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Anatomy 3300 > Unit 3 > Flashcards

Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

bones of the cranial cavity

A 
frontal 
parietal (2)
temporal (2)
occipital 
sphenoid 
ethmoid
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2
Q

what is a cranial suture?

A

fibrous immovable joints between cranial bones

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3
Q

sagittal suture

A

connects the two parietal bones

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4
Q

coronal suture

A

connects the frontal bone to the two parietal bones

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5
Q

lambdoid suture

A

connects the occipital bone to the two parietal bones

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6
Q

squamous suture

A

connects the temporal bone and parietal bone

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7
Q

what is a fontanelle?

A

soft cartilaginous gaps between the incompletely formed cranial bones of the fetus and infant. (soft spot)

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8
Q

what are the fontanelles?

A

anterior
posterior
mastoid (2)
sphenoid (2)

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9
Q

bones of the face

A 
nasal (2) 
lacrimal (2)
maxilla (2)
palatine (2)
zygomatic (2) 
inferior nasal concha (2)
mandible 
vomer
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10
Q

what are the boundaries of the orbit?

A 
frontal bone (roof)
maxillary bone (floor and part of medial wall)
zygomatic bone (lateral wall)
lacrimal & ethmoid bones (medial wall)
sphenoid bone (posterior wall)
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11
Q

what are the features of the orbit?

A 
superior orbital fissure 
optic foramen 
supraorbital notch (foramen)
inferior orbital fissure 
nasolacrimal canal
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12
Q

what structures pass through the superior orbital fissure?

A

CN III, IV, V1, VI and opthalmic a.

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13
Q

what structure pass through the optic foramen?

A

CN II

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14
Q

what are the features of the nasal cavity?

A

nasal septum
inferior nasal concha
middle nasal concha
superior nasal concha

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15
Q

what forms the nasal septum?

A

vomer bone and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

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16
Q

which two nasal concha are apart of the ethmoid bone?

A

superior and middle

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17
Q

what are the features of the mandible and maxilla?

A

alveolar processes
mandible
maxilla
frontal bone

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18
Q

what are the features of the mandible?

A 
condyloid process
coronoid process
ramus, body, and angle
genoid tubercle
mandibular fossa
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19
Q

the condyloid process articulates with what? forming what?

A

temporal bone, forming temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

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20
Q

what makes up the anterior cranial fossa?

A

frontal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones

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21
Q

what sits in the anterior cranial fossa?

A

frontal lobes

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22
Q

what makes up the middle cranial fossa?

A

sphenoid and temporal bones

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23
Q

what sits in the middle cranial fossa?

A

temporal lobes

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24
Q

what makes up the posterior cranial fossa?

A

temporal and occipital bones

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25
Q

what sits in the posterior cranial fossa?

A

cerebellum and brainstem

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26
Q

what is a paranasal sinus?

A

spaces within the bones of the skull

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27
Q

what are the 4 paranasal sinuses?

A

frontal
sphenoid
maxillary
ethmoid air cells

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28
Q

CN I

A

olfactory n.

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29
Q

CN II

A

optic n.

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30
Q

CN III

A

occulomotor n.

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31
Q

CN IV

A

trochlear n.

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32
Q

CN V

A

trigeminal n.

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33
Q

CN V1

A

opthalmic n.

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34
Q

CN V2

A

maxillary n.

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35
Q

CN V3

A

mandibular n.

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36
Q

CN VI

A

abducens n.

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37
Q

CN VII

A

facial n.

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38
Q

CN VIII

A

vestibulocochlear n.

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39
Q

CN IX

A

glossopharyngeal n.

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40
Q

CN X

A

vagus n.

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41
Q

CN XI

A

accessory n.

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42
Q

CN XII

A

hypoglossal n.

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43
Q

what passes through the cribiform plate?

A

CN I

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44
Q

what passes through the optic foramen?

A

CN II and ophthalmic a.

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45
Q

what passes through the superior orbital fissure?

A

CN III, IV, VI, and V1

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46
Q

what passes through the foramen rotundum?

A

CN V2

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47
Q

what passes through the foramen ovale?

A

CN V3

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48
Q

what passes through the foramen spinosum?

A

middle meningeal a.

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49
Q

what passes through the foramen lacerum?

A

nothing actually goes through!

internal carotid a. enters the cranial valut here

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50
Q

what passes through the jugular foramen?

A

interjuglar v, CN IX, X, and XI

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51
Q

what passes through the internal acoustic meatus?

A

CN VII and VIII

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52
Q

what passes through the stylomastoid foramen?

A

CN VII

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53
Q

what passes through the hypoglossal canal?

A

CN XII

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54
Q

what passes through the foramen magnum?

A

vertebral arteries and spinal cord

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55
Q

what passes through the carotid canal?

A

internal carotid a.

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56
Q

what bone is cribiform plate a part of?

A

ethmoid bone

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57
Q

what bone is the optic foramen a part of?

A

sphenoid bone

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58
Q

what bone is the superior orbital fissure a part of?

A

between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone

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59
Q

what bone is the foramen rotundum a part of?

A

maxillary bone

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60
Q

what bone is the foramen ovale a part of?

A

sphenoid bone

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61
Q

what bone is the foramen spinosum a part of?

A

sphenoid bone

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62
Q

what bone is the foramen lacerum a part of?

A

greater wing of the sphenoid bone

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63
Q

what bone is the jugular foramen a part of?

A

occipital bone

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64
Q

what bone is the internal acoustic meatus a part of?

A

temporal bone

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65
Q

what bone is the stylomastoid foramen a part of?

A

temporal bone

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66
Q

what bone is the hypoglossal canal a part of?

A

occipital bone

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67
Q

what bone is the foramen magnum a part of?

A

occipital bone

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68
Q

what bone is the carotid canal a part of?

A

sphenoid bone

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69
Q

what are the functions of the brain?

A

stimulates movement
maintains homeostasis
origin of conceptual thoughts

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70
Q

what end of the neural tube forms the brain?

A

cranial (head)

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71
Q

what end of the neural tube forms the spinal cord?

A

caudal (tail)

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72
Q

what does the forebrain develop into?

A

cerebral hemispheres
thalamus
hypothalmus

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73
Q

what are the openings of the forebrain?

A

lateral ventricles

3rd ventricles

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74
Q

what does the midbrain develop into?

A

midbrain

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75
Q

what is the opening of the midbrain?

A

cerebral aquaduct

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76
Q

what does the hindbrain develop into?

A

cerebellum
pons
medulla oblongata

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77
Q

what is the opening of the hindbrain?

A

4th ventricle

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78
Q

what forms the “brainstem”?

A

midbrain and hindbrain

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79
Q

what does the spinal cord develop into?

A

spinal cord

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80
Q

what is the opening of the spinal cord?

A

central canal

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81
Q

gyrus

A

elevated folds of the brain (hills)

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82
Q

sulcus

A

a shallow groove between folds (valleys)

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83
Q

fissure

A

a deep groove between folds

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84
Q

what are the 4 lobes of the brain?

A

frontal
parietal
temporal
occipital

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85
Q

what does the central sulcus separate?

A

frontal and parietal lobes

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86
Q

precentral gyrus

A

part of the frontal lobe

main function=fine motor control

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87
Q

postcentral gyrus

A

part of the parietal lobe

main function=primary sensory reception area

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88
Q

what does the lateral fissure separate?

A

temporal and frontal lobes

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89
Q

what does the parito-occipital sulcus separate?

A

parietal and occipital lobes

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90
Q

corps callosum

A

contains commissural fibers

connects the two hemispheres of the brain

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91
Q

septum pellucidum

A

thin tissue separating the two lateral ventricles

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92
Q

function of the thalamus

A

major relay center for all sensation EXCEPT olfaction

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93
Q

function of the hypothalamus

A

major regulator of the body’s internal environment (homeostasis) through the autonomic, limbic, and endocrine systems

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94
Q

optic chiasma

A

contains crossing fibers from each eye

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95
Q

pituitary glad

A

closely interconnected with the hypothalamus

secretes hormones to maintain homeostasis

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96
Q

mammillary bodies

A

nucleus, important in memory formation and emotion

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97
Q

cerebral peduncle

A

collection of descending motor processes from cerebrum

located in the midbrain

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98
Q

pons

A

mainly consists of sensory and motor processes

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99
Q

medulla oblongata

A

autonomic reflex center

regulates heart rate and respiration rates

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100
Q

arbor vitae

A

“tree like” appearance of white matter within the cerebellum
(seen medially)

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101
Q

superior colliculus

A

midbrain collection of nuclei associated with VISUAL reflexes

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102
Q

inferior colliculus

A

midbrain collection of nuclei associated with AUDITORY reflexes

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103
Q

pineal gland

A

larger producer of melatonin

involved in the sleep/wake cycle

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104
Q

paracentral lobule

A

U-shaped continuation where pre and postcentral gyro meet

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105
Q

infundibulum

A

stalk left from the pituitary gland

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106
Q

olive

A

collection of nuclei that communicate with the cerebellum

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107
Q

pyramids of the medulla

A

large bundles of descending motor fibers

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108
Q

what does the longitudinal fissure separate?

A

cerebral hemispheres

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109
Q

what does the transverse fissure separate?

A

cerebrum from the cerebellum

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110
Q

gracilis tubercle

A

nuclei important in the relay sensory information from the lower body

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111
Q

cuneate tubercle

A

nuclei important in the relay sensory information from the upper body

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112
Q

what is the choroid plexus?

A

a structure that continually produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). this is a specialized fluid from filtered blood, found in ALL ventricles

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113
Q

functions of the CSF

A

serves as a shock absorber
helps in the transport nutrients and removal of waste
helps maintain the proper ion balance in neural tissue

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114
Q

what are the ventricles of the brain?

A

lateral (2)
third
fourth
central canal

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115
Q

what connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?

A

interventricular foramen

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116
Q

what connects the third and fourth ventricles?

A

cererbral aquaduct

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117
Q

what are the meninges?

A

three layers of membranes (tissue) covering the brain and spinal cord

  1. pia mater
  2. arachnoid mater
  3. dura mater
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118
Q

pia mater

A 
innermost layer (deepest)
dips into EACH sulcus and fissure
cannot be distinguished grossly
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119
Q

arachnoid mater

A

middle layer

only dips into the transverse and longitudinal fissures

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120
Q

dura mater

A 
outer layer 
single layer around spinal cord 
double layer around the brain 
 - periosteal (superifical)
 - meningeal (deep)
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121
Q

periosteal layer of the dura mater adheres to..

A

the skull

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122
Q

meningeal layer of dura mater adheres to..

A

the arachnoid mater

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123
Q

subarachnoid space

A

space between the arachnoid and pia mater

location of: CSF and blood vessels of the brain

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124
Q

subdural space

A

space between the dura and arachnoid mater

POTENTIAL SPACE ONLY!!

125
Q

extradural space

A

space between skull and dura mater

POTENTIAL SPACE ONLY!!

126
Q

what is a dural venous sinus?

A

areas where the two layers of the dura mater separate creating a space (sinus) in between

contain venous blood and CSF

127
Q

falx cerebri

A

separates the left and right cerebral hemispheres

attaches to the crista galli anteriorly and runs through the longitudinal fissure

128
Q

tentorium cerebelli

A

separates the cerebrum and cerebellum

attaches to the petrous ridge of the temporal bone

129
Q

arachnoid granulations

A

extensions of the arachnoid membrane that pierce through the dura to open into major dural venous sinuses
returns “used” CSF from the subarachnoid space back into circulation

130
Q

internal carotid aa.

A
  • branch off the common carotid a.
  • enters the skull through the carotid canal and “bounces off” foramen lacerum
  • supplies a majority of the cerebrum
131
Q

vertebral aa.

A
  • branch off the subclavian a.
  • travels through the transverse foramina in the cervical vertebrae and enters the skull through the foramen magnum
  • supplies posterior cerebrum, brainstem, and cerebellum
132
Q

major branches of the internal carotid aa.

A

anterior cerebral aa.
anterior communicating a.
middle cerebral a.
posterior communicating aa.

133
Q

major branches of the vertebral aa.

A 
posterior cerebral aa.
superior cerebral aa. 
basilar aa. 
labyrinthine aa. 
anterior inferior cerebellar aa. 
posterior inferior cerebellar aa.
anterior spinal a.
134
Q

circle of willis

A

anastomosis that is very important in order to supply collateral circulation to the brain

135
Q

blood vessels of the circle of willis

A 
anterior cerebral aa.
anterior communicating a. 
internal carotid a.
posterior communicating aa.
posterior cerebral a.
136
Q

anterior cerebral a.

A
  • found within the longitudinal fissure

- supplies most of the medial aspect of the brain

137
Q

middle cerebral a.

A
  • found emerging through the lateral fissure

- supplies most of the lateral aspects of the brain

138
Q

posterior cerebral a.

A

supplies the medial and lateral aspects of the OCCIPITAL LOBE

139
Q

contralateral

A

opposite side

140
Q

ipsilateral

141
Q

what does the left side of the brain control?

A

most of the motor function of the RIGHT side and receives sensory info from the RIGHT side of the body

142
Q

what does the right side of the brain control?

A

most of the motor function of the LEFT side and receives sensory info from the LEFT side of the body

143
Q

commissural fibers

A

fibers allowing commutation between the two hemispheres

ex: corpus callosum

144
Q

association fibers

A

fibers allowing communication within a hemisphere

ex: general cerebral white matter

145
Q

projection fibers

A

fibers allowing communication from the cerebral cortex to the other parts of the CNS
ex: spinal tracts

146
Q

what are brodmann numbers?

A

developed by german anatomist KORBINIAN BRODMANN as a way to organize the brain into functional areas based on the cytoarchitecture (structure and organization) of the neurons

147
Q

location and function of brodmann’s 3,1,2?

A

location: postcentral gyrus, posterior paracentral lobule
function: primary general sensory area

148
Q

location and function of brodmann’s 4?

A

location: precentral gyrus, anterior paracentral lobule
function: promary motor area “fine motor control”

149
Q

location and function of brodmann’s 17,18?

A

location: occipital lobe surrounding calcarine fissure
function: primary and secondary visual reception area

150
Q

location and function of brodmann’s 41,42?

A

location: temporal lobes
function: primary and secondary auditory reception areas

151
Q

location and function of brodmann’s 44,45?

A

location: frontal lobe, dominant hemisphere ONLY!
function: motor speech area “broca’s area”

152
Q

location and function of brodmann’s 9,10,11?

A

location: frontal lobe, prefrontal cortex
function: personality and character traits

153
Q

basal nuclei

A

collection of nerve cell bodies deep in cerebrum that inhibit muscle contraction and help maintain motor control.

*damage can lead to muscles rigidity and/or resting tremors (ex: Parkinson’s Disease)

154
Q

what is the purpose of the spinal cord?

A

communication between the brain and the peripheral nervous system

155
Q

fascicule or tract

A

white matter organized into bundles of nerve cell processes

156
Q

spinal cord in utero

A

same length as the vertebral column

157
Q

spinal cord at birth

A

extends to the L3 vertebrae level

158
Q

spinal cord as an adult

A

stops growing but the vertebral column continues to grow; so the spinal cord extends to the L1-L2 region

159
Q

where do the meningeal layers of the spinal cord terminate?

A

inferiorly at S2 vertebra

laterally just distal to the roots (before spinal n.)

160
Q

what meningeal layer continues from the skull to surround the cord?

A

meningeal layer of dura mater

161
Q

the spinal cord terminates at L1-L2 as the…

A

conus medullaris

162
Q

the pia mater extends from L2-S2 as the…

A

filum terminale

163
Q

what surround the film terminale?

A

dura mater and arachnoid

164
Q

connective tissue continues from S2-coccyx as the…

A

coccygeal ligament

165
Q

what is the caudal equina?

A

a bundle of nerve roots that extend through the subarachnoid space and approach their corresponding intervertebral foramen

166
Q

conus medullaris

A

end of the spinal cord

167
Q

what is a spinal cord tract?

A

the white matter of the spinal cord consisting of largely organized tracts

168
Q

what are sensory tracts referred to?

A

afferent OR ascending

169
Q

what do sensory tracts do?

A

bring sensory info from the periphery to the brain or brainstem

170
Q

how many neurons are in the sensory paths?

171
Q

primary neuron of the sensory tracts

A

cell body is ALWAYS in the dorsal root ganglia

172
Q

secondary neuron of the sensory tracts

A

axon of from this neuron ALWAYS cross over to the contralateral side
location varies in the systems

173
Q

tertiary neuron of the sensory tract

A

ALWAYS in the thalamus

174
Q

dorsal column tract

A
  1. named bc the axons supply the dorsal portion of the spinal cord
  2. crosses over at the contralateral side of the medulla oblongata
  3. carries GENERAL SENSORY info to the brain
    - touch, vibration, pressure, weight, two point discrimination
175
Q

neurons of the dorsal column tract

A

1° - neuron in the dorsal root ganglion
*synapses in the medulla oblongata at the gracile OR cuneate tubercle
2° - neuron in the gracile OR cuneate tubercle
*axons from these neurons cross over at the CONTRALATERAL side of the medulla oblongata
*synapses with the nuclei in the thalamus
3° - neuron in the thalamus
*axons carries info to the postcentral gyrus (brodmann’s 3,1,2) on the IPSILATERAL side

176
Q

fasciculus gracilis

A

medial section of the dorsal spinal cord where axons from the LL and lower truck reside

177
Q

fasciculus cuneatus

A

lateral section of the dorsal spinal cord where axons from the UL and upper trunk reside

178
Q

lateral spinothalamic tract

A
  1. located in the lateral portion of the spinal cord white matter
  2. crosses over within 1-2 spinal segments to the CONTRALATERAL side of the spinal cord
  3. carries pain and temperature ONLY from the body to the postcentral gyrus
179
Q

neurons of the lateral spinothalamic tract

A

1° - neuron in the dorsal root ganglion
*synapses in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord IMMEDIATELY upon entering the cord
2° - neuron in the dorsal horn of the gray matter adjacent to the corresponding dorsal root ganglion
*axons cross over within 1-2 spinal segments to the CONTRALATERAL side of the spinal cord
3° - neuron in the thalamus
*axons carry info to the postcentral gyrus (brodmann’s 3,1,2) on the IPSILATERAL side

180
Q

what are the motor tracts referred to?

A

efferent OR descending

181
Q

what do the motor tracts do?

A

take motor info from the brain to the periphery

182
Q

how many neurons are in the motor path?

183
Q

primary neuron of the motor tract

A

cell body is ALWAYS in the cortex or a nucleus in the brain or brainstem

184
Q

secondary neuron of the motor tract

A

cell body is ALWAYS in the spinal cord gray matter

185
Q

lateral corticospinal tract

A
  1. originates at the precentral gyrus (brodmann’s 4)
  2. crosses over at the CONTRALATERAL side of the pyramids of the medulla (between the brain stem and spinal cord)
  3. carries motor function to muscles
186
Q

1° neuron in the precentral gyrus

A
  • referred to as upper motor neuron (UMN)
  • axons travel within the pyramids of the medulla on the IPSILATERAL side then cross over to the CONTRALATERAL side just superior to the beginning of the spinal cord (pyramidal decussation)
187
Q

2° neuron in the ventral horn of gray matter

A
  • referred to as lower motor neuron (LMN)
  • axons from this neuron run through the ventral roots, spinal nerves, and dorsal & ventral rami to the peripheral muscles
188
Q

damage effecting UMN

A

damage to the cerebral cortex, brain stem, or the lateral spinal cord leading to spastic paralysis; in which the spinal reflexes are still intact but conscious control is lost

189
Q

damage effecting LMN

A

damage to the ventral horn or the peripheral nerve leading to flaccid paralysis; in which all function is lost and muscular atrophy can occur

190
Q

outer layer of the eye

A

5/6 consists of white sclera - this where muscles attach

1/6 consists of the transparent cornea

191
Q

middle layer of the eye

A

choroid, the vascular layer, continues with the ciliary body and iris anteriorly

192
Q

inner layer of the eye

A

retina or neural layer

193
Q

aqueous humor

A

water filled space anterior to the lens

194
Q

vitreous body

A

gelatinous filling maintaining the round shape , posterior to the lens

195
Q

cornea

A
  • clear continuation of the sclera anteriorly

- refracts incoming light

196
Q

pupil

A
  • opening in the middle of the iris which light enters the eye
  • changes in size allows more or less light to enter
197
Q

iris

A

pigmented smooth muscle that controls the size of the pupil

198
Q

lens

A
  • light that enters the eye through cornea and pupil then passes through the lens
  • focuses the light rays to hit the retina
199
Q

ciliary body

A

attaches to the lens and changes shape of the lens in order to focus the light rays accurately on the retina

200
Q

accommodation

A

the process of changing the shape of the lens in order to focus on near objects

201
Q

lacrimal gland

A
  • located in the superior lateral aspect of the orbit

- produces tears, blinking helps move the fluid medially

202
Q

nasolacrimal duct

A
  • travels from the orbit to the nasal cavity

- drains tears into the nasal cavity causing a stuffy nose when overflowing

203
Q

muscles of the eye

A 
levator palpebra superioris 
superior rectus 
superior oblique 
lateral rectus 
medial rectus 
inferior rectus 
inferior oblique
204
Q

superior oblique inn.

205
Q

lateral rectus inn.

206
Q

remaining muscles of the eye inn.

207
Q

taste sensory inn. for anterior 2/3 of tongue

208
Q

general sensory inn. for anterior 2/3 of tongue

209
Q

general and taste sensory for posterior 1/3 of tongue

210
Q

styloglossus m.

A
  • comes from the styloid process

- pulls tongue posteriorly

211
Q

hypoglossus m.

A
  • comes from the hyoid bone

- pulls tongue down and posterior

212
Q

genioglossus m.

A
  • comes from the glenoid tubercle

- pulls tongue out of the mouth

213
Q

intrinsic mm.

A

make up the body of the tongue

214
Q

all tongue muscles are inn. by?

215
Q

auricle

A

funnel shaped aspect of the ear, helps direct sound waves into the auditory canal

216
Q

external acoustic meatus (auditory canal)

A

passage from the auricle to the tympanic membrane

217
Q

tympanic membrane

A

“ear drum” membrane separating the external and middle ear

218
Q

bony ossicles

A

transmit the sound waves from the external ear to the inner ear

  • malleus (hammer)
  • incus (anvil)
  • stapes (stirrup)
219
Q

pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube

A
  • connects the middle ear to the pharynx

- helps in equalizing pressure across the tympanic membrane

220
Q

inner ear is a…

A

fluid-filled chamber for equilibrium and hearing

221
Q

semicircular canals

A

controls equilibrium

222
Q

cochlea

A

controls hearing

223
Q

oval window

A
  • in contact with the stapes

- stapes transmits sounds waves into the cochlea through this membrane

224
Q

round window

A

end of the cochlea, allows for excess pressure

225
Q

what type of nerve is olfactory n. (CN I)?

A

SENSORY ONLY for sense of smell

226
Q

what type of nerve is optic n. (CN II)?

A

SENSORY ONLY for sense of vision

227
Q

damage to the optic n. leads to…

A

TOTAL blindness in the ipsilateral eye

228
Q

damage to the optic chiasma will lead to…

A

“tunnel vision” - loss of the temporal visual fields in BOTH eyes

229
Q

damage to the optic tract, thalamus, optic radiations, OR brodmann’s 17/18 will lead to…

A

loss of the contralateral field of vision from both eyes
ex: damage to left optic tract leads to no vision in the left nasal and right temporal visual fields for the left and right eye respectively

230
Q

what type of nerve is oculomotor n. (CN III)?

A

MOTOR ONLY for all extra ocular muscles except superior oblique and lateral rectus mm.

231
Q

what type of nerve is trochelar n. (CN VI)?

A

MOTOR ONLY for the superior oblique m.

232
Q

what type of nerve is trigeminal n. (CN V)?

A

mixed n. as a whole

233
Q

ophthalmic n. (CN V1)

A
  • enters through the superior orbital fissure

- SENSORY to the upper face and eye region

234
Q

maxillary n. (CN V2)

A
  • enters through foramen rotundum

- SENSORY to the face around the nose and all upper teeth

235
Q

mandibular n. (CN V3)

A
  • transmitted through foramen oval

- MOTOR to muscles of mastication and SENSORY to the lower face, tongue, and all lower teeth

236
Q

what type of nerve is abducent n. (CN VI)?

A

MOTOR ONLY to the lateral rectus m.

237
Q

what type of nerve is facial n. (CN VII)?

A

mixed

  • SENSORY to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue for the special sense, taste
  • MOTOR to muscles of facial expression
238
Q

what type of nerve is vestibulocochlear n. (CN VIII)?

A

SENSORY ONLY for the special senses of hearing (cochlea) and equilibrium (semicircular canals)

239
Q

what type of nerve is glossopharyngeal n. (CN IX)?

A

mixed

  • SENSORY to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue for both general and taste, also to the pharynx
  • MOTOR to one muscle in the pharynx
240
Q

what type of nerve is vagus n. (CN X)?

A

mixed

- SENSORY & MOTOR to the viscera of the neck, thorax, and abdomen

241
Q

what type of nerve accessory n. (CN XI)?

A

MOTOR ONLY to trapezius m. and sternocleidomastoid m.

242
Q

what type of nerve hypoglossal n. (CN XII)?

A

MOTOR ONLY to motor muscles of the tongue

243
Q

muscles of facial expression

A
  • occipitalis
  • frontalis
  • platysma
  • orbicularis oculi
  • orbicularis oris
  • buccinator
244
Q

all of the muscles of facial expression are inn. by?

A

CN VII (facial n.)

245
Q

muscles of mastication

A
  • masseter
  • temporalis
  • medial pterygoid
  • lateral pterygoid
246
Q

all of the muscles of mastication are in inn. by?

A

CN V3 ( mandibular n.)

247
Q

action of orbicularis oculi

A

closes the eye

248
Q

action of orbicularis oris

A

puckers the lips

249
Q

action of buccinator

A

pushes cheeks against teeth and helps keep food between teeth

250
Q

origin of masseter

A

zygomatic arch

251
Q

insertion of masseter

A

angle of the mandible, lateral side

252
Q

action of masseter

A

closes mandible

253
Q

origin of temporalis

A

temporal fossa

254
Q

action of temporalis

A

closes and retracts mandible

255
Q

insertion of temporalis

A

coronoid process

256
Q

origin of medial pterygoid

A

medial side of the lateral pterygoid plate

257
Q

insertion of medial pterygoid

A

angle of the mandible, medial side

258
Q

action of medial pterygoid

A

closes mandible

259
Q

origin of lateral pterygoid plate

A

lateral side of lateral pterygoid plate

260
Q

insertion of lateral pterygoid

A

condylar process of the mandible

261
Q

action of lateral pterygoid

A

OPENS mandible

262
Q

origin of sternocleidomastoid

A

sternum and clavicle

263
Q

insertion of sternocleidomastoid

A

mastoid process

264
Q

action of sternocleidomastoid

A

turns head to the opposite side

265
Q

inn. of trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

A

CN XI (accessory n.)

266
Q

suprahyoid muscles

A
  • mylohyoid
  • anterior and posterior bellies of the DIGASTRIC m.
  • stylohyoid
  • geniohyoid
267
Q

action of the suprahyoid muscles

A

elevate the hyoid bone

268
Q

infrahyoid muscles

A
  • sternohyoid
  • omohyoid
  • sternothyroid
  • thyrohyoid
269
Q

action of the infrahyoid muscles

A

depress the hyoid bone

270
Q

inn. of hyoid muscles

A

mix of: CNV, VII, XII, and ventral rami C1-3

271
Q

where does the internal carotid a. supply?

A

anterior, medial, and lateral brain

272
Q

where does the external carotid a. supply?

A

external head and neck

273
Q

where does the vertebral a. supply?

A

posterior cerebrum, branstem, and cerebellum

274
Q

carotid body

A

chemoreceptor measuring the concentration of oxygen in the blood

275
Q

carotid sinus

A

baroreceptor measuring blood pressure

276
Q

external jugular v.

A

formed by a combination of the veins of the external face, head, and neck.

  • located superficially to the sternocleidomastoid
277
Q

internal jugular v.

A

returns venous blood from inside the skull

  • located deep to sternocleidomastoid
278
Q

vagus n. is located between what vessels?

A

common carotid a. and internal jugular v.

279
Q

boundary of the carotid triangle

A

lateral - sternocleidomastoid

280
Q

content of the carotid triangle

A

lateral - internal jugular v.
middle - vagus n.
medial - common carotid

281
Q

cleft palate

A
  • results when the two maxillary bones do not fuse together properly
  • usually occurs between 10-12th weeks of embryological development
282
Q

cataracts

A

lens becomes “cloudy” causing light to scatter around the retina
- leading cause of blindness

283
Q

glaucoma

A

an ocular disorder caused by increased intraocular pressure, usually due to the inability of aqueous humor drainage

284
Q

cerebrovascular accidents (CVA)

A

AKA strokes

- caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain; usually due to clot or injured artery

285
Q

anterior cerebral artery supplies and corresponds to?

A

supplies: MEDIAL aspect of the cerebrum; paracentral lobule

corresponds to: brodmann’s 4 and 3,1,2 ; also 9,10,11

286
Q

stroke to the anterior cerebral a. will produce deficit to? resulting in?

A

lower limb on the CONTRALATERAL side of the body, resulting in lack of conscious motor control and loss of sensory function

287
Q

middle cerebral a. supplies and corresponds to?

A

supplies: LATERAL aspect of the cerebrum; precentral and postcentral gyri

corresponds to: brodmann’s 4 and 3,1,2 ; also 9,10,11 and 44,45 and 41,42

288
Q

stroke to the middle cerebral a. will produce deficit to? resulting in?

A

upper limb and head/neck of the CONTRALATERAL side, resulting in lack of conscious motor control, and loss of sensory function. could also affect speech, hearing, and personality

289
Q

posterior cerebral a. supplies and corresponds to?

A

supplies: POSTERIOR aspect; occipital lobe

corresponds to: brodmann’s 17,18

290
Q

stroke to the posterior cerebral a. will produce deficit to? resulting in?

A

same visual deficits as damage to the optic tracts, optic radiations, and thalamus - so damage to the CONTRALATERAL field of vision in each eye

291
Q

subarachnoid space

A
  • between arachnoid and pia mater

- location of the CSF and flood vessels around the brain

292
Q

subdural space

A
  • between dura and arachnoid mater

- potential space only

293
Q

extradural space

A
  • between skull and dura mater

- potential space only

294
Q

middle meningeal a.

  • branch of?
  • enters skull where?
  • lies between?
  • supplies?
A
  • maxillary a.
  • foramen spinosum
  • skull and dura mater
  • dura mater
295
Q

what is an extradural hematoma?

A

rupture of the middle meningeal a. leads to accumulation of blood in the extradural space

296
Q

what is a subdural hematoma?

A

rupture of the cerebral veins leading to accumulation in the subdural space

297
Q

what is a subarachnoid hematoma?

A

rupture of the cerebral vessels leading to accumulation in the subarachnoid space

298
Q

hydrocephalus

A

condition where CSF builds up in the ventricles due to blockage in the outflow from ventricles to subarachnoid space. can lead to damage unless shunt is used to drain excess fluid

299
Q

what is a spinal tap?

A

CSF withdrawn from the subarachnoid space and examined for bacteria and viruses

  • needle is inserted between L3-4 levels to avoid spinal cord damage
300
Q

spastic paralysis

A

spinal reflexes arc is still intact which maintains tonus of muscle but conscious control is lost

301
Q

damage to what causes spastic paralysis?

A

cerebral cortex, brain stem, or the lateral spinal cord that would effect the UMN

302
Q

flaccid paralysis

A

no nerve impulse reaches the muscles, leading to atrophy. no spinal reflex or conscious control

303
Q

damage to what causes flaccid paralysis?

A

ventral horn, or peripheral n. that would effect the LMN

304
Q

RIGHT spinal cord damage at L2 - patient would present with?

A
  • loss of general sensory to the IPSOLATERAL side of the lower limb
  • loss of pain and temperature to the CONTRALATERAL side of the lower limb
  • spastic paralysis on the IPSOLATERAL side of the lower limb
305
Q

LEFT spinal cord damage at C5 - patient would present with?

A
  • loss of general sensory to the IPSOLATERAL side of upper and lower limbs
  • loss of pain and temperature to the CONTRALATERAL side of upper and lower limbs
  • spastic paralysis on the IPSOLATERAL side of the upper and lower limbs
306
Q

RIGHT side of the medulla oblongata damage - patient would present with?

A
  • loss of general sensory on the CONTRALATERAL side of the body below medulla
  • loss of pain and temperature on the CONTRALATERAL side of the body below medulla
  • spastic paralysis of the CONTRALATERAL side of the body below medulla
307
Q

what cranial nerves have parasympathetic fibers that supply head and neck only?

A

CN III, VII, IX

308
Q

what cranial nerve has parasympathetic fibers that supply only the thorax?

Anatomy 3300 (3 decks)

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