  • blood osmotic pressure moves fluid from interstitial space to the capillary
  • the osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is less than the blood osmotic pressure
  • the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid is largely unimportant in determining fluid movement
  • the net filtration pressure is usually zero
A

the net filtration pressure is usually zero

121
Q

each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue except

  • increased hematocrit
  • decreased peripheral resistance
  • increased vessel diameter
  • relaxation of precapillary sphincters
  • increased blood pressure
A

increased hematocrit

122
Q

in comparison to a vessel with a large diameter, a vessel with a small diameter has

A

a greater resistance to blood flow

123
Q

the force that moves fluid out of capillaries is (BLANK) pressure whereas the opposing force that moves fluid into capillaries is (BLANK) pressure

A

hydrostatic; colloid osmotic

124
Q

some of the fluid that is forced out of the capillaries is returned to the blood by the

A

lymphatic system

125
Q

blood colloid osmotic pressure is produced by

A

large non diffusible proteins in the blood plasma

126
Q

blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) decreases in starving children because

A

starvation prevents the liver from producing enough protein to maintain BCOP

127
Q

which of the following opposes the flow of blood back to the heart?

  • vascular resistance
  • peripheral veins have valves to prevent back flow of blood
  • muscular pumps squeeze veins and move blood toward the heart
  • blood pressure
  • blood pressure gradient from arteries to veins
A

vascular resistance

128
Q

Edema may occur when

A

the plasma concentration of protein is reduced, capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated, and the capillary endothelium permeability goes up

129
Q

each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure except

  • release of renin
  • decreased peripheral resistance
  • decreased levels of aldosterone
  • decrease in blood volume
  • increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)
A

release of renin

130
Q

each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure except

  • increased levels of aldosterone
  • increased blood volume
  • increased levels of ADH
  • increased levels of angiotensin II
A

increased levels of ANP

131
Q

elevated levels of the natriuretic peptide hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased

A

salt and water loss through kidneys

132
Q

increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in decreased

A

parasympathetic stimulation of the heart

133
Q

Vickie has a tumor that secretes excess amount of the hormone aldosterone. Because of the elevated level of hormone, she exhibits

A

both an increase in blood pressure and an increase in stored sodium ions

134
Q

the regulation of blood flow by local mechanisms within a capillary bed is called

A

auto regulation

135
Q

in response to hemorrhage, there is

A

mobilization of the venous reserve

136
Q

hemostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all the following except

  • uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure
  • inhibition of EPO secretion
  • activation of ADH secretion
  • activation of aldosterone secretion
  • increased thirst and water intake
A

inhibition of EPO secretion

137
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of smooth muscle?
Striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin
Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control
Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres
The thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies

A

Striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin

138
Q

Which skeletal muscle fiber type contains more mitochondria?

A

slow

139
Q

True or false, Intermediate fibers can be changed into fast fibers through exercise

A

False, fast can become more like intermediate

140
Q

True or false, All smooth muscle cells have direct contact with at least one motor neuron

A

false

141
Q

An individual who is Type B+ has which of the following antibodies in their plasma?

A

Anti A

142
Q

Which of the following is not true of monocytes?

A

Release histamine

143
Q

The production of erythropoietin is stimulated when

A

Blood flow to the kidney declines

144
Q

Erythropoietin is a hormone

A

Released by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production

145
Q

Type A blood has (BLANK) antibodies in the blood plasma

A

Anti B

146
Q

You have type B positive blood. What are all the types of packed RBCs you can receive?

A

B positive, negative, O positive, negative

147
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

The shape of red blood cell means that it has low surface area to volume ratio

A

false

148
Q

true or false

Activated mast cells release histamine, which increases

A

true

149
Q

True or false

Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is excreted by the kidneys

A

False

150
Q

Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Mother RH negative, baby RH positive

151
Q

• Which of the following is true regarding red blood cells?

A

◦ They are anucleate.

152
Q

persons blood type is determined by the

A

◦ Presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane

153
Q

Which of the following statements about red blood cell formation is true?

A

most of the hemoglobin is synthesized during the reticulocyte

154
Q

Which of the following does not occur during the platelet phase?

A

Blood clot is formed

155
Q

Which white blood cell is most effect against parasitic infections?

A

Eosinophils

156
Q

Eosinophils function in

A

Destroying antibody labeled antigens

157
Q

Anti-Rh antibodies are present in the blood of

A

Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the Rh surface antigen

158
Q

Collectively, the conducting cells that carry the impulse from the SA node to the AV node is known as the

A

Internodal pathway

159
Q

The AV node delay is beneficial because

A

It allows time for the atria to contract

160
Q

During ventricular systole, the

A

AV valves are closed

161
Q

With each ventricular systole,

A

Blood pressure increases

162
Q

The (BLANK) is the volume of blood in a ventricle at the beginning of systole

A

End diastole volume

163
Q

During the beginning of ventricular systole when the muscle is contracting but not enough pressure has built up to open semilunar valves the heart is said to be in

A

Isovolumetric contraction

164
Q

Which factor directly influences preload?

A

Venous return

165
Q

Which ion’s entry causes rapid depolarization?

A

Sodium

166
Q

Which ion’s entry causes the plateau?

A

Calcium

167
Q

Which ion’s exit causes repolarization?

A

potassium

168
Q

During hemorrhaging, the drop in capillary hydrostatic pressure will (BLANK) NFP, thus (BLANK) reabsorption

A

Decrease; increasing

169
Q

Which is not an effect of angiotensin II to increase blood pressure?
Increasing production of aldosterone
Increasing secretion of ADH
Vasoconstriction increasing total peripheral resistance
Increasing thirst
Increasing atrial natriuretic peptide

A

Increasing atrial natriuretic peptide

170
Q

To defend blood volume against dehydration, the body

A

Releases antidiruretic hormone (ADH)

171
Q

Which of these is not a short term response to a decrease in blood pressure?

A

Release of EPO

172
Q

What hormones are released as a short term response to a decrease in blood pressure and blood volume?

A

Aldosterone

173
Q

hormone short response

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

174
Q

what hormones are released as a short term response to a decrease in blood pressure and blood volume?

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

Physiology (3 decks)

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